Mock Questions (ICT) Flashcards

1
Q

Which ONE of the following particle sizing techniques measures the Stokes’ diameter?

A. Sieves
B. Microscopy
C. Andreasen pipette
D. Cascade impactor
E. Photo correlation spectroscopy

A

D

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2
Q

Which ONE of the following particle sizing techniques measures the hydrodynamic
diameter?

A) Sieves
B) Microscopy
C) Andreasen pipette
D) Cascade impactor
E) Photon correlation spectroscopy

A

Photon correlation spectroscopy

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3
Q

Which ONE of the following does NOT indicate the flowability of a powder sample?

A) Calculating the Hausner ratio
B) Calculating the Carr’s index
C) Measuring the angle of repose of a powder sample
D) Comparing between the bulk and tapped density of a powder sample
E) Observing the bulk volume of a powder sample

A

E

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4
Q

Which ONE of the following equipment is NOT used for wet granulation?

A. High-shear granulation
B. Fluid-bed granulation
C. Roller compaction
D. Extrusion-spheronization
E. Spray-drying granulation

A

=C

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5
Q

Which one of the following is a LESS LIKELY side effect of the thiazide-like
diuretic class of drugs?

a) Hyponatremia
b) Hypovolemia
c) Hypotension
d) Hyperkalaemia
e) Metabolic alkalosis

A

D

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6
Q

Identify the LEAST ACCURATE statement about antianginal drugs

A. Dihydropyridine derivative calcium-channel blockers (such as amlodipine) may be effective in patients with Prinz metal angina (intense coronary artery spasm).
B. Nicorandil activates the ATP-sensitive K+ channels to enhance K+ efflux and hyperpolarisation of vascular smooth muscle cells.
C. Ivabradine selectively blocks the hyperpolarization-activated, cyclic nucleotide- gated (HCN) channels present within the SA nodes and lowers the heart rate without affecting the contractility of the cardiac muscle.
D. Ranolazine is a class ID sodium channel inhibitor which blocks the late inward sodium currents occurring during phase 2 of ventricular action potentials
E. β-adrenergic antagonist class of drugs, like bisoprolol, are a first-line option for treating patients with Printz metal angina (intense vasospasm) and heart failure

A

E

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7
Q

Which type of arrhythmia is characterised by rapid heartbeats originating above the ventricles?

A) Ventricular tachycardia
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Atrial flutter
D) Sinus bradycardia
E) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

A

E

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8
Q

Which ONE of the following statements regarding lung scintigraphy is INCORRECT?

A) Scintigraphy is an imaging technique
B) Diagnosis of some lung conditions is possible using scintigraphy
C) An external X-ray source is required in scintigraphy
D) Scintigraphy can be used to visualise particle deposition in the lungs
E) Gamma cameras are usually required for scintigraphy

A

=C

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9
Q

Which of the following Drug Metabolising Enzymes extensively metabolise amlodipine into its inactive metabolites?

A. CYP450 3A4/5
B. CYP450 2C9
C. CYP450 2C8
D. CYP450 2C19
E. CYP450 1A2

A

A

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10
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists (LTRAs)? (SAR)

A. They contain at least one hydrogen bond acceptor
B. There will be more than one hydrophobic region
C. There will be one or more acidic groups
D. The molecular weight is always less than 500 g/mol
E. The lipophilic tetraene tail of LTD4 can be imitated by several, more stable,
aromatic rings

A

=D

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11
Q

Which ONE of the following possible mechanisms of drug deposition in the alveolar regions is likely to be most important for particles of aerodynamic diameter
< 0.5 μm?

A. Inertial impaction
B. Sedimentation
C. Charge reflection
D. Interception
E. Diffusion

A

A

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12
Q

Examine the list of drugs below. Which of these are beta-2 receptor agonist drugs? Please identify the MOST appropriate answers from the list (A-E) below.

  1. Salbutamol
  2. Ipratropium
  3. Salmeterol
  4. Tiotropium
  5. Terbutaline

A. Answers 1,3 and 5 are beta 2 receptor agonists
B. Answers 2 and 5 are beta 2 receptor agonists
C. Answers 2 and 4 are beta 2 receptor agonists
D. Answers 4 and 5 are beta-2 receptor agonists
E. Answers 2 and 3 are beta 2 receptor agonists

A

A

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13
Q

Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene. What is the normal functioning of the protein that the CFTR gene encodes?

A. Transports chloride ions to the extracellular space
B. Transports chloride ions to the intracellular space
C. Transports sodium ions to the extracellular space
D. Transports sodium ions to the intracellular space
E. Transports bicarbonate ions intracellularly

A

A

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14
Q

Most appropriate medicine:

A patient develops atrial fibrillation and a rate control strategy is to be pursued. You are asked to recommend a suitable medicine by the consultant. The patient is asthmatic and experienced an acute asthma attack when prescribed atenolol in error many years ago.

A amiodarone
B apixaban
C bisoprolol
D diltiazem
E edoxaban
F flecainide
G rivaroxaban
H warfarin

A

D

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15
Q

Most appropriate medicine:

A patient with atrial fibrillation requires medication to reduce the risk of thromboembolic stroke. Among other things, you counsel them that this medicine should be taken once daily at the same time of day with food if a dose is missed it should be taken within 12 hours if remembered but omitted if not and that there is no easily-available antidote to treat bleeds.

A amiodarone
B apixaban
C bisoprolol
D diltiazem
E edoxaban
F flecainide
G rivaroxaban
H warfarin

A

G

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16
Q

Most appropriate medicine:

A patient with atrial fibrillation requires medication to reduce the risk of thromboembolic stroke. Among other things, you counsel them that this medicine interacts with lots of other medicines and that care should be taken with alcohol and certain foods. The international normalised ratio (INR) will need to be regularly monitored

A amiodarone
B apixaban
C bisoprolol
D diltiazem
E edoxaban
F flecainide
G rivaroxaban
H warfarin

A

=H

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17
Q

Most suitable medicine:

Heart failure is a common complication in patients who have had a myocardial infarction. It is an incurable condition, however, the use of medication can help slow the condition’s progression and improve a patient’s quality of life. You are working as a pharmacist in a
hospital heart failure clinic where you are reviewing patients’ medication.

Mrs B, a 65-year-old woman, has recently been diagnosed with heart failure with a preserved ejection fraction. She is complaining of feeling breathless and has swollen ankles.

A. Perindopril 2.5 mg tablets
B. Atenolol 50 mg tablets
C. Losartan 12.5 mg tablets
D. Furosemide 20 mg tablets
E. Metoprolol 100 mg tablets
F. Enalapril 2.5 mg tablets
G. Amlodipine 10 mg tablets
H. Spironolactone 25 mg tablets

A

=D

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18
Q

Most suitable medicine:

Heart failure is a common complication in patients who have had a myocardial infarction. It is an incurable condition, however, the use of medication can help slow the condition’s progression and improve a patient’s quality of life. You are working as a pharmacist in a
hospital heart failure clinic where you are reviewing patients’ medication.

Mr A, a 56-year-old man, has been newly diagnosed with heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction following a myocardial infarction. The patient is returning to your clinic because they cannot tolerate the ramipril that was previously started as they have developed a persistent cough, so they would like to try an alternative medication

A. Perindopril 2.5 mg tablets
B. Atenolol 50 mg tablets
C. Losartan 12.5 mg tablets
D. Furosemide 20 mg tablets
E. Metoprolol 100 mg tablets
F. Enalapril 2.5 mg tablets
G. Amlodipine 10 mg tablets
H. Spironolactone 25 mg tablets

A

=C

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19
Q

Acute coronary syndrome management

Mr P is a 64-year-old man with a medical history of stable angina. He requires medication to be used when required when playing golf, which is an activity that is known to bring on the patient’s angina pain

Most suitable medicine?
A. Fondaparinux 2.5 mg s/c
B. Clopidogrel 75 mg tablets
C. Bisoprolol 2.5 mg tablets
D. Ramipril 5 mg tablets
E. GTN 400 microgram spray
F. Paracetamol 500 mg tablets
G. Diltiazem 60 mg tablets
H. Atorvastatin 80 mg tablets

A

=E

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20
Q

Acute coronary syndrome management

Ms C is an 83-year-old woman who has been rushed to A&E with a suspected ST-elevated
myocardial infarction (STEMI) and requires medication. She received a 300 mg STAT dose of aspirin by the paramedics on her way to the hospital.

Most suitable medicine?
A. Fondaparinux 2.5 mg s/c
B. Clopidogrel 75 mg tablets
C. Bisoprolol 2.5 mg tablets
D. Ramipril 5 mg tablets
E. GTN 400 microgram spray
F. Paracetamol 500 mg tablets
G. Diltiazem 60 mg tablets
H. Atorvastatin 80 mg tablets

A

=A (anticoagulant) to improve survival post MI, also used to treat

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21
Q

High-risk drugs

Mr T, a 44-year-old man, has visited his GP pharmacist to review his treatment for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Over the last year, he had one moderate exacerbation,
not leading to hospital admission, and had an mMRC score of 3 and CAT score of 20. He is currently on an ipratropium inhaler. The pharmacist decides to stop ipratropium and starts him on a new drug.

Most suitable medicine:
A. Theophylline (oral)
B. Salbutamol (inhaled)
C. Montelukast (oral)
D. Beclometasone and vilanterol (inhaled)
E. Tiotropium (inhaled)
F. Prednisolone (oral)
G. Beclometasone (inhaled)
H. Budesonide (inhaled)

A

Ipratropium (SAMA)

= E (LAMA) brochodilator and anticholinergic

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22
Q

High-risk drugs:

Mr R, a 27-year-old man, has decided to stop smoking to improve his asthma treatment outcomes. He started severe vomiting, agitation, restlessness, dilated pupils, tachycardia,
hyperglycaemia, and convulsions and was admitted to A&E. The doctors interpretated that
these were toxicity symptoms related to his current drug treatment.

Most suitable medicine cause:
A. Theophylline (oral)
B. Salbutamol (inhaled)
C. Montelukast (oral)
D. Beclometasone and vilanterol (inhaled)
E. Tiotropium (inhaled)
F. Prednisolone (oral)
G. Beclometasone (inhaled)
H. Budesonide (inhaled)

A

=A (Xanthine) works by relaxing muscles around airways so they open up and you can breathe more easily -bronchodilator

Onset of toxicity can be delayed if a modified-release preparation is involved.

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23
Q

Legal timeframes:
For the scenario described, select the single most relevant timeframe from the list below. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all

A patient presents with a prescription for erectile dysfunction.A private prescription may state the number of times a medication may be repeated. The first dispensing must take place within a certain amount of time from of the date on the prescription.

A. 3 days B. 5 days C. 7 days D. 28 days E. 30 days F. 6 months G. 2 years H. 5 years

A

F

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24
Q

Legal timeframes:
For the scenario described, select the single most relevant timeframe from the list below. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all

Following dispensing of a private prescription, a record must be made in the POM register. The register should be retained for a certain amount of time from the date of the last entry in the register.

A. 3 days B. 5 days C. 7 days D. 28 days E. 30 days F. 6 months G. 2 years H. 5 years

A

G

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25
Q

Legal Requirements of Medicine Supply:

Private Rx

Mr R Abdul
41 Victoria Place
Swansea
Sildenafil tablets 50mg
Send 4
A Hargreves (sig)
Dr Aled Hargreves
GMC: 535332
Greenfields Surgery
Swansea

What else is required?
A. Date
B. Name
C. Quantity
D. Formulation
E. Strength
F. Patient name and address
G. Purpose for which it was sold or supplied
H. Signature of prescriber

A

=A

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26
Q

School prescription

Hilltop High School
Please supply:
Ventolin Evohalers
To be used in the case of an emergency
(asthma attack)
CH Jones
Clive Jones
Hilltop High School
Swansea

What else is required?
A. Date
B. Name
C. Quantity
D. Formulation
E. Strength
F. Patient name and address
G. Purpose for which it was sold or supplied
H. Signature of prescriber

A

=C

27
Q

Cardiovascular disease management:

A. Atorvastatin 20 mg
B. Atorvastatin 80 mg
C. Pravastatin 10 mg
D. Pravastatin 20 mg
E. Simvastatin 20 mg
F. Simvastatin 80 mg
G. Rosuvastatin 10 mg

A 77-year-old man has been diagnosed with unstable angina. Alongside symptomatic
medication, he needs to be prescribed the first-line statin for his condition.

A

=B

28
Q

Cardiovascular disease management:

A. Atorvastatin 20 mg
B. Atorvastatin 80 mg
C. Pravastatin 10 mg
D. Pravastatin 20 mg
E. Simvastatin 20 mg
F. Simvastatin 80 mg
G. Rosuvastatin 10 mg

A 65-year-old woman has been admitted following chest pain and has been diagnosed as
having a non-ST-elevated myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). She needs to be prescribed the first-line statin for her condition.

A

=B

29
Q

Acute coronary syndrome management

A. Glyceryl trinitrate 400 microgram/dose sublingual spray
B. Bisoprolol 2.5 mg tablets
C. Losartan 12.5 mg tablets
D. Furosemide 20 mg tablets
E. Aspirin 75 mg tablets
F. Enalapril 2.5 mg tablets
G. Amlodipine 10 mg tablets
H. Atorvastatin 80 mg tablets

A 75-year-old man has been diagnosed with stable angina. He requires a medicine to
relieve future episodes of angina pain.

A

=A

30
Q

Acute coronary syndrome management

A. Glyceryl trinitrate 400 microgram/dose sublingual spray
B. Bisoprolol 2.5 mg tablets
C. Losartan 12.5 mg tablets
D. Furosemide 20 mg tablets
E. Aspirin 75 mg tablets
F. Enalapril 2.5 mg tablets
G. Amlodipine 10 mg tablets
H. Atorvastatin 80 mg tablets

A 68-year-old woman has been admitted following severe chest pain and has been
diagnosed as having an ST-elevated myocardial infarction (STEMI). She could not tolerate the
ACE inhibitor previously prescribed because she developed a dry cough. What alternative
could be offered?

A

=C

31
Q

Adverse drug reactions

A. Amlodipine 10 mg OD
B. Bisoprolol 5 mg BD
C. Apixaban 5 mg BD
D. Furosemide 40 mg OM
E. Spironolactone 25 mg OD
F. Isosorbide mononitrate 10 mg BD (8 am and 2 pm)
G. Atorvastatin 80 mg OD
H. GTN 400 microgram spray: 1 – 2 puffs S/L PRN

Ms F is a 68-year-old woman who has recently presented to her GP surgery with an increased frequency of nose bleeds following the initiation of a new medication

A

=C

32
Q

Adverse drug reactions

A. Amlodipine 10 mg OD
B. Bisoprolol 5 mg BD
C. Apixaban 5 mg BD
D. Furosemide 40 mg OM
E. Spironolactone 25 mg OD
F. Isosorbide mononitrate 10 mg BD (8 am and 2 pm)
G. Atorvastatin 80 mg OD
H. GTN 400 microgram spray: 1 – 2 puffs S/L PRN

Mr J is a 79-year-old man who has been referred to his local medical admissions unit by his GP due to a potassium level of 6.6 mmol/L (high) on routine bloods following an increase in one of his regular medications

A

=E

33
Q

Management of Asthma

A. Prednisolone 5 mg tablets
B. Salbutamol 100 microgram/dose inhaler CFC-free
C. Montelukast 10 mg tablets
D. Clenil Modulite® (beclomethasone dipropionate) 50 microgram/dose inhaler
E. Seretide 500 Accuhaler® (fluticasone/ salmeterol) 500 microgram/50 microgram/dose
inhalation powder
F. Fostair (beclomethasone/ formoterol 100/6) microgram/dose
G. Uniphyllin Continus® (theophylline) 200 mg modified-release tablets
H. Braltus® (tiotropium) 10 microgram/dose inhalation powder capsules

You are having a consultation with Abdullah Ali, a 25-year-old man who had juvenile asthma aged 8. He is not currently prescribed any regular medication except a MART (maintenance and reliver therapy) inhaler Fostair (beclomethasone/formoterol 100/6
microgram/dose) 1 puff twice a day. He states that he feels breathless whilst playing football and was hoping to be prescribed a drug to manage the breathlessness as it arises.
Which option would you suggest?

A

=F

34
Q

Management of Asthma

A. Prednisolone 5 mg tablets
B. Salbutamol 100 microgram/dose inhaler CFC-free
C. Montelukast 10 mg tablets
D. Clenil Modulite® (beclomethasone dipropionate) 50 microgram/dose inhaler
E. Seretide 500 Accuhaler® (fluticasone/ salmeterol) 500 microgram/50 microgram/dose
inhalation powder
F. Fostair (beclomethasone/ formoterol 100/6) microgram/dose
G. Uniphyllin Continus® (theophylline) 200 mg modified-release tablets
H. Braltus® (tiotropium) 10 microgram/dose inhalation powder capsules

You are having a consultation with 7-year-old Seren Hughes, who has a diagnosis of
asthma. She is currently prescribed a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) inhaler, however
you decide to step-up treatment and add in a corticosteroid to be used daily. Which
option would you suggest?

A

=D

35
Q

Healthcare Organisations:
A. Community Pharmacy Wales
B. Health Education and Improvement Wales
C. NHS Wales Shared Services Partnership
D. Public Health Wales NHS Trust
E. Swansea Bay University Health Board
F. Velindre NHS Trust
G. Welsh Ambulance Services NHS Trust
H. Welsh Government’s Department of Health and Social Service

Wales has adopted a community pharmacy contractual framework that is similar to that
in England. There is a specific negotiating body for Welsh pharmacy owners was legally
established in April 2004

A

=A

36
Q

Healthcare Organisations:
A. Community Pharmacy Wales
B. Health Education and Improvement Wales
C. NHS Wales Shared Services Partnership
D. Public Health Wales NHS Trust
E. Swansea Bay University Health Board
F. Velindre NHS Trust
G. Welsh Ambulance Services NHS Trust
H. Welsh Government’s Department of Health and Social Service

A

=E

37
Q

Theme: Infections
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
H. 8

Patient Mr A, a 55-year-old woman, has presented to the emergency department with
confusion, agitation and dizziness. Investigations showed that she has a respiratory rate of 33, a systolic blood pressure of 85 and a diastolic blood pressure of 59 mmHg.
What is her CURB-65 score?

A

=C

38
Q

Theme: Infections
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
H. 8

Patient Mr. B, a 67-year-old man, has presented to the emergency department with sweating,
vomiting and runny stools. Investigations showed that he has a respiratory rate of 28 and a blood pressure of 132/82 mmHg.

A

=A

39
Q

Infection Markers
A. Increased levels of leucocyte esterase
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypertension
D. Bradypnea
E. Decreased levels of platelets
F. Decreased levels of white blood cells
G. Decreased levels of C reactive protein
H. Decreased levels of neutrophils

Ms U, a 52-year-old woman, has presented to the emergency department with signs and symptoms of sepsis. Her blood test showed a particular marker

A

=H

40
Q

Infection Markers
A. Increased levels of leucocyte esterase
B. Bradycardia (slow hr)
C. Hypertension
D. Bradypnea (slow breathing)
E. Decreased levels of platelets
F. Decreased levels of white blood cells
G. Decreased levels of C reactive protein
H. Decreased levels of neutrophils

Mr. L, an 85-year-old man, has presented to the emergency department with signs and symptoms of pyelonephritis. His urine test showed the presence of a specific marker

A

=A

Bacterial infection causing inflammation in kidneys

An unusually high number of leukocytes in the urine indicates inflammation or infection along the urinary tract.

41
Q

Interactions

A. Chlamydia
B. Gonorrhea
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Genital warts
E. Genital Herpes
F. Syphilis
G. Scabies
H. Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

Mr T, a 24-year-old male, recently presented with unusual cloudy discharge from his penis
and treated with doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days.

A

=A

42
Q

Interactions

A. Chlamydia
B. Gonorrhea
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Genital warts
E. Genital Herpes
F. Syphilis
G. Scabies
H. Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

Ms R, a 26-year-old female, presented with a chancre genital lesion and was treated with
benzylpenicillin 2.4 million units’ intramuscular injection.

A

=F

43
Q

Legal Timeframes
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 28 days
D. 30 days
E. 3 months
F. 6 months
G. 2 years
H. 5 years

A 44-year-old patient presents a prescription for 28 Codeine phosphate 15 mg tablets, which you know is a Schedule 5 controlled drug. You notice that the prescription is out of date. As per law, prescriptions for Schedule 5 medications have a validity period, and you inform the patient
about the need for a current prescription

A

=C

Check if C or F in lectures

44
Q

Legal Timeframes
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 28 days
D. 30 days
E. 3 months
F. 6 months
G. 2 years
H. 5 years

You receive a private prescription and enter the relevant details into the paper-based POM
register, you notice that this entry will be the last in this book and ask a dispenser for a new
book. They do this and ask you how long the old book needs to be kept for.

A

=G

45
Q

A 32-year-old presents a prescription for antibiotics from her dentist for a dental abscess.
You warn her that alcohol should be avoided with this medicine.

A. Co-amoxiclav
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Vancomycin
D. Tinidazole
E. Chloramphenicol
F. Metronidazole
G. Amoxicillin
H. Cefalexin

A

Metronidazole

46
Q

A 28-year-old presents with symptoms of severe gastroenteritis. He has recently finished a
course of broad-spectrum antibiotics for a chest infection and a further course of antibiotics for
a urinary infection. He has C. difficile and needs appropriate treatment.

A. Co-amoxiclav
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Vancomycin
D. Tinidazole
E. Chloramphenicol
F. Metronidazole
G. Amoxicillin
H. Cefalexin

A

Vancomycin

47
Q

An 84-year-old female presenting with a urinary tract infection (UTI). She has hypertension
and no known drug allergies. She also has swallowing difficulties

A. Co-trimoxazole 80 mg/400 mg/5 mL solution for infusion.
B. Trimethoprim 50 mg/mL suspension.
C. Flucloxacillin 500 mg capsules.
D. Clindamycin 150 mg capsules.
E. Doxycycline 100 mg capsules.
F. Clarithromycin 500 mg solution for infusion.
G. Amoxicillin 500 mg capsules.
H. Trimethoprim 100 mg tablets

A

=B

48
Q

A 19-year-old patient presenting with an infected insect bite on their leg. They have no
medical history of note and do not have any drug allergies.

A. Co-trimoxazole 80 mg/400 mg/5 mL solution for infusion.
B. Trimethoprim 50 mg/mL suspension.
C. Flucloxacillin 500 mg capsules.
D. Clindamycin 150 mg capsules.
E. Doxycycline 100 mg capsules.
F. Clarithromycin 500 mg solution for infusion.
G. Amoxicillin 500 mg capsules.
H. Trimethoprim 100 mg tablets

A

=C

49
Q

GI System:
A 38-year-old male patient with constipation attends the community pharmacy asking for
a laxative treatment that will work within a few hours

A. Azathioprine
B. Loperamide
C. Bisacodyl
D. Linaclotide
E. Alverine citrate
F. Mebeverine Hydrochloride
G. Prucalopride
H. Budesonide

A

=C (stimulant laxative)

50
Q

GI System:
Y. A 40-year-old female patient attends the community pharmacy and explains that she’s
been feeling unwell with a sore throat and fever and has noticed a lot of bruising to her
arms

A. Azathioprine
B. Loperamide
C. Bisacodyl
D. Linaclotide
E. Alverine citrate
F. Mebeverine Hydrochloride
G. Prucalopride
H. Budesonide

A

=A

51
Q

A 65-year-old male patient with constipation attends the community pharmacy asking for a
laxative treatment but doesn’t want “anything too harsh”. You advise a treatment that draws
water into the bowel but may take 48 hours to start working

A. Lactulose
B. Loperamide
C. Bisacodyl
D. Linaclotide
E. Peppermint oil
F. Senna
G. Prucalopride
H. Macrogol

A

=A (osmotic)

52
Q

A 27-year-old female patient attends the community pharmacy and explains that she’s
experiencing a lot of abdominal cramps, pain and some episodes of diarrhoea. You advise a treatment that will help relieve the pain and spasms

A. Lactulose
B. Loperamide
C. Bisacodyl
D. Linaclotide
E. Peppermint oil
F. Senna
G. Prucalopride
H. Macrogol

A

=E

53
Q

A 35-year-old male patient with diarrhoea attends the community pharmacy asking for a
treatment. He explained that he is so worried as he will be driving across Europe for so many
hours and is concerned he might not easily find toilets on the way. You advised on anti-diarrhoeal that works really well for travellers’ diarrhoea.
A. Lactulose
B. Loperamide
C. Bisacodyl
D. Linaclotide
E. Peppermint oil
F. Senna
G. Prucalopride
H. Macrogol

A

=B

54
Q

A 27-year-old female patient attends the community pharmacy and explains that she’s
experiencing constipation that looks like small hard stools. You advise on a suitable treatment.
You explained that this treatment has an onset of action up to 72 hours and may cause flatulence,bloating and cramping.
A. Lactulose
B. Loperamide
C. Bisacodyl
D. Linaclotide
E. Peppermint oil
F. Senna
G. Prucalopride
H. Macrogol

A

=D

55
Q

A patient is being treated for peptic ulcers caused by a H. pylori infection with a combination of antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). What is the common name given to the combination of drugs used first line for H. pylori eradication?

A. Gaviscon Advance®
B. Rennie® tablets
C. Omeprazole 20mg capsules
D. Pepto-Bismol®
E. Double therapy
F. Triple therapy
G. Quadruple therapy
H. Gaviscon Dual Action

A

=F

56
Q

A patient is being treated for peptic ulcers caused by the long-term use of NSAIDs. The
treatment course is 8 weeks to ensure that the ulcers fully heal. Which treatment option would
be used?

A. Gaviscon Advance®
B. Rennie® tablets
C. Omeprazole 20mg capsules
D. Pepto-Bismol®
E. Double therapy
F. Triple therapy
G. Quadruple therapy
H. Gaviscon Dual Action

A

=C

57
Q

SAQ:
a) Name a class of drugs that acts as the direct vasodilator.

A

a) Nitrates (also hydralazine, minoxidil, nitroprusside)

b) Direct (sodium nitroprusside)
Organic nitrates (isosorbide)

c) Systemic vasculature: vasodilation (venous dilation > arterial dilation); decreased venous pressure; decreased arterial pressure (small effect)
Cardiac: reduced preload and afterload decreased wall stress); decreased oxygen demand
Coronary: prevents/reverses vasospasm; vasodilation (primarily epicardial vessels); improves subendocardial perfusion; increased oxygen delivery

58
Q

SAQ:
A head teacher from a local school attends your pharmacy. She wishes to purchase 3 Ventolin Evohalers. She has done this previously but has asked you to clarify what information needs to be written on her headed notepad.
What needs to be included in a school prescription? (5)

A
  • Name of the school (1 mark)
  • Product details (1 mark)
  • Purpose for which the product is required (1 mark)
  • Total quantity required (1 mark)
  • Signature of the principal or head teacher (1 mark)
59
Q

SAQ:
Briefly describe why a dry powder inhaler (DPI) is usually a more sustainable choice of the device than a pressurised metered dose inhaler (pMDI). Please include in your answer an explanation of why pMDIs were even less sustainable in the last century. (5 marks)

A

DPIs do not contain HFA propellants (1 mark) which are powerful greenhouse gases (1 mark) and can contribute to global warming (1 mark). CFCs (1 mark) were used as propellants before the introduction of HFAs at the turn of the century. CFCs were found to have a damaging effect on the ozone layer (1 mark) so pMDIs were reformulated.

60
Q

COPD is often described as consisting of two clinical syndromes, what are these? (1 mark)
How does COPD affect breathing function? Ensure you mention the effects on spirometry. (3 marks)
Name a pharmacological treatment and its mode of action (1 mark)

A
  1. Chronic bronchitis & Emphysema
  2. COPD is classed as an obstructive disease that is nonreversible (or shows limited reversibility). FEV 1 is particularly affected (ie the volume of air forcefully exhaled over the 1st second) Obstructive diseases are normally classified as having an FV1/FVC ratio of < 70%
  3. SAMA- Ipratropium (short-acting muscarinic agent) or LAMA (long-acting muscarinic agent) - Tiotropium
61
Q
  1. A. Describe, in detail, how you would demonstrate the use of the DPI Eklira Genuair (Aclidinium bromide) 375 micrograms/dose to Mr Arfaa Arham. (3 marks)

B. Provide two counselling points to give to this patient (2marks)

A

A) Release the green button and breathe out completely, away from the inhaler
- Place your lips tightly around the mouthpiece and inhale strongly and deeply through the inhaler. While you’re breathing you will hear a click which signals that you’re using the inhaler correctly.
- Hold your breath for as long as comfortable, then breathe out through the nose
- After inhalation, remember to replace the protective cap.
- If the coloured control button is still green, that means you may have
forgotten to press the green button to release the dose, so breathe in again.

B) * Advise ability to drive/operate machinery may be affected by side effects
* Ensure the patient has a fast-acting bronchodilator available
* Patient should seek medical advice if usual relief is diminished

62
Q

SAQ:
i) Name a class of drugs that acts as the direct vasodilator (1 mark)
ii) What are the types of nitrates used in clinics? Give TWO drug examples. (1 mark)
iii) Briefly describe the systemic, cardiac and coronary effects of nitrates (3 marks)

A

a) Nitrates (also hydralazine, minoxidil, nitroprusside)
b) Direct (sodium nitroprusside)
Organic nitrates (isosorbide)
c) Systemic vasculature: vasodilation (venous dilation > arterial dilation); decreased venous pressure; decreased arterial pressure (small effect)
Cardiac: reduced preload and afterload decreased wall stress); decreased oxygen demand
Coronary: prevents/reverses vasospasm; vasodilation (primarily epicardial vessels); improves subendocardial perfusion; increased oxygen delivery

63
Q

Xray diffraction
What will the peaks look like for crystalline and amorphous forms of a drug?

A

Crystalline= High intensity/narrow peaks
Amorphous= Low intensity/broad peaks