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PSA CRJ700/900 KV > Mock KV Questions > Flashcards

Mock KV Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Engine Type of the CRJ700/900

A

GE CF34-8C1

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2
Q

What is the minimum pavement for a 180deg turn?

A

700 - 75’
900 - 80’

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3
Q

What are FCCs?

A

Flight Control Computer

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4
Q

What do FCC supply information to?

A

AHRS and ADC

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5
Q

What does the IAPS system receive info from?

A

FCP, DCU, FMS, Radio systems

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6
Q

What does the IAPS do?

A

Provides instructions to the FCP, FDs, Yaw Dampers, AP servomotors

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7
Q

Where are the FCP located?

A

Avionics bay mounted inside the IAPS

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8
Q

What does IAPS stand for?

A

Integrated Avionics Processing System

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9
Q

In which mode(s) do FD1 and FD2 BOTH become active in supplying guidance instructions to their associated PFDs?

A

TOT, APPR, GAGA

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10
Q

On the FCP, what do the green indicator lights mean?

A

The corresponding FCC has acknowledged the request

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11
Q

In TO mode, what is the Heading Hold command based on?

A

Actual aircraft heading at WoW

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12
Q

If the AP is engaged without selecting a lateral mode, what happens?

A

Defaults to Roll mode
If bank angle less than 5deg, AC will roll wings level
If bank angle more than 5deg, the FD will maintain the angle

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13
Q

When NAV mode is selected and the navigation source is lost, what happens?

A

Defaults to ROLL mode

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14
Q

What all is cleared when the localizer is captured?

A

Turbulence, 1/2 bank, and Heading mode

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15
Q

What must be set for the Back Course Mode (B/C) to have proper orientation?

A

The front course

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16
Q

When is 1/2 Bank automatically activated?

A

Pressure Altitude 31,600’

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17
Q

During TOTO what pitch command is the FD commanded to?

A

Technically: Variable pitch based on flap setting, number of engines operating, and the difference between V2 and VR.
In actuality it is typically 15degrees

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18
Q

During TO what pitch is the FD commanded to after an engine failure?

A

An engine failure changes vertical mode from TO to GA.
10deg pitch

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19
Q

During GA what pitch is the FD commanded to?

A

10deg

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20
Q

In PTCH, what does each click of the Pitch Trim Wheel on the FCP equal?

A

1/2deg of pitch change

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21
Q

What does the Altitude Hold Mode (ALT) do when pressed on the FCP?

A

Instructs the FD to maintain the Barometric Altitude at the moment of ALT selection

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22
Q

What is the minimum rate of climb in Climb Mode (CLB)?

A

+50 fpm
Note: will NEVER go to a negative value (unlike IAS mode)

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23
Q

What is the minimum rate of descent in Climb Mode (DES)?

A

-50 fpm
Note: will NEVER go to a positive value (unlike IAS mode)

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24
Q

When does the changeover between IAS and Mach automatically occur?

A

31,600’

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25
Q

When is GA mode automatically selected?

A

When in TO and an engine failure occurs

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26
Q

What happens automatically if an OVERSPEED occurs during a descent in VS or PTCH mode?

A
  1. AFCS reverts to IAS mode
  2. speed bug synchronizes to VMO/MMO - 5kts
  3. aircraft pitches up and slows to capture bug
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27
Q

What are the required parameters for autopilot engagement?

A
  1. Both FCCs functional
  2. Both AHRS available
  3. a Yaw Damper
  4. an ADC available
  5. no significant instability of the aircraft exists
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28
Q

The autopilot sends ROLL commands to which Aileron servo?

A

The RIGHT Aileron Servo

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29
Q

The Autopilot sends Pitch commands to which Elevator servo?

A

The LEFT elevator servo

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30
Q

When is TURB mode automatically cleared?

A

LOC captures

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31
Q

How can the Autopilot be MANUALLY disengaged?

A
  1. either control wheel AP/SC DISC pushbutton
  2. either Stab Trim split switches
  3. the FCP AP ENG pushbutton
  4. the AP DISC
  5. either TOGA switch
  6. the YD DISC pushbutton
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32
Q

When will the Autopilot AUTOMATICALLY disengage?

A
  1. failure of the Yaw Damper system
  2. a windshear warning (negative performance)
  3. a stall warning
  4. unusual attitudes
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33
Q

Which Control Wheel Switch deactivates the Stick Pusher when pressed?

A

The AP/SP DISC Switch

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34
Q

What does the CONFIG AP EICAS warning message indicate?

A

Autopilot is engaged n the ground with both engines operating > 70% N1

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35
Q

What does the YAW DAMPER EICAS caution message indicate?

A

Both Yaw Dampers (1&2) are OFF or FAILED

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36
Q

What does an AP TRIM IS LWD (RWD) EICAS caution message indicate?

A

Out-of-trim condition in the ROLL axis - Left (Right) wing down

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37
Q

What does an AP TRIM ND (NU) EICASE caution message indicate?

A

Out-of-trim condition in the PITCH axis - Nose down (up)

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38
Q

What does the AP PITCH TRIM EICAS caution message indicate?

A

Autopilot pitch trim failure

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39
Q

What is the primary function of the APU

A

A 40kVa generator

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40
Q

What is the secondary function of the APU?

A

To supply bleed air for AC and engine starting. Used to pressurize the common bleed air manifold

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41
Q

What is the max operating altitude of the APU?

A

41,000’

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42
Q

What is the max altitude for starting the APU

A

37000’

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43
Q

What is the max altitude for ECS bleed air extraction from the APU?

A

25,000’

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44
Q

What is the max altitude to start the main engine using APU bleed air?

A

21,000’

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45
Q

Where is the APU located?

A

Fireproof compartment in the tail

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46
Q

What is the APU Generator rated to?

A

40-Kva

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47
Q

Where is the APU combustion intake door located?

A

Top right side of tail cone

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48
Q

What controls and monitors the APU?

A

A DC powered ECU

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49
Q

What EICAS indication will be given if the APU door is unknown?

A

EICAS indication is amber dashes beside DOOR—-

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50
Q

What are the operational limitations if the APU intake door is failed open or the door position is unknown?

A

220KIAS or the APU must be operated

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51
Q

What is the source of fuel to run the APU?

A

Left collector tank via dedicated APU fuel pump

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52
Q

If the APU fuel pump fails, how does the APU receive fuel?

A

An internal bypass valve opens, allowing the necessary gearbox mounted high pressure pump to draw the fuel

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53
Q

How is the APU fuel feed shutoff valve closed?

A

-Pressing the PWR/FUEL or APU FIRE PUSH switchlight
-Automatically by the ECU when an APU fire is detected

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54
Q

What does pressing the PWR/FUEL switchlight to turnoff the APU do

A

It sends an overspeed signal to the APU ECU

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55
Q

Can you start the APU with a Main Battery failure?

A

No. Both batteries are required to start the APU.
ECU -> BATT Bus
APU Starter -> APU BATT DIR Bus

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56
Q

When does the APU starter disengage?

A

50% rpm or after 60 seconds of engagement (slow start)

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57
Q

What are the APU Starter Engagement limitations?

A

3 Start attempts in 1 hour, with 2 minutes delay in between

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58
Q

Why must a two-minute delay be observed between APU Starter cranking attempts?

A

-cooling of the starter and the start contactor
-APU fuel drainage

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59
Q

What does the illumination of the bottom half of the APU - PWR/FUEL switchlight indicate (PUMP FAIL)?

A

XFLOW/APU pump has failed

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60
Q

What does the illumination of the APU - AVAIL switchlight indicate?

A

Available for electrical loading
NOTE: Illuminates at 99% rpm + 2 seconds

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61
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage required for starting the APU?

A

22 volts

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62
Q

Once the APU START/STOP switchlight is selected to STOP, how soon may another APU start be attempted?

A

When the START/STOP switchlight is selected to STOP, the ECU initiates a 60 second BITE test. It is signified by the removal of the APU gauges. Keep APU limitations in mind before starting

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63
Q

When is the DC Emer Bus shown on EICAS?

A

-When one of the two power sources is faulted
or
-The bus is not powered as a result of a fault, and both power sources are removed
i.e. - It has failed

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64
Q

Items on the DC EMER Bus?

A

-FIREX A
-FIREX B
-Right engine hydraulic SOV
-Left engine hydraulic SOV
-Right engine fuel SOV
-Left engine fuel SOV
-APU fuel SOV
-APU BATT DIR feed

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65
Q

Main Batt rating and location?

A

24 VDC, 17 ampere-hours
Located in Nose

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66
Q

APU Battery rating and Location?

A

24 VDC, 43 ampere hours
Why is it rated higher? It is primarily for starting the APU

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67
Q

What buses charge the batteries?

A

-Main Battery - AC Bus 1
-APU Battery - AC Service Bus

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68
Q

What buses do the Batteries power and how long?

A

-MAIN BATT DIR BUS
-APU BATT DIR BUS
-DC BATT BUS
-DC EMER BUS
-DC ESS BUS (IN FLIGHT)

30 MINUTES

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69
Q

On EMER power what bus is load shed when WOW unless ADG manual deployment handle is pulled and why do we care?

A

-DC ESS BUS
-When it sheds we lose thrust reversers

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70
Q

What does FADEC stand for?

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control system

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71
Q

How many stages in N1, N2 and their associated turbines?

A

-N1 single stage fan connected through a shaft to a 4 stage low pressure turbine
-N2 10 stage axial flow compressor connected through a shaft to a 2 stage high pressure turbine

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72
Q

What is the engine model?

A

GE - CF34-8C5

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73
Q

What are the 2 airflow paths?

A

-Bypass
-Core air

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74
Q

How many stages are variable and what controls them?

A

-The inlet guide vanes and the first 4 stator vanes
-FADEC uses high pressure fuel to command the angle

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75
Q

What extracts bleed air to offload the compressor and why?

A

-The operability valve
-During engine starts and during high aerodynamic loading of the compressor

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76
Q

What is mounted on the Accessory Gearbox?

A

-Engine lubrication pumps
-Hydraulic pump
-Engine fuel pump
-IDG
-FADEC Alternator
-Air Turbine Starter

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77
Q

When will BOTH FADEC units send signals to the engine at the same time?

A

During an engine overspeed both FADECs will command the shutoff valve in the fuel metering unit to close

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78
Q

When do the FADEC units switch active control?

A

Every 2nd engine start at 7% N2

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79
Q

When does the FADEC automatically increase thrust on the operating engine?

A

> 15% mismatch in N1

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80
Q

What are the increased thrust settings during single engine?

A

-TL at TOGA - APR thrust
-TL in CLIMB - MCT
-TL in cruise - proportional increase

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81
Q

When is APR armed?

A

-TL in TOGA
-Either normal TO, Flex TO or go-around is programmed
-When Both N1 are within 8% of scheduled takeoff thrust

On approach:
-Either engine is available
-flaps greater than 20degrees
OR
-The landing gear is down

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82
Q

When is the target N1 value locked in by FADEC and when is it opened back up?

A

-At 65 knots
-At 400;AGL or TL moved from TOGA

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83
Q

Fan synchronization limits?

A

-N1 - 1.5%
-N2 - 2.5%

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84
Q

Min Oil Temp to start engine?

A

-40C

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85
Q

What powers each Ignition system?

A

-Ignition A - AC ESS BUS
-Ignition B - BATT BUS through a static invertor

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86
Q

What does the L(R) AUTO IGNITION message mean?

A

-On the ground - the FADEC has energized 1 ignition to start the engine
-In the air - FADEC has energized BOTH ignitors

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87
Q

What voltage electricity does the CRJ use?

A

115VAC and 28VDC

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88
Q

During normal operations what distributes power to all the AC Buses?

A

The AC Power Center (ACPC)

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89
Q

At what voltage and Hertz do the 2 engine driven IDGs supply power?

A

115V, 400Hz, 3 phase to four AC buses

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90
Q

What is the nominal rating of each IDG?

A

40kVA from 0 to 41,000’
NOTE: Overload protection is provided at 45kVA for 5 minutes and 60kVA for 5 seconds

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91
Q

What 2 components constitute the IDG?

A

-Constant speed drive
-Electrical generator

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92
Q

What is the function of the Constant speed drive?

A

Allows the generator to give consistent power with a variable load

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93
Q

What is the function of the IDG1/2 DISC switchlight?

A

Manual disconnect for IDG
Electrical solenoid to energize which causes the drive gear to retract from the engine accessory gearbox

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94
Q

What does the illumination of the white DISC portion of the IDG1/2 DISC switchlight indicate?

A

The IDG is disconnected from the AGB (on when there is a difference between the AGB rotation speed and the CSD rotation speed)

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95
Q

What does the illumination of the amber FAULT portion of the IDG1/2 DISC switchlight indicate?

A

HOTLOP
The CSD oil is cooled by an air/oil heat exchanger that uses N1 fan air. If the IDG oil overheats or low oil pressure the amber light illuminates and a caution message is displayed

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96
Q

When will a mechanical disconnect of an IDG occur?

A

Should the electrical disconnect fail, a mechanical disconnect will occur when the CSD temp exceeds a predetermined limiter by shearing of the IDG drive shaft when an over-torqued condition occurs

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97
Q

What is the primary function of the GCU?

A

To control and monitor the related AC Gen system and provide protection and voltage regulation

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98
Q

When would an engine or APU generator output be tripped off and removed from the bus system?

A

-Over/under voltage
-Over/under frequency
-Generator or bus over current
-Out of phase

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99
Q

What are the secondary sources of AC electrical power?

A

-APU
-ADG
-External Ground power

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100
Q

What is the nominal rating of the APU?

A

40kVA from 0-41,000’

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101
Q

What is the output of the APU generator?

A

115VAC, 400Hz

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102
Q

What does the illumination of the AC AVAIL switchlight indicate?

A

External power is connected and within limits

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103
Q

What occurs when the AC AVAIL switchlight is selected?

A

If no other AC electrical source is supplying buses, the external power relay closes and external power is supplied to the buses

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104
Q

How many AC buses are supplied via the APU and AC generators?

A

4

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105
Q

How many circuit breaker panels are there?

A

-2 in the cockpit
-1 in the aft equipment bay
-1 in the Nose compartment

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106
Q

Which 2 buses serve as main power?

A

AC bus 1 & 2

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107
Q

What is the function of the AUTO XFER switchlight on the generator panel?

A

Isolates AC Bus 1 or 2 from being powered by any other source than its onside generator
NOTE: Switch turns “OFF” the transfer

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108
Q

What does the illumination of the amber FAIL portion of the AUTO XFER switchlight on the generator panel indicate?

A

The associated AC BUS has been isolated due to either a bus or Generator over voltage

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109
Q

What does the illumination of the white OFF portion of the AUTO XFER switchlight on the generator panel indicate?

A

The associated bus has been manually isolated

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110
Q

What normally powers the AC ESS BUS?

A

AC BUS 1

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111
Q

If AC BUS 1 fails how is the AC ESS BUS powered?

A

ESS BUS auto transfer system transfers it to AC BUS 2

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112
Q

What is the function of the AC ESS XFER switchlight?

A

Manually transfers the ESS BUS to AC BUS 2

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113
Q

When AC power is lost during flight, how is the AC ESS BUS powered?

A

The ADG is deployed and the ADG BUS is latched to the AC ESS BUS

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114
Q

What are the output and nominal rating of the ADG?

A

115VAC, 400Hz, 15kVA power

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115
Q

How can the ADG be deployed?

A

-Manually via the ADG Manual Deploy Handle
-Automatically when AC BUS 1 AND AC BUS 2 are NOT powered and all 3 generators are inoperative

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116
Q

What does the ADG power?

A

-AC ESS BUS
-ACMP 3B Hydraulic pump
-Slats/flaps
-Stab Trim Chanel 2

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117
Q

What position must the Hydraulic Pump 3B switch be in for the ADG to power the pump?

A

Any position. It is hard wired to the ADG BUS

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118
Q

What does the EMER POWER ONLY warning message indicate?

A

The ADG has been deployed and the AC essential transfer relay has connected the AC ESS BUS to the ADG BUS

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119
Q

What is the function of the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE button on the ADG DEPLOY CONTROL panel?

A

De-energizes the latch relay between the AC ESS BUS and the ADG BUS. This allows the AC ESS BUS to reestablish it’s connection to AC BUS 1
It also unlatches Hyd pump 3B from the ADG bus and returns it to normal operation

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120
Q

What occurs when the emergency tie contactors receive a WOW signal at touchdown if the ADG is in use and the ADG Manual Deploy Handle has NOT been pulled?

A

BATT power will be removed from the DC ESS BUS

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121
Q

What happens as the ADG slows and the generator ceases to provide adequate power?

A

The AC ESS BUS loses power which means ESS TRU 1 loses power and the DC ESS BUS and DC BATT BUS loses power
Pulling the ADG Manual Deploy handle latches the DC ESS BUS to the DC BATT BUS, so that it too can be powered by the batteries upon landing or ADG FAILURE

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122
Q

Why does it matter that the DC ESS BUS remains powered when the ADG slows down?

A

The Captains flight instruments (PFD 1, MFD 1, ADC 1, AHRS 1, etc) are on the DC ESS BUS as well as the THRUST REVERSERS

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123
Q

What parameters are monitored for ADG deployment?

A

-ACC BUS 1 &2 unpowered + all 3 generators inoperative
-WOW signal
-Parking brake off

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124
Q

What is the primary source of DC electrical power?

A

4 TRUs and 2 BATTERIES

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125
Q

Where are the TRUs located?

A

Nose Compartment

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126
Q

What is the primary function of the TRUs?

A

Transforms rectifies 115 VAC power to unregulated 28Vdc power

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127
Q

What are the 4 TRUs and where do they get their power?

A

TRU1 - AC BUS 1
TRU2 - AC BUS 2
ESS TRU1 - AC BUS 1
ESS TRU2 - AC BUS 2

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128
Q

What Buses does TRU1 normally supply?

A

DC BUS 1

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129
Q

What Buses does TRU2 normally supply?

A

DC BUS 2
DC SERVICE BUS
DC Utility Bus

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130
Q

What Buses does ESS TRU 1 normally supply?

A

DC ESS BUS

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131
Q

What Buses does ESS TRU 2 normally supply?

A

DC BATT BUS

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132
Q

Where are the main DC buses located?

A

DC BUS 1 & 2 are on the CBP on the flightdeck

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133
Q

What normally powers the DC ESS BUS?

A

ESS TRU 1

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134
Q

How is the DC ESS BUS protected?

A

If ESS TRU 1 fails, ESS TRU 2 powers it
If ESS TRU 1 & 2 fail, TRU 2 can power it through the CROSS TIE connector
If all TRU power is lost it can be powered from the DC BATT BUS
During ADG operation it is powered by ESS TRU 1 from the AS ESS BUS

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135
Q

What normally powers the DC BATT BUS?

A

ESS TRU 2

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136
Q

How is the DC BATT BUS protected?

A

If ESS TRUS 2 fails, ESS TRU 1 can power the DC BATT BUS
IF ESS TRU 1& 2 fail, TRU2 can power it via the CROSS TIE
If all TRUs lost it can be powered directly from the MAIN BATT DIR BUS and the APU BATT DIR BUS
During ADG use, the AC ESS BUS powers ESS TRU1 which powers the DC BATT BUS through the ESS TIE

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137
Q

What is the primary function of the DC Service Switch?

A

NAVS, LAVS< and DOME

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138
Q

What is the primary function of the DC UTIL BUS?

A

Reading lights at passenger service units

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139
Q

What are the 2 interrelated functions of the DC Main TIE Contactor?

A

When a TRU fails the associated DC Main TIE Contactor is activated to connect TRU1 & 2 and load shed the DC UTIL BUS

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140
Q

What is the main purpose of the ESS TRU 2 Transfer Contactor?

A

In the event of multiple malfunctions it provides ESS TRU 2 with an additional source of power

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141
Q

When is the ESS TRU 2 Transfer Contactor energized?

A
  1. If ESS TRU 1 fails on ADG power. To allow ESS TRU 2 to power the ESS AC BUS
  2. If both AC BUS 2 & TRU 1 fail. To allow ESS AC BUS to power ESS TRU 2 which in turn powers DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, and the SERV BUS through the closed cross tie relay
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142
Q

When is the DC EMER BUS displayed on the synoptic page?

A
  1. When the bus is faulted
  2. When the Bus is NOT powered
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143
Q

When will the APU automatically shutdown in flight?

A

F ire
O verspeed
D C power loss
E CU failure
R PM signal loss
S low start

Note: 60 seconds after landing APU will shutdown in the event of a loss of EGT signal, over temp, low oil pressure, loss of intake door position signal, over current

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144
Q

How is the APU compressor protected from a reverse flow of higher pressure engine 10th stage bleed air?

A

One way check valve

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145
Q

Where are the APU remote shutoff switches located?

A

External service panel and inside the APU compartment

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146
Q

What is the function of the Backup tuning unit?

A

Provides reversionary control of COM 1 and NAV 1 in the event of total AC power loss or failure of both RTUs

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147
Q

What does the 1/2 key on each RTU allow you to do?

A

To display data and control the other pilots radios

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148
Q

If an RTU fails, what must be done in order to utilize cross side tuning via the 1/2 key?

A

the faulted RTU must be inhibited by selecting the RTU INHIBIT switch associate with the FAILED RTU

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149
Q

What is the function of the INHIBIT position of the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch?

A

Disables the remote tuning function of the FMS should it malfunction.

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150
Q

Where is the ELT located?

A

AFT equipment bay

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151
Q

Where is the CVR located?

A

Aft equipment bay

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152
Q

When does the CVR start recording?

A

When electric power is applied to the aircraft

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153
Q

When does the FDR start recording?

A

Beacon ON, or Strobes ON, or WOW

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154
Q

What does the ELT ON EICAS caution message indicate?

A

The ELT is transmitting

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155
Q

What does a FDR EVENT advisory message indicate>

A

The FDR event pushbutton has been pressed

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156
Q

Which doors does the Proximity sensing unit NOT monitor and why?

A

-Aft equipment bay - not pressurized
-Crew overhead escape hatch - can be visually checked by the crew

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157
Q

What is the max load on the door?

A

4 people or 1,000lbs

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158
Q

What stage bleed air does the AC use?

A

6th or 10th

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159
Q

Where are the packs located?

A

Aft equipment bay

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160
Q

Which pack normally supplies air to the flight deck?

A

Left pack

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161
Q

What is the primary function of the pack valves?

A

control the amount of airflow through the packs. When only a single pack is available the Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC) command the remaining pack to operate at max flow

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162
Q

What is the max altitude for single pack?

A

31,000’

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163
Q

What controls and monitors the AC system?

A

2 dual channel AC System Controllers. ACSC 1 controls the left pack and ACSC 2 controls the right

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164
Q

How is cabin/flight deck temperature controlled?

A

The ACSC mixes cold air from the Air Cycle Machine and hot air from the bypass duct by regulating the position of the Temperature Control Valve

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165
Q

What is the function of the RAM Air Scoop?

A

-Cooling medium for the air to air heat exchangers

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166
Q

What is the function of the Ram Air Shutoff Valve? (Guarded switchlight)

A

Air from the ram air scoop enters the mixing manifold for distribution to both the flight deck and the passenger cabin

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167
Q

What are the possible sources of bleed air for the ECS?

A

APU, engines, or an external ground cart

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168
Q

During ground operations how does the use of low pressure AC cart differ from use of APU/Engine bleed air?

A

Low pressure ground AC air bypasses the packs and discharges cooling air directly into the mixing manifold

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169
Q

Where is the cabin exhaust air collected and routed to?

A

Dado panels located at floor level connected to exhaust ducts containing recirc fans. The exhaust air is filtered and returned to the mixing manifold for blending with conditioned air

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170
Q

How many smoke detectors are installed in the forward and aft cargo bays?

A

Forward - 3
Aft - 2

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171
Q

What controls pressurization in the auto mode?

A

2 Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPCs). Only 1 is active at any time.

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172
Q

When do the Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPCs) switch under normal conditions?

A

3 minutes after landing

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173
Q

How can the CPCs be switched manually?

A

press the PRESS CONTROL switchlight twice

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174
Q

How is cabin pressurization achieved?

A

By controlling the leakage rate or outflow of cabin air through a single triple channel outflow valve

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175
Q

How many valves are there on the aft bulkhead?

A

-Outflow Valve
-2 safety valves: over pressure and under pressure
-Ground Safety valve

176
Q

How is the outflow valve opened or closed?

A

Each CPC controls its own motor on the outflow valve actuator. The 3rd motor is controlled by the manual switch

177
Q

What is the normal max cabin operating pressure?

A

8.4psi

178
Q

What is the MAX Differential Pressure?

A

8.7psi

179
Q

What is the Negative Pressure Relief value?

A

-0.5

180
Q

What is the function of the ground valve?

A

To ensure the AC is depressurized when on the ramp and to dump the air used in ventilating the CRTs and avionics bay electronic equipment overboard

181
Q

What is significant about flight abort mode?

A

Alleviates the pilot from having to reset the landing elevation when aborting a flight to return to the takeoff airfield
Armed: Armed during the 1st 10 minutes after takeoff if the AC altitude is less than 6000’: if descent of 1,000fpm is initiated in this window the cabin altitude will revert to the pre pressurization altitude

182
Q

What does the illumination of the FAULT portion of the PRESS CONT switchlight on the CABIN PRESS control panel indicate?

A

Indicates a failure of BOTH Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPCs)

183
Q

What occurs when the EMER DEPR switchlight on CABIN PRESS control panel is pressed?

A

A manual DC motor will drive the outflow valve fully open. If the aircraft is above 14,500’ it will maintain 14,500’ +/- 500’

184
Q

What does the ON illumination of the EMER DEPR switchlight on the cabin press control panel indicate?

A

The Outflow Valve has been commanded open?

185
Q

Will a failure of a CPC affect emergency depressurization control?

A

Each CPC has a dedicated emergency depressurization circuit that is separate from its normal operation and therefore not affected by a failure of the CPC

186
Q

What performs CPAM type functions and which functions?

A

A Microprocessor
-Auto drop of PAX masks at 14,000’
-Cabin altitude limit of 14,500 +/- 500
-Opening and closing the ground valve

187
Q

What does illumination of the FAIL portion of the L/R PACK switchlight indicate?

A

L/R pack shutdown due to either over-pressure or over-temp

188
Q

What does a CABIN ALT EICAS warning indicate?

A

Cabin Altitude >10,000’

189
Q

What does a DIFF PRESS EICAS warning message Indicate?

A

Diff pressure >8.6

190
Q

Which areas are provided with dual loop fire detection?

A

Engines and APU

191
Q

Which areas of the engine have both fire detection and extenguishing capabilities? Which have only fire and/or overheat detection?

A

Core of the engine has both
Cowl only has overheat

192
Q

How do fire loops detect a fire?

A

The Control units are looking for a change in resistance.
Each loop has 2 wires. 1 Carries current. The other is grounded to the outer sheathing. As the wire gets hotter the insulating medium allows the current to pass between the wires. When the resistance decreases to a certain point the current from the live wire shorts to ground through the other wire and a fire overheat indication is generated

193
Q

What is the advantage of dual loops?

A

-Minimize false fire warnings since both loops have to agree.
-Increase dispatch reliability since planes can be dispatched with 1 loop inop

194
Q

Where are the 2 fire bottles located?

A

Aft equipment bay

195
Q

What occurs when the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed?

A

-Arms the squibs and lights the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCHARGE switchlights
-Closes the Fuel Feed SOV
-Closes the Hydraulic SOV
-Closes the bleed air SOV
-Disconnects the IDG

196
Q

What occurs when the BOTTLE 1 (2) ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight is pressed?

A

Electrical current fires the squib in the associated bottle and pressurized halon is directed to the engine nacelle

197
Q

When does the APU BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCHARGE switchlight illuminate?

A

When the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed

198
Q

What is the main difference between the ground and flight modes of the APU fire detection system?

A

On the ground once a fire is detected the APU shuts down and 5 seconds later the APU fire bottle discharges automatically.
In flight the APU shuts down but the bottle does not automatically discharge

199
Q

Where is the APU fire bottle located?

A

Aft equipment bay beside the APU enclosure

200
Q

What occurs when the APU ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed?

A

-Both squibs are armed and the APU BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCHARGE switchlight illuminates
-The APU fuel feed SOV closes
-The APU bleed air LCV closes
-The APU Gen trips off

201
Q

How many of the cargo bay smoke detectors must detect smoke to get a FWD/AFT CARGO SMOKE warning message?

A

FWD - 2 of 3
AFT - 1 of 2

202
Q

What occurs when either of the CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlights is pressed?

A

-Cargo compartment fan stops
-recirculation SOV closes
-Optional heater shuts down
-Exhaust SOV closes

203
Q

What is the main difference between the 2 cargo fire bottles?

A

Both bottles fire at the same time.
Bottle 1 discharges quickly while bottle 2 discharges slowly over an hour

204
Q

Where is the smoke detector in the lav?

A

Mounted on the ceiling

205
Q

Where is the fire extinguisher in the lav?

A

Mounted by the trash can with a heat sensitive capsule that melts and discharges the halon into the trash can

206
Q

What are the primary flight controls?

A

Elevators, rudders, ailerons, and the Multi-function spoilers

207
Q

What are the secondary flight controls?

A

Slats/Flaps, Multi-function spoilers & ground spoilers, Hor Stab Trim, Aileron and rudder trim

208
Q

How are the primary flight controls operated?

A

Control movements are transmitted mechanically via cable or pushrods to the aileron, elevator, and ruder Power Control Units (PCUs) that hydraulically move the control surface. Spoilerons/Multi-Function Spoilers are moved hydraulically but are electronically controlled using fly-by-wire

209
Q

How many PCUs are used on the ailerons?

A
  1. They provide gust lock protection on the ground
210
Q

What is the primary function of the Multi-Function Spoilers?

A

Assist in roll response and as flight spoilers when the spoiler handle is pulled

211
Q

How many hydraulic PCUs are used on each Multi-Function Spoiler?

A

One each

212
Q

What controls the operation of the Multi-Function Spoilers?

A

The Spoiler Stabilizer Control Unit (SSCU 1 & 2)

213
Q

What is the purpose of the Flutter Damper on each aileron?

A

Prevent flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost at the PCU in flight. On the ground they provide additional gust lock protection.

214
Q

What does pulling the roll disconnect handle accomplish?

A

The SSCU is advised and the cross side aileron/Multi function spoiler relationship established

215
Q

When should the ROLL DISC handle be pulled

A

To isolate a jammed aileron control system.
NOTE: Pulling the handle isolates the faulted aileron system and results in reduced lateral control through the one operable aileron and the opposite side spoileron

216
Q

After pulling the ROLL DISC handle what can be done to improve roll control?

A

20 seconds after pulling the handle 2 ROLL SEL switchlights illuminate. Select and press the switchlight on the side with the UNJAMMED aileron to provide the flying pilot with the use if the on side spoileron (so he now has control of both spoilerons)

217
Q

What happens if uncommanded displacement of an aileron PCU occurs?

A

The SSCU is advised and both Multi-Function Spoilers respond to inputs from the operable control wheel

218
Q

ow many PCUs are used on the rudder?

A

3

219
Q

What provides Gust Lock protection to the rudder on the ground?

A

Trapped hydraulic fluid when the hydraulic systems are depressurized

220
Q

What occurs in the event of a jammed rudder?

A

2 separate cable systems with anti-jam/breakout protection (spring tension breakout) are provided for rudder control. So both rudder pedals will remain operable, but additional force may be needed to move the rudder

221
Q

What is the function of the Rudder Travel Limiter?

A

Prevents the pilot from overstressing the vertical stabilizer. The RTL is SSCU controlled by inputs from the slat/flap handle, airspeed, WOW, and engine state

222
Q

What is the primary function of the Yaw Damper system?

A

Improves directional stability and turn coordination (to counter Dutch Roll tendencies)

223
Q

Which systems provide signals to Yaw Damper 1 & 2?

A

FCC. FCC 1 controls YD 1 and FCC 2 controls YD 2

224
Q

What occurs if BOTH YDs fail?

A

The AP disconnects and a YAW DAMPER caution message is displayed

225
Q

How many PCUs on the the elevator?

A

3

226
Q

When should the PITCH DISC handle be pulled?

A

To isolate a jammed elevator control system
NOTE: Results in reduced pitch control through 1 operable elevator

227
Q

How are the secondary flight controls operated/actuated?

A

Slats/flaps are electrically controlled and operated
Multi-Function Spoilers and Ground spoilers are operated hydraulically but controlled via electric signals (Fly by wire) generated by the SSCU

228
Q

What alerts the pilot to a possible Horizontal Stab Trim runaway condition?

A

If the Hor Stab is in motion for more than 3 seconds, a Clacker is activated

229
Q

How can Pitch Trim be disengaged in the event of a Hor Stab Trim runaway?

A

Pressing the Pitch Trim Disconnect Button on either control wheel

230
Q

What is the primary function of Mach Trim?

A

Makes allowances for the rearward shift of the aerodynamic center of pressure as the Mach number increases. Without correction, this shift in the CofP causes a negative stick force gradient and decreases longitudinal stability (Mach Tuck) above M0.4 when hand flying. The SSCU automatically adjusts the stabilizer as a function of Mach number when the autopilot is engaged

231
Q

What is the basic function of the 3 moveable Slat panels installed on each wing?

A

They improve low speed handling

232
Q

What are the Slat extension positions?

A

CRJ700:
Lever at 1/8 - Slats at 20degrees
Lever at 20/30/45 - Slats at 25degrees

233
Q

What controls the flaps?

A

Slat/Flap Electronic Control Units (SFECU) receives electrical commands from the flap lever. When the SFECU commands a change in flap position, the flap brakes are released and 2 AC Power Drive Units (PDUs) are energized until the desired setting is reached

234
Q

At what 2 positions are there Flap Gates incorporated into the flap lever and why?

A

The forward gate is at flaps 8 to minimize the possibility of accidental flaps 0 during go-around.
The rearward gate is at flaps 20 to minimize the risk of VFE being exceeded.

235
Q

What is the function of the Emergency Flap Switch?

A

Allows limited flap selection in the event of mechanical failure of the Slat/Flap control lever. When deployed the EMER FLAP switch input to the SFECU overrides the flap lever and causes the Slats to fully extend and the flaps to move to 20degrees.
NOTE: EMER FLAP switch is inhibited above 230knots

236
Q

When are flap position indications displayed on the EICAS?

A

One or more of the following:
-Flaps greater than Zero
-LDG Gear is NOT up and locked
-BTMS is in the Red range

237
Q

What occurs in the event of split flap condition?

A

In the event of a split flap of 3 degrees the PDUs are de-energized, the Flap Brakes are applied, and a FLAPS FAIL caution message is posted

238
Q

What occurs in the event of failure of a single PDU or SFECU channel?

A

The Flaps will operate at a reduced speed and FLAP HALF SPEED status message will be displayed

239
Q

On the Flight Controls Synoptic Page, what are the names of the 4 spoiler-type panels?

A

From the wingtip inward: Multi-function spoilers (2 panels), outboard ground spoiler, and inboard ground spoiler

240
Q

When is the green FLT SPLR DEPLOY advisory message displayed?

A

When the Flight Spoilers are deployed and N1 is less than 79% and the AC altitude is above 300’ AGL

241
Q

When is the Amber FLT SPLR DEPLOY advisory message displayed?

A

When Flight Spoilers are deployed, N1 is above 79% and/OR the AC altitude is < 300’ AGL

242
Q

Which panels comprise the Ground Lift Dumping (GLD) system?

A

The inboard and outboard Ground Spoilers, and the Multi-Function Spoilers

243
Q

What is required to ARM the Ground Lift Dumping (GLD) system?

A

Auto:
-GLD Switch in Auto + L or R engine >79% N1
OR
-TL at TO Power + Wheel Speed >45kts

Manual Arming: GLD Switch in MAN ARM

244
Q

What is required to deploy the GLD system?

A

Both TL at or below idle OR Both N1 < 40% + any 2 of the following:
-L or R MLG-WOW
-Wheel Speed >16 knots
-RA < 5’ AGL

245
Q

What is required to Disarm/Retract the GLD system?

A

Automatic:
-L or R Engine >79% N1 or TL > TO Power

or

-(L or R Engine < Min Takeoff)
AND
-(INBD and OUTBD Wheel Speed <45 kts for 10 seconds and Aircraft on Ground for 40 seconds)

Manual: GLD switch to MAN DISARM

246
Q

On the ground the TAKEOFF CONFIG Warning System gives warnings for the improper settings of which systems and when?

A

-When both engines N1 > 70%

-CONFIG FLAPS
-CONFIG SPLRS
-CONFIG STAB
-CONFIG RUDDER
-CONFIG AILERON
-CONFIG AP
-PARKING BRAKE

247
Q

What does the Stall Protection system monitor?

A

-AOA transducers
-lateral acceleration via the AHRS
-Flap position transmitters
-MLG WOW signals
-Mach speed via the Mach transducers
-ADC 1 & 2

248
Q

The Stall Protection System directs what to occur when high AOA’s are aproached?

A

-Continuous Ignition activates
-THEN the stick Shaker activates and Autopilot is disengaged
-THEN the Stick Pusher is activated, STALL switchlights flash and a warbler sounds

249
Q

How can the Stick Pusher be manually disconnected?

A

By pressing and holding either control wheel AP/SP DISC Switch or by selecting the stall protection panel STALL PTCT PUSHER switch to off

250
Q

What is the function of the Stick Pusher Acceleration Switch?

A

Disconnects the Stick Pusher if less than 0.5 G is sensed during Stick Pusher activation

251
Q

What does EFIS stand for?

A

Electronic Flight Instrument System

252
Q

What is the panel called where reference speeds, MDA, and Barometric altitude settings are made?

A

The Air Data Reference Panel (ARP)

253
Q

What is the panel called where NAV source, MFD format, and Bearing pointer selection are made?

A

The Display Control Panel (DCP)

254
Q

In the event of a DCP failure, what should be selected to allow the operable DCP to control both EFIS displays?

A

Select the DSPL CONT switch, which is on the Source Select Panel, to the operable side

255
Q

What is the panel called where FD modes and course pointers are set?

A

Flight Control Panel (FCP)

256
Q

The Pitot Static System supplies variable air pressure inputs to what components?

A

Air Data Computers (ADC 1 & 2), Stall protections System, Cabin Pressurization System, and the Integrated Standby Instrument ISIS)

257
Q

What is the normal use and distribution of P1?

A

ADC 1

258
Q

What is the normal use and distribution of S1?

A

ADC 1

259
Q

What is the normal use and distribution of P2?

A

ADC 2

260
Q

What is the normal use and distribution of S2?

A

ADC 2

261
Q

What is the normal use and distribution of P3?

A

ISIS

262
Q

What is the normal use and distribution of S3?

A

ISIS AND the Cabin Pressurization

263
Q

Which 2 probes are on the left side of the aircraft?

A

Upper probe is P3
Lower Probe is P1, S1S2

264
Q

Which probe is on the right side?

A

P2, S2S1

265
Q

What are the 2 static ports on both sides?

A

S3

266
Q

Relative to speed how wide is the speed bug?

A

10 knots

267
Q

What happens to the Low-Speed Cue (red and black checkerboard) when AOA data fails or is missing?

A

Changes to it’s default setting: 100Kts and a yellow line extending to 120 kts

268
Q

What does the Green line on the Airspeed indicator represent?

A

Low speed awareness cue, 25% above shaker speed

269
Q

What does the magenta Trend Vector predict?

A

The speed of the AC in 10 seconds if conditions remain unchanged

270
Q

How long does AHRS initialization take?

A

On the ground approx. 70 seconds in MAG and 10 minutes in DG
In flight 10 - 35 seconds

271
Q

What does the AMI represent?

A

The Alpha Margin Indicator (AMI) represents the max pitch allowed before the Stick Shaker is activated
NOTE: It is displayed for a minimum of 60 seconds

272
Q

When is the amber WINDSHEAR alert displayed?

A

During an INCREASING performance windshear

273
Q

When is a RED WINDSHEAR alert displayed?

A

During a DECREASING performance windshear.
NOTE: A “WINDSHEAR” aural alert sounds. The AMI remains Amber

274
Q

When does the FD 1/2 BNK mode automatically engage?

A

31,600’

275
Q

What is the normal function of the ATT HDG switch on the source selector panel?

A

in NORM, onside AHRS info is displayed. When an AHRS fails the 1 or 2 selection determines which AHRS info is to be received

276
Q

What is the function of the AIR DATA switch on the source selector panel?

A

In NORM onside ADC info is displayed
When an ADC has failed the 1 or 2 position determines which ADC info is to be recieved

277
Q

What is the function of the DSPL CONT switch on the source selector panel?

A

In NORM, onside DCP control their respective EFD
When a DCP fails 1 or 2 determines which DCP controls both EFDs

278
Q

Without Electrical power how long can the standby Attitude System supply attitude information?

A

NINE minutes

279
Q

How many fuel tanks does the CRJ have?

A

3

280
Q

From which tanks does fuel flow to the engines?

A

From the collector tanks located inside the center tank.
Each collector tank is replenished by a gravity feed manifold that connects the collector to it’s associated wing tank and by a scavenge ejector when the engines are operating

281
Q

From which tank is fuel delivered to the APU?

A

The dedicated APU pump takes fuel from the left collector tank

282
Q

What is the function of the fuel tank Pressure Relief Valves?

A

To release internal pressure if the tank becomes over pressurizes. Open at 5psi and resets when pressure returns to normal
NOTE: Each wing tank has a spring loaded pressure relief valve on the lower wing surface and the center tank has one on the lower center fuselage

283
Q

How are the tanks vented?

A

Through interconnecting vent lines to NACA scoops on the lower surface of the wing

284
Q

What might cause erroneous readings in the center tank during climb?

A

fuel may enter the center tank from the vent system and cause readings up to 300 lbs

285
Q

What assists in supplying fuel to the engines when a Main Ejector fails?

A

DC boost pumps supply fuel when the Main Ejector pressure is low

286
Q

What monitors and controls the fuel system?

A

A dual channel Fuel System Computer
NOTE: Only 1 channel is active at any time

287
Q

How are the Ejectors operated?

A

Motive Flow
NOTE: Motive flow is created when high pressure fuel is passed through the venturi-shaped nozzle of the Ejector. As fluid is ejected from the nozzle, fluid velocity is increased and a low pressure is created. The suction caused by the low pressure moves the fuel out of the tank. The Scavenge and Main Ejectors are operated by the Motive Flow created by the high pressure output of the engine driven pumps while the motive flow created by the Main Ejectors operates the Transfer Ejector

288
Q

What is the main function of the Scavenge Ejectors?

A

To transfer fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tanks

289
Q

What is the main function of the Main Ejectors?

A

To transfer fuel from the associated collector tanks to the engine

290
Q

What is the main function of the transfer ejectors?

A

To transfer fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks

291
Q

What is the main function of the boost pumps?

A

DC electric pumps used to transfer fuel from the collector tanks to the engines. They are used as backup to the main ejectors during engine start or when the main ejectors fail

292
Q

How is Cross flow accomplished?

A

Via a dedicated bidirectional crossflow pump (XFLOW Pump) to move fuel between tanks

293
Q

What 2 methods of XFLOW are there?

A

Auto and Manual

294
Q

How can the APU Fuel Shutoff Valve be manually opened/closed?

A

-Via the PWR FUEL switchlight
-During emergency operations the APU SOV can be closed via the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight

295
Q

How many crossflow systems does the CRJ have?

A

2
Powered XFLOW (in AUTO or Manual) and the Gravity XFLOW

296
Q

When does the Fuel System Computer initiate auto Powered XFLOW?

A

When a fuel imbalance of 200lbs exists. Pumps until there is a 50lb imbalance the other way

297
Q

What is the function of the AUTO OVERRIDE switchlight on the fuel panel?

A

Selecting it to MAN inhibits the automatic feature of the powered XFLOW system.
Allows for manual XFLOW - Select pump on the LOW side

298
Q

When does the Amber FUEL IMBALANCE caution message illuminate?

A

When there is an 800lb imbalance

299
Q

When should Gravity Crossflow be used?

A

When powered XFLOW is inop or unable to correct an imbalance during flight

300
Q

What occurs when the GRAVITY XFLOW switchlight is selected?

A

The Gravity XFLOW SOV opens and a GRAV XFLOW OPEN advisory message is displayed on the EICAS, fuel flows through the gravity manifold and the wing tanks are balanced by gravity

301
Q

When does the Fuel System Computer initiate an automatic fuel transfer of fuel from the Center Tank to the Wing Tanks?

A

When wing tanks drop to 94%

302
Q

What is the max Pressure Refueling total quantity of fuel?

A

19594

303
Q

What is the main function of the Magnetic Level Indicators?

A

An alternate method of measuring fuel tank quantity

304
Q

Where is bulk fuel temp measured?

A

Right wing tank

305
Q

How many Hydraulic systems are there?

A

3

306
Q

What is normal HYD pressure?

A

3000 +/- 200

307
Q

What kind of A pumps does each HYD system have?

A

1 & 2 are Engine Driven Pumps (EDP)
3 is an AC Motor Pump (ACMP)

308
Q

What kind of B pump does each HYD system have?

A

All 3 have ACMP

309
Q

In Auto Mode when do HYD pumps 1B and 2B operate?

A

-When their respective bus is powered
-The associated Generator is operating
-When FLAPS are not at Zero

310
Q

On the Ground what does the interlock system allow HYD pumps 1B and 2B to do?

A

It allows the pumps to operate when the applicable ACMP switch is selected ON, even if the associated Generator is not operating

311
Q

During Normal operations, the electrical output of which generator controls ACMP1 and/or ACMP 2?

A

ACMP1 - GEN1
ACMP2 - GEN2
Crosswired so that GEN1/GEN2 can power ACMP1B AND ACMP 2B

312
Q

How are HYD systems 1 & 2 cooled?

A

Via an Air/HYD oil heat exchanger located in the aft equipment bay. Cooling air comes from the RAM air scoop. On the ground an electric fan located inside the heat exchange draws air from the scoop

313
Q

Where are HYD system 1 & 2 located?

A

In the aft equipment bay.
NOTE: the engine driven pumps are on the Accessory Gearbox in the engine

314
Q

What is the function of the L/R HYD SOV switchlights located on the HYD control panel?

A

Allows the pilot to close the SOV in the event of a HYD leak or over temp. Eliminating the need to shut down an engine to control fluid over temp

315
Q

How can the HYD SOV be closed?

A

-L/R HYD SOV switchlight
-ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight

316
Q

Where is HYD System 3 located?

A

in or near the MLG Bay

317
Q

Which HYD system services the largest demands?

A

3

318
Q

How is HYD system 3 cooled?

A

It is not

319
Q

What Bus powers Fire Detection A & B, MLG Bay Overheat, and Cargo Smoke Detector A & B?

A

DC BATT BUS

320
Q

How can ACMP 3B be automatically activated?

A

Switch In AUTO: When it’s Bus is powered and the flaps are not at zero.

When the ADG deploys: It is latched to the ADG Bus and functions regardless of switch position

321
Q

What surfaces are anti iced with engine bleed air?

A

Engine cowls and wings. Using bleed air from the common manifold.

322
Q

When in icing conditions, how often does each micro-processor de-ice it’s Ice Detection Probes?

A

5 seconds during each 60 second period

323
Q

How are the Wing Leading Edges anti-iced?

A

Using bleed air through a Piccolo tube

324
Q

What is the function of the Wing Crossbleed Duct and Valve?

A

Provides an alternate method of anti-icing both wings when an engine bleed valve, wing anti-icing valve, or engine fails.

325
Q

How is the Wing Crossbleed Valve operated?

A

Electrically operated and controlled

326
Q

What is the function of the Wing A/I Crossbleed Rotary Switch?

A

Opens the Crossbleed Valve and allows bleed air from on Anti-Ice Duct to anti-ice both wings.

327
Q

How are the Engine Cowls anti-iced?

A

Bleed air from the Common Manifold heats the Cowl and the T2 Sensor Probe

328
Q

In the event of a loss of power, what position are the Cowl Anti-Ice Valves failed-safe to?

A

Open

329
Q

In Ground Mode, which air data sensors and/or probes are NOT heated?

A

The Pitot bases and TAT are NOT heated

330
Q

On the Anti-Ice synoptic pages, what is the significance of the valves labeled CMD in cyan?

A

CMD indicates the commanded position of the switch and not necessarily the actual position of the valves

331
Q

What causes the ICE Annunciator to display?

A

The ICE detection probe decreases in vibration to the preset tripping point

332
Q

When ice is detected how long are the ice detection probes heated?

A

They are automatically heated until the ice is shed.

333
Q

Where are the wing temperature sensors?

A

1 inboard and 1 outboard

334
Q

What does each Wing temp sensor do?

A

The OB monitors for insufficient temp and detects failure of the piccolo tube in the outboard section of slat 3
The IB monitors the wing temp to modulate the anti-icing valve and detect an overheat condition

335
Q

If an underheat condition is detected what will be displayed?

A

L/R WING A/I caution message, wing anti-ice duct turns amber

336
Q

If an overheat condition is detected what will happen?

A

Triple Chime, WING OVHT warning on EICAS, “WING OVERHEAT” aural message, Wing Anti-Ice duct RED, Respective A/I Valve will close

337
Q

When does the wing anti-ice system heat the wings to the high temp schedule?

A

When the Slats are extended

338
Q

Are the wing anti-ice valves failed open or closed?

A

Closed

339
Q

What is the purpose of the white arc on the N2 gauges?

A

Keeping N2 ABOVE the white arc ensures proper bleed air to de-ice the wings

340
Q

What occurs when the windshield heat is selected to LOW?

A

Windshields and side windows heated low

341
Q

What occurs when the windshield heat is selected to high?

A

Windshields are heated at high and the side windows remain at low

342
Q

What will automatically occur if the windshield overheats?

A

a L/R WSHLD HEAT caution message, Power is removed from the window

343
Q

Do the Probe heat switches have any control when airborne?

A

No, all probes go to high heat when WOW

344
Q

What does EICAS stand for?

A

Engine Indicating Crew Alerting System

345
Q

How does the Crew Alerting System (CAS) prioritize messages?

A

By order of occurrence and order of importance.
The most recent message appears at the top of its associated list and the level of importance is illustrated by color

346
Q

How is CRT cooling accomplished?

A

CRTs are DC Powered but cooled by AC powered fans

347
Q

During ground ops why is there a 5 minute limit on DC BATT power?

A

There is no CRT cooling available on DC

348
Q

What is the primary function of the 2 DCUs?

A

The Data Concentrator Units collect info from various systems, process it, and relay it to the proper component or display such as EICAS, LDU, MDC, and FDR

349
Q

What is the primary function of the LDU?

A

The Light Driver Unit receives info from the DCU and controls the appropriate panel of glareshield switchlight illumination

350
Q

What is the primary function of the DCU 1 and 2 DISABLE switchlights on the Audio Warning Panel?

A

To disable and silence the aural warnings of a malfunctioning DCU
NOTE: GPWS and TCAS warnings are NOT disabled

351
Q

If the ECP (EICAS Control Panel) microprocessor should fail, which four buttons will still operate on that panel?

A

The PRI, STAT, CAS, and STEP buttons will still operate since they are mechanical buttons rather than momentary contact ones

352
Q

In EICAS presentation color logic, what does Magenta indicate

A

Magenta indicates that there is insufficient data to determine proper coding

353
Q

What occurs if EICAS Display 1 (ED1) should fail?

A

The Primary page is automatically transferred to ED 2

354
Q

What is the function of the Display Reversionary Panel (DRPs) located on each side console?

A

Controls the presentation on the associated MFD

355
Q

What should be selected if either EICAS display fails?

A

The operable side should be selected on the Source Select Panel

356
Q

When does the FDR start to record?

A

When the Beacon or the Strobes are selected on or when the WOW switch

357
Q

Which HYD system powers the landing gear, nosewheel steering, and the brake systems?

A

HYD system 3

358
Q

What is the Primary function of the PSEU?

A

The Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit sequences the landing gear and disables/rearms the anti-skid and nosewheel steering systems after TO/LDG

359
Q

Which way does the MLG and Nose Gear retract?

A

MLG inward, Nose gear forward

360
Q

What is the function of the DN LCK REL button?

A

If a solenoid lock or Proximity Sensing System malfunction occurs, the DN LOCK REL button can mechanically withdraw the solenoid lock permitting UP selection of the landing gear lever

361
Q

How is Alternate Landing Gear Extension accomplished?

A

Via the Manual LDG Release Handle and the Main LDG Auxiliary Actuators

362
Q

How are Nosewheel Steering commands transmitted?

A

Electronically using steer by wire

363
Q

How much Nosewheel deflection is possible in each mode?

A

Tiller = 80 deg, Rudder = 8 deg, Scissors disconnected = 360 degrees of free castering

364
Q

What is the function of the chines?

A

To deflect ground water away from the engines

365
Q

Which HYD system powers the inboard brakes? The outboard brakes?

A

HYD 3 = INBD
HYD 2 = OTBD

366
Q

What provides tire burst protection in the main wheels?

A

Four fusible plugs

367
Q

How many brake applications are available if either HYD 2 or 3 fails?

A

6 applications with the Anti-Skid OFF.

368
Q

What conditions must be met for an accurate reading of the Brake Wear Indicator Pins?

A

Brakes applied and HYD Sys 2 & 3 pressurized

369
Q

Which set of brakes will hold for a prolonged period when the HYD Systems are selected OFF?

A

INBD will hold

370
Q

What does the Anti-Skid Control Unit do to prevent wheel lockup?

A

-Modulates hyd pressure at the brakes
-Compares the speed of the paired wheels (INB & OTBD) and releases the brakes on the slower turning wheel
-In Air Mode, configures Anti-Skid to full brake dump to prevent wheel lockup at touchdown

371
Q

When does the Anti-Skid become operative after touchdown?

A

35 kts or WOW after 5 seconds

372
Q

What is the minimum speed for Anti-Skid to be operational?

A

10kts

373
Q

What is the function of the BTMS OVHT WARN RESET push button?

A

Provides a means of resetting the color logic for the BTMS presentation, i.e. resets the color to agree with the numerical readout in the case of a previous overheat

374
Q

When is the “TOO LOW GEAR” aural warning heard?

A

LDG not down and locked when RA < 500’ AGL and the IAS is < 190kts
NOTE: Inhibited for 2 minutes after takeoff

375
Q

What does the GEAR DISAGREE warning message indicate?

A

A disagreement between landing gear handle and actual gear position

376
Q

In AUTO, when will the NO PED and SEAT BLTS signs illuminate?

A

Flaps > 0, or when the LDG extended, or cabin altitude > 10,000’

377
Q

How are the EMER LIGHTS powered

A

Independent rechargeable battery packs that provide 10 minutes of energy

378
Q

What kind of floor track emergency lighting is there?

A

Photo luminescient tape on either side of the aisle, must be exposed to a light source for at least 15 minutes to become luminous

379
Q

With the EMER LTS in the ARM position, when would the emergency lights illuminate?

A

When ESS DC or ESS AC power is lost

380
Q

Which light does the ON selection of the Left or Right Landing Lights also illuminate?

A

The associate RECOG/TAXI LTS

381
Q

When is Auto Tuning of the radios not available?

A

If the NAV SOURCE is NOT FMS or DME HOLD has been selected

382
Q

What is the function of the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch on the Backup Tuning Unit?

A

Inhibits the AUTO tune function of the FMS and the MAN tune function of the FMS radio page

383
Q

What is the purpose of the PUSH X-SIDE function on the NAV SOURCE Selector located on each Display Control Panel (DCP)?

A

When the center of the NAV SOURCE knob is pressed, the cross side NAV data is posted in amber on the on-0side PFD

384
Q

How does the selection of 1 or 2 on the ATC SEL know affect the altitude data received by ATC and TCAS?

A

It determines which ADC altitude information is used to respond to Mode C (altitude reporting) and S (TCAS) interrogations

385
Q

Which warning takes precedence over all other alerts and warnings except a Stall warning?

A

Windshear

386
Q

What is the approximate time to impact when a “CAUTION TERRAIN” or “CAUTION OBSTACLE” audio caution message sounds?

A

60 seconds to impact

387
Q

What is the approximate time to impact when a “TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP” or “OBSTACLE, OBSTACLE, PULL UP” audio warning sounds?

A

30 seconds to impact

388
Q

What is the function of the GRND PROX - TERRAIN switchlight?

A

Allows the terrain function of the EGPWS to be inhibited

389
Q

What is the function fothe GRND PROX - FLAP switchlight

A

Inhibits the EGPWS for landing. Silences the “TOO LOW FLAPS” audio alert

390
Q

What is the maximum time assumed for the completion on an initial TCAS Preventative RA and for Corrective RA?

A

The maneuver should be initiated within 5 seconds for a Preventative RA and 2.5 seconds for a Corrective RA

391
Q

What is the purpose of the PUSH GCS pushbutton on the Weather Radar Control Panel?

A

When operating in the WX mode it activates the Ground Clutter Suppression which decreases the intensity of the ground returns for 12 seconds

392
Q

What is the function of the XFR button on the Weather Radar Control Panel?

A

In the event of a panel failure, it transfers radar control to the other WX Radar Control Panel

393
Q

What is the function of the SEC button on the Weather Radar Control Panel?

A

reduces the sector scan to =/-30deg to increase the rate of radar sweeps

394
Q

What does a yellow PAC Alert Arc on the MFD radar presentation indicate?

A

The radar beam is being severely attenuated and the area of shadow behind the intervening rainfall may contain hidden and possibly significant precipitation

395
Q

What is the purpose of the GPS Satellite Deselect function in the FMS?

A

Would be used to deselect a GPS satellite that has been NOTAMed out of service

396
Q

When a GPS approach is expected at the destination, how can the RAIM (receiver autonomous integrity monitoring) be checked for constellation accuracy prior to departure?

A

If the ETA is entered in the FMS on the GPS Control Page, the predicted APPR RAIM is calculated

397
Q

How is crew (Flight Deck) oxygen provided?

A

A pressurized cylinder, located in in the wardrobe behind an access panel supplies O2 to 3 quick donning masks on the flight deck

398
Q

What is the fully charged pressure of the flight deck oxygen cylinder?

A

1850 psi

399
Q

What does the absence of the Green Blowout Disc indicate?

A

The oxygen system has been depleted
i.e. the pressure in the bottle was excessive and so all oxygen was dumped overboard

400
Q

Where is the Overboard Discharge Indicator (Blowout Disk) located on each aircraft?

A

Left side fuselage just forward of the PAX door

401
Q

When does the O2 mask provide only pure oxygen regardless of the Normal/100% lever position?

A

> 30,000’

402
Q

How is PAX O2 provided?

A

Chemically generated oxygen. Pulling the mask starts the chemical proccess

403
Q

How long do the PAX chemical generators provide oxygen?

A

13 minutes

404
Q

What is the function of the PASS OXY switchlight?

A

Manually deploys the passenger oxygen system

405
Q

What does the illumination of the amber BLEED MISCONFIG caution message indicate?

A

The APU is manually selected as the bleed source and either the wing and/or cowl anti-ice switches are selected ON, or an incorrect bleed configuration has been set in manual mode

406
Q

What sources of bleed air does the Pneumatic System use?

A

6th or 10th of the engines, the APU, or from a ground air source

407
Q

What controls bleed air management?

A

2 Air-Conditioning System Controllers

408
Q

In-Flight, when does the transfer of the bleeds from the APU to the engines occur?

A

After takeoff with the APU operating, the LDG up and flaps 20deg or less, bleed air loading is transferred to the engines when the thrust levers are retarded from the TO detent
On approach, if the APU is available for bleed loading, bleed air loading is transferred from the engines to the APU when the flaps are greater than 20deg or the LDG is down

409
Q

What is the function of the BLEED SOURCE rotary selector?

A

Is powered ONLY when the BLEED VALVE rotary switch is placed in manual
Determines the source of bleed air

410
Q

What is the function of the ISOL switch?

A

Is powered ONLY when the BLEED VALVE rotary selector is placed in MANUAL
-OPEN: the Isolation valve is electrically energized open
-CLSD: The isolation valve is electrically energized closed

411
Q

What is the function of the BLEED VALVES rotary selector?

A

CLSD: All aircraft bleed sources are selected closed
AUTO: Bleed air management is controlled by the Air-Conditioning System Controller
MANUAL: Provides manual control of the bleed air system

412
Q

How are bleed air leeks detected?

A

The Bleed air Leak Detection System, which is controlled by the Anti-Ice Leak Controller, monitors the bleed air and anti-icing ducts for leakage

413
Q

What kind of overheat detectors protect the bleed air ducts, the anti-ice ducts, and the wing leading edges?

A

Dual loops are used to detect high temperatures

414
Q

Where does the External Ground Air Connector connect and which manifold is it directed to?

A

On the left side aft of the aft cargo door. It enters the left side of the Bleed air Manifold

415
Q

What drives the Accessory Gearbox?

A

The N2 compressor

416
Q

At what temperature does APR power begin to diminish at sea level (i.e. flat rated power)?

A

ISA +15

417
Q

What is the function of the Kevlar blanket wrapped around the engine inlet housing?

A

Contains damage from a failed N1 fan blade

418
Q

How many fan blades does the N1 fan have?

A

28

419
Q

What is the function of the variable geometry system of the compressor?

A

Regulates airflow across the Compressor by changing the position of the Inlet guide vanes and the first 5 stages of the Stator vanes. This improves the efficiency of the compressor and protects it from stalling and surge damage

420
Q

What changes the geometry of the Compressor Inlet Guide Vanes and the Stator Vanes?

A

The FADEC programs and positions them with actuators and mechanical linkages moved by high pressure fuel

421
Q

What schedules fuel?

A

The Fuel Metering Unit

422
Q

In basic terms what are the FADEC computers?

A

Provide a full range of control under all steady state and transient engine conditions. The FADEC controls the operation and performance of the engine through 3 subsystems: fuel control, compressor airflow management, and engine starting/ignition control

423
Q

What supplies power to the FADEC?

A

When N2 is >50%: An AGB mounted FADEC Alternator
When N2 is < 50%: The Aircrafts electrical system

424
Q

What is required to open the Start Valve and engage the Starter?

A

DC Electrical power and air from the bleed air manifold

425
Q

What can be used to pressurize the 10th stage common bleed air manifold for engine starting?

A

APU, an external air cart, or the opposite engine

426
Q

When does the engine start valve close and the starter disengage

A

At 50% N2 the FADEC removes power from the solenoid that allows pneumatic pressure to open the start valve, the start valve closes and the starter disengages

427
Q

How does the Air Turbine Starter work?

A

The ATS converts pneumatic energy into mechanical motion. The starter through a sprague clutch mechanically engages the accessory gearbox and accelerates N2

428
Q

What valves open when the engine Start switch is pressed?

A

The ISOL valve opens and the start valve opens

429
Q

When does the amber NO STARTER CUTOUT caution message illuminate?

A

If the start valve fails to close at 50% N2 rpm

430
Q

What powers Ignition System A?

A

AC ESS Bus

431
Q

What powers Ignition system B?

A

Batt Bus through a static invertor

432
Q

What occurs when continuous ignition is selected ON?

A

Both ignition A and B are energized

433
Q

What kind of Flameout Protection is there?

A

If the FADEC detects a flameout, it will automatically initiate a relight. Both ignition systems are energized and the green L(R) AUTO IGNITION advisory message is presented
NOTE: If N2 falls below the relight envelope Auto Relight is cancelled

434
Q

During Thrust reverser operation how are the translating cowls moved rearward?

A

HYD Actuators operate the engine translating cowl. The reversers respond to electrical signals from FADEC and the thrust reverser levers
-HYD 1 powers the L Reverser
-HYD 2 powers the R reverser

435
Q

What is required to ARM the Thrust reversers?

A

Thrust Reverser switch in the ARMED position and the HYD system operative

PSA CRJ700/900 KV (7 decks)

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