Captains Mock KV Flashcards
1
Q
5 Items needed on the Realease
A
- Tail Number
- Flight Number
- Airports involved
- IFR
- T/O Fuel
2
Q
Captains Signature on Release is confirming?
A
- Recency Experience
- Qualify for special use airports
- Qualify for special use navigation
- Comply up to date
- Rested and healthy
3
Q
What is PYLD
A
(PAX booked x Seasonal wt) + (1.5 bags/pax x checked bag weight)
4
Q
What is PAYLD
A
Planned max payload based on MTOW - (BOW+FOB)
5
Q
RLD
A
Required Landing Distance - Max effort number x 1.67
6
Q
What is RLD used for
A
Used for dispatch purposes only
7
Q
OLD
A
Operational Landing Distance - Average pilot with all misc. factors added + 15% safety factor
8
Q
When is an alternate required
A
Always. Unless 1,2,3
9
Q
Exemption 17347
A
Allows us to dispatch when conditional statements indicate Wx will be below minimums
10
Q
How does 17347 work
A
Conditional Statement at:
Destination: 1/2 vis
1st Alternate: 1/2 Vis and Ceiling
2nd Alternate: At or above vis and ceiling
11
Q
What is Marginal
A
Or - And - OR
12
Q
High Mins Captain
A
Must increase all minimums by 100’ and 1/2 Mile
13
Q
Exemption 17203
A
For high mins Captain. IF:
Crew CAT II qualified
Precision Approach coupled until DH or MSAP
CAT I will not be initiated when:
RVR 4000 “AND” X-Wind > 15kts “AND” Braking action less than good
14
Q
Low Time FO
A
CA T/O to 3000’ and Landing when:
1. Runway Contaminated
2. RVR 4000 or less
3. Breaking action < Good
4. X-Wind > 15 kts
5. Special Qual airports
6. Windshear
7. Any other reason determined by Captain
15
Q
Emer Lights
A
Powered by Nicad batteries - 10 Minute charge
16
Q
When do Emer Lights come on
A
Switch in “ARM”: activates lighting when power lost to either AC or DC ESS Bus
17
Q
Pax Door Limit
A
1000lb or 4 people
18
Q
What is on Accessory Gearbox
A
- Engine Lubrication Pump
- FADEC alternator
- Hydraulic Pump
- Fuel Pump
- IDG
- Air Turbine Starter
19
Q
APR
A
Automatically increases output on good engine when 1 engine fails in TOGA detent. Limit 10 minutes use
20
Q
High Power Schedule
A
Guarded Switchlight: Activates MCT in Climb and APR in TOGA
21
Q
ADG Min Speed
A
135kts
22
Q
ADG Powers
A
AC ESS Bus
Hyd Pump 3B
Slats/Flaps 1/2 Speed
Stab Trim Channel 2
23
Q
ADG Auto Deploys When
A
AC Bus 1 AND AC Bus 2 unpowered
WOW
An AC Gen was the last source of power
24
Q
Scavenge Ejectors
A
Move Fuel from wings to collector tanks
25
Main Ejectors
Move fuel from collector tanks to engines
26
Transfer Ejectors
Move Fuel from center tank to wing tanks
27
Hyd Pump Switches in auto when is pump powered
When respective bus is powered
The generator is running
Flaps out of zero
28
Hydraulic accumulator for 3A purpose
Prevents surging and provides extra pressure when needed
29
Hydraulic cooling
System 1 & 2 use air/Hyd Oil heat exchanger using ram air in flight. On ground a fan pulls air across the heat exchanger.
System 3 uses natural convection
30
Anti Skid operational when
Wheel speed >=35kts or WOW after 5 seconds
31
TOO LOW GEAR
RA<500' and speed <190kts
32
CA Cockpit Check
1. Airworthiness
2. Aircraft Registration
3. FCC Operating License
4. EFB's - 2
5. 2 Normal Checklists
6. QRH
7. QRC's - 2
8. Jumpseat Briefing Card
9. Speed Book
10. Yellow Manual Stowage Bag
33
Manual Stowage Bag
1. Heat Resistant Gloves
2. Spare Headset
3. Spare EFB Mount
4. Walk Around Flashlight
34
Cockpit Emergency Equipment
1. Crash Axe
2. Fire Extinguisher
3. 2 Flash Lights
4. Escape Rope
5. PBE
6. 3 O2 Masks
7. 3 Flotation devices
35
Cold Soaked Airplane
-30C or below for 8 hours
Motor for 60 seconds and verify fan rotation
Thrust reversers deploy and stow until cycles are 2 seconds or less
36
Crew Coordination During Emergency
1. PF Maintain Aircraft Control
2. Identify Non-Normal
3. Accomplish Immediate Action Items
4. Captain Assigns PF
5. Complete the QRH Procedures
6. Analyze and develop a plan
Notify:
FA
Dispatch
If time permits Pax
37
Unplanned Emergency Signal
6 Hi chimes - PED or Smoking
38
Planned Emergency Signal
3 Hi/Lo Chimes - Chime switchlight
39
What are the lower than standard T/O minimums for PSA?
500/500/500
10-9a page for a given runway per airport
40
What are the seasonal passenger weights and bags?
198lbs summer, 203lbs winter, 34lbs bags
41
What are derived weather minimums?
400-1 for a single navaid, 200-1/2 for multiple navaids (or the same identifier) added to the most conservative approach
42
What is exemption 17347?
Main body of the forecast must be legal weather. TAF has conditional codes (PROB40, TEMPO)
Destination: conditional vis not less than 1⁄2 required for approach
1st Alternate: conditional vis and ceiling not less than 1⁄2 derived mins
2nd Alternate: main body and conditional statement must meet derived alternate
minimums
43
What is the marginal rule?
If the ceiling OR visibility is at the published minimums for the destination AND the ceiling OR visibility is at the derived minimums for the alternate, then a second alternate is required
44
When is a takeoff alternate required?
When the visibility is less than what is required to perform a CAT 1 approach at the departure airport
45
How far away can the takeoff alternate be?
Not more than 1 hour with one engine inoperative in still air, in normal cruise. Maximum of 300 miles.
46
How much fuel do we need to have to dispatch?
To the destination, the furthest alternate, then 45 min at cruise altitude
47
What’s the lowest visibility an aircraft can be dispatched if there is a CAT II approach?
1/4sm visibility
48
How close can an aircraft get to a thunderstorm during an approach?
3 miles
49
50
What are the positive and negative load factors with flaps retracted?
-1.0 to +2.5 G
51
What are the positive and negative load factors with flaps extended?
0 to +2.0 G
52
When does SMCGS go into effect?
1200 RVR
53
How many hours of rest do pilots need?
10 hours including 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity
54
What’s the maximum amount of Dry Ice PSA can carry?
275lbs
55
Reasons to reject a takeoff above 80kts?
Engine Failure
Fire Warning
Aircraft is considered unsafe or unable to fly
Loss of directional control
56
Reasons to reject a takeoff below 80kts?
Anything
57
ALD (Actual landing distance) vs OLD (Operational Landing distance) vs RLD (Runway landing distance? (FMB 20-01)
● ALD is used for dispatch and emergency. This is the test pilot number with full brakes applied without thrust reversers.
● RLD is ALD x 1.67, this adds a safety factor to ALD (ALD is 60% of RLD)
● RLD needs an extra 15% increase for a wet runway
● OLD is advisory performance data not required by regulation, thrust reversers and
spoilers are assumed operational, a 15% safety margin is also recommended to be added
58
When must the captain Takeoff and Land? (FOM 10.4.2)
Equal or less than 1600 RVR or 1⁄4 vis. Controls will be transferred at completion of after take off checklist.
If runway is < 5000 feet
59
What 5 items are required for a Dispatch release to be valid?
Aircraft registration number
Flight Number
Departure, destination, and any alternates
Type operation (IFR)
Minimum fuel supply (TO Fuel)
60
What is the minimum fuel required for an aircraft to take the runway?
T/O Fuel
61
What is the minimum fuel needed at the OUT time (pushback)?
T/O fuel + Taxi
62
How is Burn fuel Calculated?
Getting to your destination, doing an approach
63
How is reserve fuel Calculated?
45minutes at FL250 at long range cruise speed
64
Minimum reserve?
2,100lbs for 700, 2,200lbs for 900
65
How is alternate fuel Calculated
Minimum fuel from destination to furthest alternate is 1,500 lbs. — 0-50 miles at 10,000 ft.
— 51-100 miles at 15,000 ft.
— 101-150 miles at 20,000 ft.
— 151 miles or greater at 25,000 ft
66
How is Taxi fuel Calculated?
19lbs per minute with two engines operating
67
What does contingency fuel account for?
Anticipated traffic delays.
Extra Holding fuel
Possible missed approach at destination.
Any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft.
68
What’s the minimum contingency fuel required for the CRJ700? 900?
937 and 1082 (which includes 170 or 222 for a missed approach respectively)
69
Historical fuel of the 99th percentile is added for...?
Thunderstorms forecast plus or minus 1 hour of the ETA, except 30% probability Visibility 1 mile or less
Main runway closure
70
Minimum Tanker fuel?
330lbs for 700&900 (incl 7 min of taxi) (can be added for air or ground delays or
71
What is the maximum allowable fuel variance?
Plus or minus 500lbs
72
What is PYLD?
(Pax booked x Seasonal weight) + (1.5 bags per passenger X 30lbs)
73
What is PAYLD?
Max payload = MTOW – (BOW+FOB)
74
How much difference is allowed for pressure (altimeter setting) on the flight release before an update is required?
-0.1 in Hg
75
When does a new flight release need to be made?
When there is a discrepancy of 100nm, 4,000ft or when QNH is more than -0.1in from what is on the original release
76
How do you calculate fuel needed for ground delays? Air delays?
Ground: Tanker + Taxi
Air: Tanker + Contingency
77
EICAS
What is the suggested order of troubleshooting?
EL - Electrics
HY - Hydraulics
P - Pneumatics
O - Other
78
When will mach show up on the PFD?
.45 Mach or 31,600ft
79
If ED1 fails ED2 will show what page?
Primary
80
What is the purpose of the DCU?
The data collector unit collects information for showing on EICAS displays
81
What is the purpose of the LDU?
The lamp driver unit illuminates various lamps around the cockpit
82
What are the two subsets of the fire protection system
Detection and Extinguishing
83
If fire has been detected in the cargo compartment, what happens?
The FIREX automatically shuts down the cargo bar heater and closes both intake and exhaust shutoff valves in the cargo bay
84
How is the Lavatory protected from fire?
Self-contained detector and automatic extinguisher
85
Which area of protection has only a single loop fire detector?
MLG (Main landing gear)
86
What kind of fire protection does the gear bay have?
Only detection
87
If an APU fire occurs in flight, will the APU shut down automatically?
Yes, but the fire bottle must be discharged manually
88
How many smoke detectors in the forward cargo compartment? Aft?
Three, Two
89
How many halon bottles are for both the forward and aft compartments?
2
90
Will there be any indication that the lavatory fire bottle has been discharged on the flight deck?
No
91
Fire detection is powered by what bus?
Battery bus
92
Fire protection is powered by what bus?
The emergency bus
93
What happens when the “ENG FIRE PUSH” button is pushed?
The bottles squibs are armed, both BOTTLE 1 and BOTTLE 2 ARMED
PUSH TO DISCH switch lights illuminate
The fuel feed shutoff valve closes
Bleed air shutoff valve closes
Hydraulic shutoff valve closes
Engine-driven generator is tripped off
94
What happens when the “APU FIRE PUSH” switch light is pressed?
APU bottle squibs armed
Bottle armed push to DISCH light
APU fuel feed SOV closes
Fuel solenoid valve closes
LCV Closes
APU gen trips offline
95
What happens if the APU detects and annunciates a fire?
In flight:
APU automatically shuts down, fire bottles are manually discharged
On Ground:
APU automatically shuts down, fire bottles automatically discharge
96
What powers the Fire Protection System when BATT Master switch is ON. (QRH)
DC Emergency Bus
97
What is the primary bus that powers the Fire Protection System?
DC Emergency Bus
98
Possible problems with a loop system?
A Shorted loop, an open loop, a false fire indication
99
What does the ADG supply power to?
3B Hydraulic pump
Pitch trim channel 2
ADG Bus/AC Essentials bus
Also, Flaps and slats at half speed on emergency power
100
When will the ADG deploy?
Weight off wheels and loss of all AC power (it also won’t deploy if the aircraft wasn’t the last source of power e.g. GPU)
101
What is the load limit of the ADG?
15KVA
102
How will the flaps/slats be affected if they are running off the ADG?
They will operate at half speed
103
Why doesn’t the APU have a CSD?
The APU runs at a constant speed so the level of power is constant. The IDG allows for changing engine speed
104
What are the components of the IDG?
The generator, Generator control unit, and Constant Speed Drive
105
What are the sources of electrical power?
APU Battery
Main Battery
IDG1
IDG2
APU gen
ADG
Ground Power
106
How many Amp Hours for each battery?
43 for the APU Battery 17 for the Main
107
What kind of ice protection does the ADG have?
Internally electrically heated
108
Where is the APU battery located?
The rear of the aircraft
109
Where is the main battery located?
Near the nose
110
Where are the TRU’s located?
In the nose
111
How many volts is the electrical system?
115VAC
28VDC
112
How is the constant speed drive cooled?
Air/Oil heat exchanger
113
When would a generator be tripped OFF by the generator control unit?
Over/Under Voltage
Over/Under Frequency
Generator and Bus Overcurrent
Generator phase sequence
114
Which TRU does the ADG power?
Essential TRU 1
115
What causes an IDG FAULT?
High Oil Temp or Low Oil Pressure (HOTLOP).
116
When will the IDG be automatically disconnected?
High oil temp or over torque.
117
If the ADG is deployed and during the flight power is re-established what do you have to do?
Stow the ADG handle and push the PWR XFER OVERRIDE button, but this is only for the essentials bus that you are doing this for.
118
What model of engine does the 700 and 900 have?
GE CF34-8C5B1 for the 700
GE CF34-8C5A1 for the 900
119
How many stages and blades for the N1 fan?
1 stage, 28 blades
120
How many stages in N2?
10
121
How many stages in the high pressure turbine?
2
122
How many stages in the low pressure turbine?
4
123
What is the primary purpose of the variable guide vanes?
To prevent a compressor stall
124
How are the variable guide vanes moved? (PRM pg 827)
High Pressure fuel from FMU is used to hydraulically move them
125
How is the operability valve moved? (PRM pg 827)
High pressure fuel and then hydraulically moved
126
Ignition A is powered by?
AC Essential Bus
127
Ignition B is powered by?
battery bus through a static inverter
128
What’s all on the Accessory Gearbox?
Engine lubrication pumps
FADEC alternator
Hydraulic pump (EDP 1 or EDP 2)
Engine fuel pump
Integrated drive AC generator (IDG)
Air turbine starter (ATS)
129
How are the thrust reversers operated?
Hydraulically
130
Where would a fire occur in the engine?
In the accessory section. in between the core and cowling
131
How long will the emergency lights be powered for?
10 minutes (PRM) / 20 minutes (FOM - Interior)
132
When will both channels of FADEC become active?
Both the in-control and standby channels will respond to an engine overspeed by commanding the shutoff valve in the fuel metering unit to close to return the engine to an onspeed condition.
133
When will the FADEC channels alternate?
Every second engine start at 7% N2
134
What does the Fuel Metering Unit do?
Controls fuel consumption using signals from the FADEC. The FMU also supplies the high-pressure fuel used to actuate the operability valve, and VG inlet guide vanes and compressor stator vanes
135
When will the FADEC alternator begin to power the FADEC channels?
50% N2, otherwise its the aircraft’s electrical system
136
Flex thrust can only be entered on the ground when the following conditions are met:
* Thrust levers at the IDLE or SHUTOFF detents
* WOW for at least 1 minute
* Assumed temperature is greater than actual OAT * Airspeed less than 65 KIAS
137
When is Flex thrust removed?
Flex thrust is removed when any of the following conditions occur.
* Any thrust lever is retarded to CLIMB
* Any thrust lever is advanced to APR
* Cowl anti-ice is selected ON
* Wing anti-ice is selected ON
138
When will the APU shut down? (PRM pg 770)
F- Fire
O - Over speed (>106%)
D - DC signal loss
E - ECU failure or loss
R - RPM loss
S - Slow to start
139
How long do you have to wait to do the fire test after turning on the Battery Master switch?
30 seconds
140
Why do we wait 2 minutes in between each APU start attempt?
to allow for cooling of starter and starter contactor and for APU fuel drainage
141
What’s on the APU accessory gearbox?
Speed sensor
Oil pump and lubrication module
Fuel control unit
High-pressure fuel pump
APU gen
142
What does APU SCV do?
The surge control valve is commanded to open when the APU is supplying electrical loads at flight altitudes above 17,000 feet. This function reduces APU surge potential when operating in an unloaded bleed air condition.
143
Is the APU starter motor AC or DC?
DC
144
At sea level, the starter disengages at...?
approximately 46% rpm, 60% at 37,000ft
145
How is the APU cooled?
An air/oil heat exchanger (ram air) (this is true for the CSD as well)
146
The APU ECU operates the bleed air based on...?
Altitude (ambient pressure) APU load Weight-On-Wheels (WOW) ECS system requirements
147
Where will the halon bottle discharge for an apu fire?
It will discharge in the titanium box the APU and accessories are housed in.
148
How many batteries are required to start the APU?
We need both, the APU batt powers the APU starter, the Main batt powers the APU ECU, they both need to be at least 22V
149
How many pressure controllers are there?
2, CPC 1 and CPC 2 (Had an instructor once say that manual was a 3rd controller but there’s nothing to substantiate this in the PRM)
150
How are the pressurization safety valves operated?
Pneumatically, spring loaded
151
What is the maximum altitude for emergency depressurization?
15,000
152
Maximum positive and negative differential pressure is limited to what?
8.6 PSID, -0.5 PSID
153
What is CPAM and what is its purpose?
There’s a microprocessor within the CPCP (cabin pressure control panel) that performs CPAM functions:
1. Controls the opening and closing speed of the ground valve during ground sequences to avoid any perturbation of the outflow valve
2. Provides the instruction to limit cabin altitude to 14,500 ± 500 feet
3. Controls the automatic dropdown of the passenger oxygen masks at 14,000 ± 300 foot
cabin altitude
154
When low pressure ground air is supplied what needs to be off?
The packs, otherwise the RECIRC fan can be damaged even if the fan is off
155
When will the pressure control fault light illuminate?
During failure of both cabin pressure controllers
156
What generates the caution messages for the ECS?
Both the active CPC and CPAM together generate the messages
**Can’t find this answer in the PRM but according to an instructor this is true**
157
When will the packs automatically turn off?
During engine start
158
What temperature is the aft cargo compartment regulated to?
60-80 degrees Fahrenheit
159
What is the normal differential cabin pressure?
+8.33psi
160
How many RECIRC fans are there?
2
161
When will the AVIONICS FAN caution message display?
When any avionics fan drops below 60% normal rpm
162
How many scavenge ejectors are there?
4, Eicas displays one, but there are two for each shown
163
Maximum refueling imbalance?
2,500lbs
164
How many fuel probes are there in each tank?
Six in each wing, three in the center tank, and one in each collector tank
165
How many magnetic level indicators are installed in each tank?
Two in each wing, one in the center
166
Takeoff is prohibited with engine fuel temperature (fuel feed) indications below...?
5°C (41°F)
167
Takeoff is prohibited with bulk fuel temperature indications below...? (Jet A)
When using Jet A type fuel with an ambient temp of -30* C or below, bulk temperature prior to flight must be verified to be above -29* C
168
Where does the fuel provided to the engines come from?
Collector tanks (located in the center tank)
169
What is the capacity of the collector tank?
50 gallons
170
How is the collector tank replenished?
Gravity-feed manifold that connects the collector tank to its associated wing tank by a scavenge
ejector.
171
Where does the APU get its fuel from?
Left collector tank
172
When is fuel carried in the center tank?
Extended range operations
173
When does the fuel tank pressure release valve open?
If the tank becomes over pressurized (greater than 5 psi)
174
What do NACA scoops do?
In flight:
provide ram air pressure to maintain positive pressure on fuel in the tanks
On Ground:
provide static ventilation and relieve build up of pressure during refueling caused by thermal expansion
175
How does an ejector operate?
Main and Scavenge Ejector
Motive Flow created by the high-pressure output of the engine-driven pumps.
Transfer Ejector
Motive Flow created within the engine fuel feed manifold
176
What is Motive Flow?
High-pressure flow through a Venturi-shaped nozzle which creates low pressure as the fluid is
ejected.
177
When does the XFLOW pump activate and how much does it overfill?
When there is a 200lb difference, and it also overfills by 50lbs
178
What do the boost pumps do?
Supply fuel to the system when a main ejector pressure is low.
179
What controls the operation of the fuel system?
Dual-channel fuel system computer
180
What does the FSC do?
Calculate fuel quantity of each tank
Fuel density
Fuel temperature in the right wing tank
Fuel temperature at each engine
Controls pumps and valves to keep system balanced
181
What provides information to the Fuel System Computer?
Fuel system and AHRS
182
How is fuel heated?
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger
183
When does the system automatically balance the tanks?
More than 200lbs
184
When are fuel levels in each wing balanced by gravity?
Manually used when the power fuel crossflow function does not correct a fuel imbalance during
Flight. Tanks are balanced during Coordinated and stable flight.
185
When does the FSC automatically transfer fuel from center tank to wing?
When a wing drops below 94% of its capacity, (also known as 93% ...ugh!)
186
What is the maximum fuel quantity per wing?
7,492 lbs
187
What is the maximum fuel capacity of the center tank?
4,610 lbs
188
What are fuel requirements to dispatch a flight?
Fly to destination
Fly to most distant alternate
Fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise
189
What are considerations for planned required fuel supply?
Wind and other weather forecast
Anticipated traffic delays
One instrument approach and possible missed approach at destination
Any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft
190
What is Emergency Fuel?
Less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining after landing at the alternate (2⁄3 of Reserve Fuel)
191
What is Min Fuel?
Having an amount of fuel that does not allow for undue delays in flight due to minimal amount. It
would result in less than 45 minutes after landing at the alternate. (2⁄3 of Reserve Fuel + 350)
192
Bulk Fuel limitation?
When using Jet A type fuel with an ambient temp of -30* C or below, bulk temperature prior to
flight must be verified to be above -29* C.
193
What is the approximate burn rate?
3,000 lbs per hour.
194
What are some other uses of fuel other than the obvious?
Lubrication, Move operabitly valves, move VG vanes, pump fuel from ejectors.
195
How do you calculate Bingo Fuel?
Fuel Remaining - Reserve AKA BARM + Safety margin
196
How do you calculate time remaining?
Bingo Fuel (round down to nearest 1000) / Fuel Flow (ppm)
197
How does the fuel SOV normally close?
Throttles to shut off position, Eng. Fire push switch light in emergencies
198
If the ADG deploys will ACMP 3B be powered if the switch is in the off position?
Yes, the emergency mode is automatic and independent of the ACMP 3b switch position
199
When do the B pumps turn on (if in auto)?
When the appropriate bus is powered The flaps are not at 0 degrees
At least 1 IDG is online
200
What are the major components of the hydraulic system?
Engine-Driven Pumps (EDP x2)
Alternating Current Motor Pumps (ACMP x4)
Hydraulic Shutoff Valves
Accumulators
Reservoir for each system (x3)
201
How are the pumps cooled?
Ram-air hydraulic fluid heat exchanger
202
What is the system pressured to?
3000 +/- 200 psi
203
What happens with a switch in AUTO mode?
Pumps will operate when:
- Respective busses are powered
- any generator is operating
- Flaps are not at 0
204
What happens with a fuel pump switch in ON? (MANUAL mode)
During flight:
- pumps will operate with the switch in ON position
- Respective bus is powered
- Any generator is operating
205
What does the accumulator do?
Satisfies the instant demand of the system and dampens pressure surges.
206
How is the hydraulic fluid cooled?
In flight:
- ram air directed across the heat exchanger cools the fluid for systems 1 and 2.
On the ground:
- an electric fan pulls in air from the ram air scoop for the heat exchanger.
System 3:
- Natural convection and radiation. No heat exchanger.
207
What is the purpose of the Hydraulic Shutoff Valve?
Interrupt the flow of fluid between the reservoir and the EDP.
208
What two ways close the HYD SOV?
Press applicable HYD SOV switch light (leak or over temp)
ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight
209
Which system has the largest reservoir?
System 3
210
What is the maximum normal hydraulic temperature?
Less than 96*
211
When does the temperature turn AMBER?
Greater than or equal to 96*
212
What is the normal reservoir fluid quantity?
45-85%
213
What do AMBER dashes in reservoirs mean?
Invalid Data
214
When will the Hydraulic pressure turn amber?
1800 psi
215
Which system provides pressure to the outboard brakes?
2
216
Which system provides pressure to the inboard brakes?
3
217
How many hydraulic reservoirs are there?
(Gotta look this up later, supposedly there are 5, 2 of which are for the brakes but I can’t find
anything in the PRM for it)
218
How does the gear emergency deploy?
219
When will the BTMS monitors go away?
On departure, after a 30 second time delay, EICAS indications of landing gear,
flaps and BTMS are removed from the screens if:
* Landing gear is up and locked
* The flaps are up, and
* BTMS indications are normal
220
How many times can you push the brakes after losing pressure?
6 times
221
What is break cooling time with a BTMS inoperative?
Refer to charts in POH 9.9.3, fuse plugs may require inspection.
222
What function does anti-skid provide?
Individual wheel anti-skid control
Touch down protection
Locked wheel protection
223
Which hydraulic system normally operates the landing gear? Backup?
3 and 2 respectively
224
What are the functions of the Multi-function spoilers?
Ground lift dumping, roll assist, and flight spoilers
225
When will ground spoilers / flight spoilers deploy?
226
If uncommanded displacement of an aileron PCU occurs what happens?
A bungee breakout switch associated with the runaway aileron system sends a signal to the spoiler stabilizer control unit
227
When ROLL DISC handle is pulled:
Pilot controls left aileron, Copilot controls right aileron
228
When PITCH DISC handle is pulled:
Pilot controls left elevator, Copilot controls right elevator
229
Selecting the ROLL SEL switchlight on the side with the unjammed aileron does what?
provides the flying pilot with the use of the spoileron function of the onside MFS
230
What is the priority for the Stab trim?
Pilot trim
Autopilot trim
Auto trim - this is for putting the flaps down so you don't go crazy
Mach trim
231
What holds the slats and flaps in place?
Brakes
232
What are the primary flight controls?
Aileron
Elevator
Rudder
Multi function spoilers
233
What are the secondary flight controls?
Slats / Flaps
Ground Spoilers
Aileron / Rudder Trim
Horizontal stabilator trim
Multi function spoilers
234
What position does the Emergency Flap Switch command Slats and Flaps to?
20 degree slats then 20 degree flaps
235
What is the weight limitation of the main door?
1000lbs or 4 passengers
236
What is the only door that shows up red when open?
Passenger door
237
How long is the CVR memory?
120 minutes
238
Which radio is dedicated to ACARS?
VHF 3
239
When will 1⁄2 bank automatically turn on?
31,600ft
240
Required Documents?
Airworthiness cert
Registration
FCC License
EFB
Normal Checklist
QRH/QRC (2)
Jumpseat briefing card
Speed book
Maintenance log and deferred maintenance stickers
241
Emergency Equipment
S - Smoke Hood
C - Crash Axe
O - Oxygen Masks/Smoke goggles (3 pairs)
F - Fire Extinguishers
F - Flashlights
G - Gloves (heat resistant, 2 pairs)
E - Escape rope
E - Escape hatch
P - Preservers (3)
242
Limitations on flex thrust
Anti-skid must be operative
PROHIBITED on contaminated runways
PROHIBITED if the airplane has been de-iced
PROHIBITED if wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use
PROHIBITED if warnings of windshear or downdrafts have been forecast
PROHIBITED with an engine that cannot achieve full-rated thrust
PROHIBITED when a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff
243
When is an alternate not required?
If weather is expected to be at or above 2000-3 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA at destination.
244
When holding, how can fuel efficiency be improved?
Slow down as soon as possible
Use longest legs as possible
Stay in clean configuration
Fly the ACARS calculated hold speed
245
When a non-normal situation is evident, what steps must be followed?
1 PF - Maintain Aircraft Control
2 Identify the Non-normal (Either pilot cancels the warning)
3 Accomplish Immediate Action Items (if applicable)
4 Captain Assigns PF
5 Complete the QRH Procedures
6 Analyze and Develop a Plan
246
What are the limitations on low time first officers (< 100 hours)
The Captain (unless an appropriately qualified check airman) will make all takeoffs (from ground roll initiation through cleanup), approaches (from 3000 feet AGL & below), and all landings when any one of the following conditions exist:
1. Runway is contaminated
2. braking action is less than “Good”
3. RVR is reported 4000 or less (3/4 mile or less)
4. crosswind component is greater than 15 knots or windshear
5. Operating at any Special Qualification Airport
6. Other circumstances as determined by the Captain
247
What are things that are required to have both pilots concur before performing?
(POH 6.1.5)
G - Generators
E - Engine fire push
T - Throttles
F - Fuel boost Pumps
A - All guarded switch lights
248
What is the minimum holding speed?
Flaps 0 + 30 knots
249
When can’t you perform a single engine taxi?
Single Engine Taxi is prohibited when ramps or taxiways are contaminated with snow, slush, or ice, or when snow or other freezing/frozen precipitation is present.
250
What is stabilized approach criteria?
1. 1,000 fpm or less descent rate by 1,000 ft. AFE (IMC or VMC) unless a higher descent rate is required due to approach angle. This higher descent rate must be pre-briefed in order to allow its use.
2. On a proper flight path (visual or electronic) with only small changes in pitch and heading required to maintain that path.
3. At a speed no less than VREF and not greater than VREF + 10 knots allowing for transitory conditions, with engines spooled up.
4. In trim.
5. In an approved landing configuration.
251
What are the Engine Failure procedures?
Simple - No turns below 1,000’ AFE
Simple special - Turn at a specified altitude below 1,000’ AFE Complex - Special instructions in company documents
252
How many degrees of pitch/bank will result in a tail or wingtip strike?
11
253
When must the flight director be used?
PSA Airlines requires the use, at a minimum, of a single flight director or the use of a single flight director and a coupled autopilot for CAT I ILS approaches when visibility is less than 3/4 mile or 4000 RVR.
254
When is a new release or TLR REQUIRED?
1. QNH less than .10
2. Temp. warmer for max thrust T/O (temp is warmer than the numbers listed on the TLR)
3. MEL/CDL changes
4. Crew member changes
5. Fuel/WX/Alternate changes
255
NEWDATES – crew member brief FOM 5.3.5
N-names
E-emergency procedures
W-weather
D-door entry procedure
A-aircraft specifics (MELs)
T-turbulence considerations
E-estimated flight time
S-special considerations
256
TEST – FA emergency brief FOM 7.5.4
T-type of emergency
E-estimated time available
S-signal for brace/evacuation
T-take special instructions
257
CA only T/O and Landing FOM 4.13.4
1. A low time FO is onboard and any of the following conditions exist:
* Runway is contaminated
* crosswind component is greater than 15 knots
* RVR is reported 4000 or less
* Operating at an airport with the prevailing visibility 3/4 mile or less
* braking action is less than “Good” (mu <40)
* Any reported windshear in the airport vicinity
* Operating at any Special Qualification Airport
* Other circumstances as determined by the Captain such as operation with an engine inoperative,
mechanical malfunction or similar potential hazardous situation.
2. Landing on runways 5000ft or less. FOM 5.11.6
3. When T/O visibility is 1600RVR (1/4SM) or less, the Captain must fly thru clean up. FOM 5.8.1
4. Cabin ALT message or Emergency Descent. POH 6.3.2
5. Double Engine Failure. POH 6.3.3
258
Balanced Field Length FOM 7.8.2
The Balanced Field Length is the all engines acceleration distance to engine failure speed, continuing the takeoff with one engine, and achieving a height of 35 feet by the end of the runway or stopping.
259
Max holding speeds FOM 5.8.12
6000 and less – 200kts 1 min legs
6001-14000 – 230kts 1 min legs
14001+ - 265kts 1.5 min legs
210kts where depicted
Recommended holding speed is ACARS calculated speed not below Vref for Flaps 0 + 30kts
260
CA Evacuation responsibilities FOM 7.19.3
* Confirm A/C is secure
* Direct FO to exit the A/C
* Remove HALON from flight deck
* Proceed to cabin to assist the Flight Attendant(s)
* Exit A/C and assist the First Officer with passenger assembly
261
When to declare an emergency FOM 7.4.2
Declare an emergency when in a distress condition and/or
* A flight cannot definitely establish its position
* Aircraft component failure jeopardizes flight safety
* An aircraft is endangered by fire/smoke
* In-flight medical emergency requiring a diversion
* Any contingency jeopardizing flight safety
262
Climb gradients
Assuming a critical engine fails at V1:
1st Segment – Lift off to Gear up
2nd Segment – Gear up to 1st level off (1000ft AFE); climb gradient 2.4% ←most restrictive gradient
3rd Segment – 1st level off to Flaps up; climb gradient 1.2%
4th Segment – Flaps up to 1st power reduction; climb gradient 1.2%
VR – Speed that will allow the airplane to reach V2 by 35ft of the departure end of the runway.
V2 – The speed that will meet the 2nd segment climb gradient, (which is the most restrictive gradient of 2.4%)
VT – The speed that will meet the remaining climb gradients of 1.2%
