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PSA CRJ700/900 KV > Captains Mock KV > Flashcards

Captains Mock KV Flashcards

1
Q

5 Items needed on the Realease

A
  1. Tail Number
  2. Flight Number
  3. Airports involved
  4. IFR
  5. T/O Fuel
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2
Q

Captains Signature on Release is confirming?

A
  1. Recency Experience
  2. Qualify for special use airports
  3. Qualify for special use navigation
  4. Comply up to date
  5. Rested and healthy
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3
Q

What is PYLD

A

(PAX booked x Seasonal wt) + (1.5 bags/pax x checked bag weight)

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4
Q

What is PAYLD

A

Planned max payload based on MTOW - (BOW+FOB)

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5
Q

RLD

A

Required Landing Distance - Max effort number x 1.67

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6
Q

What is RLD used for

A

Used for dispatch purposes only

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7
Q

OLD

A

Operational Landing Distance - Average pilot with all misc. factors added + 15% safety factor

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8
Q

When is an alternate required

A

Always. Unless 1,2,3

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9
Q

Exemption 17347

A

Allows us to dispatch when conditional statements indicate Wx will be below minimums

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10
Q

How does 17347 work

A

Conditional Statement at:
Destination: 1/2 vis
1st Alternate: 1/2 Vis and Ceiling
2nd Alternate: At or above vis and ceiling

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11
Q

What is Marginal

A

Or - And - OR

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12
Q

High Mins Captain

A

Must increase all minimums by 100’ and 1/2 Mile

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13
Q

Exemption 17203

A

For high mins Captain. IF:
Crew CAT II qualified
Precision Approach coupled until DH or MSAP
CAT I will not be initiated when:
RVR 4000 “AND” X-Wind > 15kts “AND” Braking action less than good

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14
Q

Low Time FO

A

CA T/O to 3000’ and Landing when:
1. Runway Contaminated
2. RVR 4000 or less
3. Breaking action < Good
4. X-Wind > 15 kts
5. Special Qual airports
6. Windshear
7. Any other reason determined by Captain

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15
Q

Emer Lights

A

Powered by Nicad batteries - 10 Minute charge

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16
Q

When do Emer Lights come on

A

Switch in “ARM”: activates lighting when power lost to either AC or DC ESS Bus

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17
Q

Pax Door Limit

A

1000lb or 4 people

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18
Q

What is on Accessory Gearbox

A
  1. Engine Lubrication Pump
  2. FADEC alternator
  3. Hydraulic Pump
  4. Fuel Pump
  5. IDG
  6. Air Turbine Starter
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19
Q

APR

A

Automatically increases output on good engine when 1 engine fails in TOGA detent. Limit 10 minutes use

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20
Q

High Power Schedule

A

Guarded Switchlight: Activates MCT in Climb and APR in TOGA

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21
Q

ADG Min Speed

A

135kts

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22
Q

ADG Powers

A

AC ESS Bus
Hyd Pump 3B
Slats/Flaps 1/2 Speed
Stab Trim Channel 2

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23
Q

ADG Auto Deploys When

A

AC Bus 1 AND AC Bus 2 unpowered
WOW
An AC Gen was the last source of power

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24
Q

Scavenge Ejectors

A

Move Fuel from wings to collector tanks

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25
Q

Main Ejectors

A

Move fuel from collector tanks to engines

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26
Q

Transfer Ejectors

A

Move Fuel from center tank to wing tanks

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27
Q

Hyd Pump Switches in auto when is pump powered

A

When respective bus is powered
The generator is running
Flaps out of zero

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28
Q

Hydraulic accumulator for 3A purpose

A

Prevents surging and provides extra pressure when needed

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29
Q

Hydraulic cooling

A

System 1 & 2 use air/Hyd Oil heat exchanger using ram air in flight. On ground a fan pulls air across the heat exchanger.
System 3 uses natural convection

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30
Q

Anti Skid operational when

A

Wheel speed >=35kts or WOW after 5 seconds

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31
Q

TOO LOW GEAR

A

RA<500’ and speed <190kts

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32
Q

CA Cockpit Check

A
  1. Airworthiness
  2. Aircraft Registration
  3. FCC Operating License
  4. EFB’s - 2
  5. 2 Normal Checklists
  6. QRH
  7. QRC’s - 2
  8. Jumpseat Briefing Card
  9. Speed Book
  10. Yellow Manual Stowage Bag
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33
Q

Manual Stowage Bag

A
  1. Heat Resistant Gloves
  2. Spare Headset
  3. Spare EFB Mount
  4. Walk Around Flashlight
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34
Q

Cockpit Emergency Equipment

A
  1. Crash Axe
  2. Fire Extinguisher
  3. 2 Flash Lights
  4. Escape Rope
  5. PBE
  6. 3 O2 Masks
  7. 3 Flotation devices
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35
Q

Cold Soaked Airplane

A

-30C or below for 8 hours

Motor for 60 seconds and verify fan rotation
Thrust reversers deploy and stow until cycles are 2 seconds or less

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36
Q

Crew Coordination During Emergency

A
  1. PF Maintain Aircraft Control
  2. Identify Non-Normal
  3. Accomplish Immediate Action Items
  4. Captain Assigns PF
  5. Complete the QRH Procedures
  6. Analyze and develop a plan

Notify:
FA
Dispatch
If time permits Pax

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37
Q

Unplanned Emergency Signal

A

6 Hi chimes - PED or Smoking

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38
Q

Planned Emergency Signal

A

3 Hi/Lo Chimes - Chime switchlight

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39
Q

What are the lower than standard T/O minimums for PSA?

A

500/500/500
10-9a page for a given runway per airport

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40
Q

What are the seasonal passenger weights and bags?

A

198lbs summer, 203lbs winter, 34lbs bags

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41
Q

What are derived weather minimums?

A

400-1 for a single navaid, 200-1/2 for multiple navaids (or the same identifier) added to the most conservative approach

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42
Q

What is exemption 17347?

A

Main body of the forecast must be legal weather. TAF has conditional codes (PROB40, TEMPO)
Destination: conditional vis not less than 1⁄2 required for approach
1st Alternate: conditional vis and ceiling not less than 1⁄2 derived mins
2nd Alternate: main body and conditional statement must meet derived alternate
minimums

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43
Q

What is the marginal rule?

A

If the ceiling OR visibility is at the published minimums for the destination AND the ceiling OR visibility is at the derived minimums for the alternate, then a second alternate is required

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44
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When the visibility is less than what is required to perform a CAT 1 approach at the departure airport

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45
Q

How far away can the takeoff alternate be?

A

Not more than 1 hour with one engine inoperative in still air, in normal cruise. Maximum of 300 miles.

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46
Q

How much fuel do we need to have to dispatch?

A

To the destination, the furthest alternate, then 45 min at cruise altitude

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47
Q

What’s the lowest visibility an aircraft can be dispatched if there is a CAT II approach?

A

1/4sm visibility

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48
Q

How close can an aircraft get to a thunderstorm during an approach?

A

3 miles

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49
Q
A
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50
Q

What are the positive and negative load factors with flaps retracted?

A

-1.0 to +2.5 G

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51
Q

What are the positive and negative load factors with flaps extended?

A

0 to +2.0 G

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52
Q

When does SMCGS go into effect?

A

1200 RVR

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53
Q

How many hours of rest do pilots need?

A

10 hours including 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity

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54
Q

What’s the maximum amount of Dry Ice PSA can carry?

A

275lbs

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55
Q

Reasons to reject a takeoff above 80kts?

A

Engine Failure
Fire Warning
Aircraft is considered unsafe or unable to fly
Loss of directional control

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56
Q

Reasons to reject a takeoff below 80kts?

A

Anything

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57
Q

ALD (Actual landing distance) vs OLD (Operational Landing distance) vs RLD (Runway landing distance? (FMB 20-01)

A

● ALD is used for dispatch and emergency. This is the test pilot number with full brakes applied without thrust reversers.
● RLD is ALD x 1.67, this adds a safety factor to ALD (ALD is 60% of RLD)
● RLD needs an extra 15% increase for a wet runway
● OLD is advisory performance data not required by regulation, thrust reversers and
spoilers are assumed operational, a 15% safety margin is also recommended to be added

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58
Q

When must the captain Takeoff and Land? (FOM 10.4.2)

A

Equal or less than 1600 RVR or 1⁄4 vis. Controls will be transferred at completion of after take off checklist.
If runway is < 5000 feet

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59
Q

What 5 items are required for a Dispatch release to be valid?

A

Aircraft registration number
Flight Number
Departure, destination, and any alternates
Type operation (IFR)
Minimum fuel supply (TO Fuel)

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60
Q

What is the minimum fuel required for an aircraft to take the runway?

A

T/O Fuel

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61
Q

What is the minimum fuel needed at the OUT time (pushback)?

A

T/O fuel + Taxi

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62
Q

How is Burn fuel Calculated?

A

Getting to your destination, doing an approach

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63
Q

How is reserve fuel Calculated?

A

45minutes at FL250 at long range cruise speed

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64
Q

Minimum reserve?

A

2,100lbs for 700, 2,200lbs for 900

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65
Q

How is alternate fuel Calculated

A

Minimum fuel from destination to furthest alternate is 1,500 lbs. — 0-50 miles at 10,000 ft.
— 51-100 miles at 15,000 ft.
— 101-150 miles at 20,000 ft.
— 151 miles or greater at 25,000 ft

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66
Q

How is Taxi fuel Calculated?

A

19lbs per minute with two engines operating

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67
Q

What does contingency fuel account for?

A

Anticipated traffic delays.
Extra Holding fuel
Possible missed approach at destination.
Any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft.

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68
Q

What’s the minimum contingency fuel required for the CRJ700? 900?

A

937 and 1082 (which includes 170 or 222 for a missed approach respectively)

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69
Q

Historical fuel of the 99th percentile is added for…?

A

Thunderstorms forecast plus or minus 1 hour of the ETA, except 30% probability Visibility 1 mile or less
Main runway closure

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70
Q

Minimum Tanker fuel?

A

330lbs for 700&900 (incl 7 min of taxi) (can be added for air or ground delays or

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71
Q

What is the maximum allowable fuel variance?

A

Plus or minus 500lbs

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72
Q

What is PYLD?

A

(Pax booked x Seasonal weight) + (1.5 bags per passenger X 30lbs)

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73
Q

What is PAYLD?

A

Max payload = MTOW – (BOW+FOB)

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74
Q

How much difference is allowed for pressure (altimeter setting) on the flight release before an update is required?

A

-0.1 in Hg

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75
Q

When does a new flight release need to be made?

A

When there is a discrepancy of 100nm, 4,000ft or when QNH is more than -0.1in from what is on the original release

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76
Q

How do you calculate fuel needed for ground delays? Air delays?

A

Ground: Tanker + Taxi Air: Tanker + Contingency

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77
Q

EICAS
What is the suggested order of troubleshooting?

A

EL - Electrics
HY - Hydraulics
P - Pneumatics
O - Other

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78
Q

When will mach show up on the PFD?

A

.45 Mach or 31,600ft

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79
Q

If ED1 fails ED2 will show what page?

A

Primary

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80
Q

What is the purpose of the DCU?

A

The data collector unit collects information for showing on EICAS displays

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81
Q

What is the purpose of the LDU?

A

The lamp driver unit illuminates various lamps around the cockpit

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82
Q

What are the two subsets of the fire protection system

A

Detection and Extinguishing

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83
Q

If fire has been detected in the cargo compartment, what happens?

A

The FIREX automatically shuts down the cargo bar heater and closes both intake and exhaust shutoff valves in the cargo bay

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84
Q

How is the Lavatory protected from fire?

A

Self-contained detector and automatic extinguisher

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85
Q

Which area of protection has only a single loop fire detector?

A

MLG (Main landing gear)

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86
Q

What kind of fire protection does the gear bay have?

A

Only detection

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87
Q

If an APU fire occurs in flight, will the APU shut down automatically?

A

Yes, but the fire bottle must be discharged manually

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88
Q

How many smoke detectors in the forward cargo compartment? Aft?

A

Three, Two

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89
Q

How many halon bottles are for both the forward and aft compartments?

A

2

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90
Q

Will there be any indication that the lavatory fire bottle has been discharged on the flight deck?

A

No

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91
Q

Fire detection is powered by what bus?

A

Battery bus

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92
Q

Fire protection is powered by what bus?

A

The emergency bus

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93
Q

What happens when the “ENG FIRE PUSH” button is pushed?

A

The bottles squibs are armed, both BOTTLE 1 and BOTTLE 2 ARMED
PUSH TO DISCH switch lights illuminate
The fuel feed shutoff valve closes
Bleed air shutoff valve closes
Hydraulic shutoff valve closes
Engine-driven generator is tripped off

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94
Q

What happens when the “APU FIRE PUSH” switch light is pressed?

A

APU bottle squibs armed
Bottle armed push to DISCH light APU fuel feed SOV closes
Fuel solenoid valve closes
LCV Closes
APU gen trips offline

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95
Q

What happens if the APU detects and annunciates a fire?

A

In flight:
APU automatically shuts down, fire bottles are manually discharged
On Ground:
APU automatically shuts down, fire bottles automatically discharge

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96
Q

What powers the Fire Protection System when BATT Master switch is ON. (QRH)

A

DC Battery Bus

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97
Q

What is the primary bus that powers the Fire Protection System?

A

DC Emergency Bus

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98
Q

Possible problems with a loop system?

A

A Shorted loop, an open loop, a false fire indication

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99
Q

What does the ADG supply power to?

A

3B Hydraulic pump
Pitch trim channel 2
ADG Bus/AC Essentials bus
Also, Flaps and slats at half speed on emergency power

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100
Q

When will the ADG deploy?

A

Weight off wheels and loss of all AC power (it also won’t deploy if the aircraft wasn’t the last source of power e.g. GPU)

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101
Q

What is the load limit of the ADG?

A

15KVA

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102
Q

How will the flaps/slats be affected if they are running off the ADG?

A

They will operate at half speed

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103
Q

Why doesn’t the APU have a CSD?

A

The APU runs at a constant speed so the level of power is constant. The IDG allows for changing engine speed

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104
Q

What are the components of the IDG?

A

The generator, Generator control unit, and Constant Speed Drive

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105
Q

What are the sources of electrical power?

A

APU Battery
Main Battery
IDG1
IDG2
APU gen
ADG
Ground Power

106
Q

How many Amp Hours for each battery?

A

43 for the APU Battery 17 for the Main

107
Q

What kind of ice protection does the ADG have?

A

Internally electrically heated

108
Q

Where is the APU battery located?

A

The rear of the aircraft

109
Q

Where is the main battery located?

A

Near the nose

110
Q

Where are the TRU’s located?

A

In the nose

111
Q

How many volts is the electrical system?

A

115VAC
28VDC

112
Q

How is the constant speed drive cooled?

A

Air/Oil heat exchanger

113
Q

When would a generator be tripped OFF by the generator control unit?

A

Over/Under Voltage
Over/Under Frequency
Generator and Bus Overcurrent
Generator phase sequence

114
Q

Which TRU does the ADG power?

A

Essential TRU 1

115
Q

What causes an IDG FAULT?

A

High Oil Temp or Low Oil Pressure (HOTLOP).

116
Q

When will the IDG be automatically disconnected?

A

High oil temp or over torque.

117
Q

If the ADG is deployed and during the flight power is re-established what do you have to do?

A

Stow the ADG handle and push the PWR XFER OVERRIDE button, but this is only for the essentials bus that you are doing this for.

118
Q

What model of engine does the 700 and 900 have?

A

GE CF34-8C5B1 for the 700
GE CF34-8C5A1 for the 900

119
Q

How many stages and blades for the N1 fan?

A

1 stage, 28 blades

120
Q

How many stages in N2?

A

10

121
Q

How many stages in the high pressure turbine?

A

2

122
Q

How many stages in the low pressure turbine?

A

4

123
Q

What is the primary purpose of the variable guide vanes?

A

To prevent a compressor stall

124
Q

How are the variable guide vanes moved? (PRM pg 827)

A

High Pressure fuel from FMU is used to hydraulically move them

125
Q

How is the operability valve moved? (PRM pg 827)

A

High pressure fuel and then hydraulically moved

126
Q

Ignition A is powered by?

A

AC Essential Bus

127
Q

Ignition B is powered by?

A

battery bus through a static inverter

128
Q

What’s all on the Accessory Gearbox?

A

Engine lubrication pumps
FADEC alternator
Hydraulic pump (EDP 1 or EDP 2)
Engine fuel pump
Integrated drive AC generator (IDG)
Air turbine starter (ATS)

129
Q

How are the thrust reversers operated?

A

Hydraulically

130
Q

Where would a fire occur in the engine?

A

In the accessory section. in between the core and cowling

131
Q

How long will the emergency lights be powered for?

A

10 minutes (PRM) / 20 minutes (FOM - Interior)

132
Q

When will both channels of FADEC become active?

A

Both the in-control and standby channels will respond to an engine overspeed by commanding the shutoff valve in the fuel metering unit to close to return the engine to an onspeed condition.

133
Q

When will the FADEC channels alternate?

A

Every second engine start at 7% N2

134
Q

What does the Fuel Metering Unit do?

A

Controls fuel consumption using signals from the FADEC. The FMU also supplies the high-pressure fuel used to actuate the operability valve, and VG inlet guide vanes and compressor stator vanes

135
Q

When will the FADEC alternator begin to power the FADEC channels?

A

50% N2, otherwise its the aircraft’s electrical system

136
Q

Flex thrust can only be entered on the ground when the following conditions are met:

A
  • Thrust levers at the IDLE or SHUTOFF detents
  • WOW for at least 1 minute
  • Assumed temperature is greater than actual OAT * Airspeed less than 65 KIAS
137
Q

When is Flex thrust removed?

A

Flex thrust is removed when any of the following conditions occur.
* Any thrust lever is retarded to CLIMB
* Any thrust lever is advanced to APR
* Cowl anti-ice is selected ON
* Wing anti-ice is selected ON

138
Q

When will the APU shut down? (PRM pg 770)

A

F- Fire
O - Over speed (>106%)
D - DC signal loss
E - ECU failure or loss
R - RPM loss
S - Slow to start

139
Q

How long do you have to wait to do the fire test after turning on the Battery Master switch?

A

30 seconds

140
Q

Why do we wait 2 minutes in between each APU start attempt?

A

to allow for cooling of starter and starter contactor and for APU fuel drainage

141
Q

What’s on the APU accessory gearbox?

A

Speed sensor
Oil pump and lubrication module
Fuel control unit and high-pressure fuel pump APU gen

142
Q

What does APU SCV do?

A

The surge control valve is commanded to open when the APU is supplying electrical loads at flight altitudes above 17,000 feet. This function reduces APU surge potential when operating in an unloaded bleed air condition.

143
Q

Is the APU starter motor AC or DC?

A

DC

144
Q

At sea level, the starter disengages at…?

A

approximately 46% rpm, 60% at 37,000ft

145
Q

How is the APU cooled?

A

An air/oil heat exchanger (ram air) (this is true for the CSD as well)

146
Q

The APU ECU operates the bleed air based on…?

A

Altitude (ambient pressure) APU load Weight-On-Wheels (WOW) ECS system requirements

147
Q

Where will the halon bottle discharge for an apu fire?

A

It will discharge in the titanium box the APU and accessories are housed in.

148
Q

How many batteries are required to start the APU?

A

We need both, the APU batt powers the APU starter, the Main batt powers the APU ECU, they both need to be at least 22V

149
Q

How many pressure controllers are there?

A

2, CPC 1 and CPC 2 (Had an instructor once say that manual was a 3rd controller but there’s nothing to substantiate this in the PRM)

150
Q

How are the pressurization safety valves operated?

A

Pneumatically, spring loaded

151
Q

What is the maximum altitude for emergency depressurization?

A

15,000

152
Q

Maximum positive and negative differential pressure is limited to what?

A

8.6 PSID, -0.5 PSID

153
Q

What is CPAM and what is its purpose?

A

There’s a microprocessor within the CPCP (cabin pressure control panel) that performs CPAM functions:
1. Controls the opening and closing speed of the ground valve during ground sequences to avoid any perturbation of the outflow valve
2. Provides the instruction to limit cabin altitude to 14,500 ± 500 feet
3. Controls the automatic dropdown of the passenger oxygen masks at 14,000 ± 300 foot
cabin altitude

154
Q

When low pressure ground air is supplied what needs to be off?

A

The packs, otherwise the RECIRC fan can be damaged even if the fan is off

155
Q

When will the pressure control fault light illuminate?

A

During failure of both cabin pressure controllers

156
Q

What generates the caution messages for the ECS?

A

Both the active CPC and CPAM together generate the messages
Can’t find this answer in the PRM but according to an instructor this is true

157
Q

When will the packs automatically turn off?

A

During engine start

158
Q

What temperature is the aft cargo compartment regulated to?

A

60-80 degrees Fahrenheit

159
Q

What is the normal differential cabin pressure?

A

+8.33psi

160
Q

How many RECIRC fans are there?

A

2

161
Q

When will the AVIONICS FAN caution message display?

A

When any avionics fan drops below 60% normal rpm

162
Q

How many scavenge ejectors are there?

A

4, Eicas displays one, but there are two for each shown

163
Q

Maximum refueling imbalance?

A

2,500lbs

164
Q

How many fuel probes are there in each tank?

A

Six in each wing, three in the center tank, and one in each collector tank

165
Q

How many magnetic level indicators are installed in each tank?

A

Two in each wing, one in the center

166
Q

Takeoff is prohibited with engine fuel temperature (fuel feed) indications below…?

A

5°C (41°F)

167
Q

Takeoff is prohibited with bulk fuel temperature indications below…? (Jet A)

A

When using Jet A type fuel with an ambient temp of -30* C or below, bulk temperature prior to flight must be verified to be above -29* C

168
Q

Where does the fuel provided to the engines come from?

A

Collector tanks (located in the center tank)

169
Q

What is the capacity of the collector tank?

A

50 gallons

170
Q

How is the collector tank replenished?

A

Gravity-feed manifold that connects the collector tank to its associated wing tank by a scavenge
ejector.

171
Q

Where does the APU get its fuel from?

A

Left collector tank

172
Q

When is fuel carried in the center tank?

A

Extended range operations

173
Q

When does the fuel tank pressure release valve open?

A

If the tank becomes over pressurized (greater than 5 psi)

174
Q

What do NACA scoops do?

A

In flight:
expansion.
provide ram air pressure to maintain positive pressure on fuel in the tanks
On Ground:
provide static ventilation and relieve build up of pressure caused by refueling of thermal

175
Q

How does an ejector operate?

A

Main and Scavenge Ejector
Motive Flow created by the high-pressure output of the engine-driven pumps.
Transfer Ejector
Motive Flow created within the engine fuel feed manifold

176
Q

What is Motive Flow?

A

High-pressure flow through a Venturi-shaped nozzle which creates low pressure as the fluid is
ejected.

177
Q

When does the XFLOW pump activate and how much does it overfill?

A

When there is a 200lb difference, and it also overfills by 50lbs

178
Q

What do the boost pumps do?

A

Supply fuel to the system when a main ejector pressure is low.

179
Q

What controls the operation of the fuel system?

A

Dual-channel fuel system computer

180
Q

What does the FSC do?

A

Calculate fuel quantity of each tank
Fuel density
Fuel temperature in the right wing tank
Fuel temperature at each engine
Controls pumps and valves to keep system balanced

181
Q

What provides information to the Fuel System Computer?

A

Fuel system and AHRS

182
Q

How is fuel heated?

A

Fuel/Oil heat exchanger

183
Q

When does the system automatically balance the tanks?

A

More than 200lbs

184
Q

When are fuel levels in each wing balanced by gravity?

A

Manually used when the power fuel crossflow function does not correct a fuel imbalance during
Flight. Tanks are balanced during Coordinated and stable flight.

185
Q

When does the FSC automatically transfer fuel from center tank to wing?

A

When a wing drops below 94% of its capacity, (also known as 93% …ugh!)

186
Q

What is the maximum fuel quantity per wing?

A

7,492 lbs

187
Q

What is the maximum fuel capacity of the center tank?

A

4,610 lbs

188
Q

What are fuel requirements to dispatch a flight?

A

Fly to destination
Fly to most distant alternate
Fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise

189
Q

What are considerations for planned required fuel supply?

A

Wind and other weather forecast
Anticipated traffic delays
One instrument approach and possible missed approach at destination
Any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft

190
Q

What is Emergency Fuel?

A

Less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining after landing at the alternate (2⁄3 of Reserve Fuel)

191
Q

What is Min Fuel?

A

Having an amount of fuel that does not allow for undue delays in flight due to minimal amount. It
would result in less than 45 minutes after landing at the alternate. (2⁄3 of Reserve Fuel + 350)

192
Q

Bulk Fuel limitation?

A

When using Jet A type fuel with an ambient temp of -30* C or below, bulk temperature prior to
flight must be verified to be above -29* C.

193
Q

What is the approximate burn rate?

A

3,000 lbs per hour.

194
Q

What are some other uses of fuel other than the obvious?

A

Lubrication, Move operabitly valves, move VG vanes, pump fuel from ejectors.

195
Q

How do you calculate Bingo Fuel?

A

Fuel Remaining - Reserve AKA BARM + Safety margin

196
Q

How do you calculate time remaining?

A

Bingo Fuel (round down to nearest 1000) / Fuel Flow (ppm)

197
Q

How does the fuel SOV normally close?

A

Throttles to shut off position, Eng. Fire push switch light in emergencies

198
Q

If the ADG deploys will ACMP 3B be powered if the switch is in the off position?

A

Yes, the emergency mode is automatic and independent of the ACMP 3b switch position

199
Q

When do the B pumps turn on (if in auto)?

A

When the appropriate bus is powered The flaps are not at 0 degrees
At least 1 IDG is online

200
Q

What are the major components of the hydraulic system?

A

Engine-Driven Pumps (EDP x2)
Alternating Current Motor Pumps (ACMP x4)
Hydraulic Shutoff Valves
Accumulators
Reservoir for each system (x3)

201
Q

How are the pumps cooled?

A

Ram-air hydraulic fluid heat exchanger

202
Q

What is the system pressured to?

A

3000 +/- 200 psi

203
Q

What happens with a switch in AUTO mode?

A

Pumps will operate when:
- Respective busses are powered
- any generator is operating
- Flaps are not at 0

204
Q

What happens with a switch in ON? (MANUAL mode)

A

During flight:
- pumps will operate with the switch in ON position
- Respective bus is powered
- Any generator is operating

205
Q

What does the accumulator do?

A

Satisfies the instant demand of the system and dampens pressure surges.

206
Q

How is the hydraulic fluid cooled?

A

In flight:
- ram air directed across the heat exchanger cools the fluid for systems 1 and 2.

On the ground:
- an electric fan pulls in air from the ram air scoop for the heat exchanger.

System 3:
- Natural convection and radiation. No heat exchanger.

207
Q

What is the purpose of the Hydraulic Shutoff Valve?

A

Interrupt the flow of fluid between the reservoir and the EDP.

208
Q

What two ways close the HYD SOV?

A

Press applicable HYD SOV switch light (leak or over temp)
ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight

209
Q

Which system has the largest reservoir?

A

System 3

210
Q

What is the maximum normal temperature?

A

Less than 96*

211
Q

When does the temperature turn AMBER?

A

Greater than or equal to 96*

212
Q

What is the normal reservoir fluid quantity?

A

45-85%

213
Q

What do AMBER dashes in reservoirs mean?

A

Invalid Data

214
Q

When will the Hydraulic pressure turn amber?

A

1800 psi

215
Q

Which system provides pressure to the outboard brakes?

A

2

216
Q

Which system provides pressure to the inboard brakes?

A

3

217
Q

How many hydraulic reservoirs are there?

A

(Gotta look this up later, supposedly there are 5, 2 of which are for the brakes but I can’t find
anything in the PRM for it)

218
Q

How does the gear emergency deploy?

A
219
Q

When will the BTMS monitors go away?

A

On departure, after a 30 second time delay, EICAS indications of landing gear,
flaps and BTMS are removed from the screens if:
* Landing gear is up and locked
* The flaps are up, and
* BTMS indications are normal

220
Q

How many times can you push the brakes after losing pressure?

A

6 times

221
Q

What is break cooling time with a BTMS inoperative?

A

Refer to charts in POH 9.9.3, fuse plugs may require inspection.

222
Q

What function does anti-skid provide?

A

Individual wheel anti-skid control Touch down protection
Locked wheel protection

223
Q

Which hydraulic system normally operates the landing gear? Backup?

A

3 and 2 respectively

224
Q

What are the functions of the Multi-function spoilers?

A

Ground lift dumping, roll assist, and flight spoilers

225
Q

When will ground spoilers / flight spoilers deploy?

A
226
Q

If uncommanded displacement of an aileron PCU occurs what happens?

A

A bungee breakout switch associated with the runaway aileron system sends a signal to the spoiler stabilizer control unit

227
Q

When ROLL DISC handle is pulled:

A

Pilot controls left aileron, Copilot controls right aileron

228
Q

When PITCH DISC handle is pulled:

A

Pilot controls left elevator, Copilot controls right elevator

229
Q

Selecting the ROLL SEL switchlight on the side with the unjammed aileron does what?

A

provides the flying pilot with the use of the spoileron function of the onside MFS

230
Q

What is the priority for the Stab trim?

A

Pilot trim
Autopilot trim
Auto trim - this is for putting the flaps down so you don’t go crazy
Mach trim

231
Q

What holds the slats and flaps in place?

A

Brakes

232
Q

What are the primary flight controls?

A

Aileron
Elevator
Rudder
Multi function spoilers

233
Q

What are the secondary flight controls?

A

Slats / Flaps
Ground Spoilers
Aileron / Rudder Trim
Horizontal stabilator trim
Multi function spoilers

234
Q

What position does the Emergency Flap Switch command Slats and Flaps to?

A

20 degree slats then 20 degree flaps

235
Q

What is the weight limitation of the main door?

A

1000lbs or 4 passengers

236
Q

What is the only door that shows up red when open?

A

Passenger door

237
Q

How long is the CVR memory?

A

120 minutes

238
Q

Which radio is dedicated to ACARS?

A

VHF 3

239
Q

When will 1⁄2 bank automatically turn on?

A

31,600ft

240
Q

Required Documents?

A

Airworthiness cert
Registration
FCC License
EFB
Normal Checklist
QRH/QRC (2)
Jumpseat briefing card
Speed book
Maintenance log and deferred maintenance stickers

241
Q

Emergency Equipment

A

S - Smoke Hood
C - Crash Axe
O - Oxygen Masks/Smoke goggles (3 pairs)
F - Fire Extinguishers
F - Flashlights
G - Gloves (heat resistant, 2 pairs)
E - Escape rope
E - Escape hatch
P - Preservers (3)

242
Q

Limitations on flex thrust

A

Anti-skid must be operative
PROHIBITED on contaminated runways
PROHIBITED if the airplane has been de-iced
PROHIBITED if wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use
PROHIBITED if warnings of windshear or downdrafts have been forecast
PROHIBITED with an engine that cannot achieve full-rated thrust
PROHIBITED when a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff

243
Q

When is an alternate not required?

A

If weather is expected to be at or above 2000-3 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA at destination.

244
Q

When holding, how can fuel efficiency be improved?

A

Slow down as soon as possible
Use longest legs as possible
Stay in clean configuration
Fly the ACARS calculated hold speed

245
Q

When a non-normal situation is evident, what steps must be followed?

A

1 PF - Maintain Aircraft Control
2 Identify the Non-normal (Either pilot cancels the warning)
3 Accomplish Immediate Action Items (if applicable)
4 Captain Assigns PF
5 Complete the QRH Procedures
6 Analyze and Develop a Plan

246
Q

What are the limitations on low time first officers (< 100 hours)

A

The Captain (unless an appropriately qualified check airman) will make all takeoffs (from ground roll initiation through cleanup), approaches (from 3000 feet AGL & below), and all landings when any one of the following conditions exist:
1. Runway is contaminated
2. braking action is less than “Good”
3. RVR is reported 4000 or less (3/4 mile or less)
4. crosswind component is greater than 15 knots or windshear
5. Operating at any Special Qualification Airport
6. Other circumstances as determined by the Captain

247
Q

What are things that are required to have both pilots concur before performing?

A

(POH 6.1.5)
G - Generators
E - Engine fire push
T - Throttles
F - Fuel boost Pumps
A - All guarded switch lights

248
Q

What is the minimum holding speed?

A

Flaps 0 + 30 knots

249
Q

When can’t you perform a single engine taxi?

A

Single Engine Taxi is prohibited when ramps or taxiways are contaminated with snow, slush, or ice, or when snow or other freezing/frozen precipitation is present.

250
Q

What is stabilized approach criteria?

A
  1. 1,000 fpm or less descent rate by 1,000 ft. AFE (IMC or VMC) unless a higher descent rate is required due to approach angle. This higher descent rate must be pre-briefed in order to allow its use.
  2. On a proper flight path (visual or electronic) with only small changes in pitch and heading required to maintain that path.
  3. At a speed no less than VREF and not greater than VREF + 10 knots allowing for transitory conditions, with engines spooled up.
  4. In trim.
  5. In an approved landing configuration.
251
Q

What are the Engine Failure procedures?

A

Simple - No turns below 1,000’ AFE
Simple special - Turn at a specified altitude below 1,000’ AFE Complex - Special instructions in company documents

252
Q

How many degrees of pitch/bank will result in a tail or wingtip strike?

A

11

253
Q

When must the flight director be used?

A

PSA Airlines requires the use, at a minimum, of a single flight director or the use of a single flight director and a coupled autopilot for CAT I ILS approaches when visibility is less than 3/4 mile or 4000 RVR.

254
Q

When is a new release or TLR REQUIRED?

A
  1. QNH less than .10
  2. Temp. warmer for max thrust T/O (temp is warmer than the numbers listed on the TLR)
  3. MEL/CDL changes
  4. Crew member changes
  5. Fuel/WX/Alternate changes
255
Q

NEWDATES – crew member brief FOM 5.3.5

A

N-names
E-emergency procedures
W-weather
D-door entry procedure
A-aircraft specifics (MELs)
T-turbulence considerations
E-estimated flight time
S-special considerations

256
Q

TEST – FA emergency brief FOM 7.5.4

A

T-type of emergency
E-estimated time available
S-signal for brace/evacuation
T-take special instructions

257
Q

CA only T/O and Landing FOM 4.13.4

A
  1. A low time FO is onboard and any of the following conditions exist:
    * Runway is contaminated
    * crosswind component is greater than 15 knots
    * RVR is reported 4000 or less
    * Operating at an airport with the prevailing visibility 3/4 mile or less
    * braking action is less than “Good” (mu <40)
    * Any reported windshear in the airport vicinity
    * Operating at any Special Qualification Airport
    * Other circumstances as determined by the Captain such as operation with an engine inoperative,
    mechanical malfunction or similar potential hazardous situation.
  2. Landing on runways 5000ft or less. FOM 5.11.6
  3. When T/O visibility is 1600RVR (1/4SM) or less, the Captain must fly thru clean up. FOM 5.8.1
  4. Cabin ALT message or Emergency Descent. POH 6.3.2
  5. Double Engine Failure. POH 6.3.3
258
Q

Balanced Field Length FOM 7.8.2

A

The Balanced Field Length is the all engines acceleration distance to engine failure speed, continuing the takeoff with one engine, and achieving a height of 35 feet by the end of the runway or stopping.

259
Q

Max holding speeds FOM 5.8.12

A

6000 and less – 200kts 1 min legs
6001-14000 – 230kts 1 min legs
14001+ - 265kts 1.5 min legs
210kts where depicted
Recommended holding speed is ACARS calculated speed not below Vref for Flaps 0 + 30kts

260
Q

CA Evacuation responsibilities FOM 7.19.3

A
  • Confirm A/C is secure
  • Direct FO to exit the A/C
  • Remove HALON from flight deck
  • Proceed to cabin to assist the Flight Attendant(s)
  • Exit A/C and assist the First Officer with passenger assembly
261
Q

When to declare an emergency FOM 7.4.2

A

Declare an emergency when in a distress condition and/or
* A flight cannot definitely establish its position
* Aircraft component failure jeopardizes flight safety
* An aircraft is endangered by fire/smoke
* In-flight medical emergency requiring a diversion
* Any contingency jeopardizing flight safety

262
Q

Climb gradients

A

Assuming a critical engine fails at V1:
1st Segment – Lift off to Gear up
2nd Segment – Gear up to 1st level off (1000ft AFE); climb gradient 2.4% ←most restrictive gradient
3rd Segment – 1st level off to Flaps up; climb gradient 1.2%
4th Segment – Flaps up to 1st power reduction; climb gradient 1.2%
VR – Speed that will allow the airplane to reach V2 by 35ft of the departure end of the runway.
V2 – The speed that will meet the 2nd segment climb gradient, (which is the most restrictive gradient of 2.4%)
VT – The speed that will meet the remaining climb gradients of 1.2%

PSA CRJ700/900 KV (7 decks)

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