Mock 3 Flashcards
1
Q
The amount of radiation deposited per unit length of tissue traversed by incoming photons is called:
a.) tissue exposure
b.) linear deposition of energy
c.) linear energy transfer
d.) effective dose limit
A
c.) linear energy transfer
2
Q
Cataractogenesis, life span shortening, embryologic effects, and carcinogenesis are examples of:
a.) short term somatic effects
b.) acute radiation syndrome
c.) genetic effects
d.) long term somatic effects
A
d.) long term somatic effects
3
Q
Compton interactions:
a.) increases contrast in the radiographic image
b.) results in scattering of the incident electrons
c.) decreases recorded detail in the radiographic image
d.) decreases contrast in the radiographic image
A
d.) decreases contrast in the radiographic image
4
Q
Gray(t), multiplied by a radiation weighting factor equals:
a.) air kerma
b.) becquerel
c.) sievert
d.) gray(a)
A
c.) sievert
5
Q
Effective dose limit (EfD):
a.) is the level of radiation that an organism can receive and probably sustain no appreciable effects
b.) is a safe level of radiation that can be received with no effects
c.) should be absorbed annually to maintain proper immunity to radiation
d.) is 500 msv per year for the general public
A
a.) is the level of radiation that an organism can receive and probably sustain no appreciable effects
6
Q
Radiation with a high LET:
a.) has low ionization
b.) is highly ionizing
c.) carries a low quality factor
d.) equates with a low RBE
A
b.) is highly ionizing
7
Q
Radiation protection is based on which dose repsonse relationship?
a.) linear threshold
b.) nonlinear nonthreshold
c.) linear nonthreshold
d.) nonlinear threshold
A
c.) linear nonthreshold
8
Q
Which of the following states that the readiosensitivity of cells is directly proportional to their reproductive activity and inversely proportional to their degree of differentiation?
a.) inverse square law
b.) law of bergonie and tribondeau
c.) reciprocity law
d.) ohms law
A
b.) law of bergonie and tribondeau
9
Q
Which of the following causes aout 95% of the cellular response to radiation?
a.) direct effect
b.) law of bergonie and tribondeau
c.) target theory
d.) indirect effect
A
d.) indirect effect
10
Q
When radiation strikes DNA, which of the following occurs?
a.) direct effect
b.) law of bergonie and tribondeau
c.) target theory
d.) indirect effect
A
a.) direct effect
11
Q
The amount of radiation that causes the number of genetic mutations in a population to double is called the:
a.) threshold dose
b.) doubling dose
c.) mutagenic dose
d.) genetic dose
A
b.) doubling dose
12
Q
The SI units of equivalent dose, activity, air kerma, and absorbed dose are, respectively:
a.) roentgen, rad, rem, curie
b.) rad, coloumb per kilogram, curie, becquerel
c.) rem, curie, roentgen, rad
d.) sievert, becquerel, gray(a), gray(t)
A
d.) sievert, becquerel, gray(a), gray(t)
13
Q
Medical xrays are an example of:
a.) natural background radiation
b.) artificially produced radiation
c.) nonionizing radiation
d.) ionizing, natural background radiation
A
b.) artificially produced radiation
14
Q
The effective dose limit for a fetus for the entire gestational period is:
a.) 5.0 mSv
b.) 0.5 mSv
c.) 0.05 mSv
d.) 50 mSv
A
a.) 5.0 mSv
15
Q
The photoelectric effect:
a.) results in absorption of the incident photon
b.) results in absorption of the incident electron
c.) produces contrast fog on the radiographic image
d.) is the same as brems radiation
A
a.) results in absorption of the incident photon
16
Q
The annual effective dose limit for radiographers is:
a.) 10 mSv
b.) 100 mSv
c.) 50 mSv
d.) 100 mSv
A
c.) 50 mSv
17
Q
The average dose to active bone marrow as an indicator of somatic effects on a population is called:
a.) doubling dose
b.) bone dose
c.) GSD
d.) mean marrow dose
A
d.) mean marrow dose
18
Q
A radiation dose that if received by the entire population would cause the same genetic injury as the total of doses received by the members actually being exposed is called:
a.) genetically significant dose
b.) doubling dose
c.) mean marrow dose
d.) genetic dose
A
a.) genetically significant dose
19
Q
A lead apron of at least what thickness should be worn while being exposed to scatter radiation?
a.) 0.25 mm Pb equivalent
b.) 0.50 mm Pb equivalent
c.) 0.50 mm Al equivalent
d.) 0.10 mm Al equivalent
A
b.) 0.50 mm Pb equivalent
20
Q
Use of a thyroid shield of at least what thickness should be used for fluoroscopy?
a.) 0.10 mm Pb equivalent
b.) 0.50 mm Pb equivalent
c.) 0.50 mm Al equivalent
d.) 0.10 mm Al equivalent
A
b.) .50 mm Pb equivalent
21
Q
How thick are primary protective barriers?
a.) 1/32 inch lead equivalent
b.) 1/16 inch aluminum equivalent
c.) 1/32 inch concrete
d.) 1/16 inch lead equivalent
A
d.) 1/16 inch lead equivalent
22
Q
Primary protective barriers, if in the wall, must extend to a height of at least:
a.) 5 feet
b.) 6 feet
c.) 7 feet
d.) 10 feet
A
c.) 7 feet
23
Q
secondary protective barriers must extend to a height of:
a.) 5 feet
b.) 6 feet
c.) the ceiling
d.) 10 feet
A
c.) the ceiling
24
Q
The protective curtain hanging from the fluoroscopy tower must be at least:
a.) 0.50 mm Pb equivalent
b.) 0.25 mm Al equivalent
c.) 0.10 mm Pb equivalent
d.) 0.25 mm Pb equivalent
A
d.) 0.25 mm Pb equivalent
25
The bucky slot cover must be at least:
a.) .50 mm Pb equivalent
b.) 0.25 mm Al equivalent
c.) 0.10 mm Pb equivalent
d.) 0.25 mm Pb equivalent
d.) 0.25 mm Pb equivalent
26
Filters made of aluminum and copper are placed in the film badge to measure xrays:
a.) quantity
b.) source
c.) energy
d.) type
c.) energy
27
Film badges are changed:
a.) quarterly
b.) weekly
c.) yearly
d.) monthly
d.) monthly
28
Thermoluminescent dosimeters use what of crystals to record dose?
a.) dilithium crystals
b.) lithium fluoride
c.) flux capacitors
d.) bromide crystals
b.) lithium fluoride
29
TLD's are heated and release what type of energy to indicate dose?
a.) laser
b.) visible light
c.) xrays
d.) gamma rays
b.) visible light
30
Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeters provide reading as low as:
a.) 1 usv
b.) 10 usv
c.) 50 usv
d.) 100 usv
b.) 10 usv
31
The recording material in an OSL dosimeter is:
a.) dilithium
b.) lithium fluoride
c.) aluminum oxide
d.) silver handle
c.) aluminum oxide
32
The energy stored in an OSL dosimeter is released when the dosimeter is exposed to:
a.) heat
b.) white light
c.) laser
d.) ultrasound
c.) laser
33
OSL dosimeter may be worn for:
a.) 1 month
b.) 1 week
c.) 3 months
d.) 1 year
c.) 3 months
34
OSL dosimeters may be scanned and reanalyzed:
a.) only once
b.) monthly
c.) five times
d.) an unlimited number of times
d.) an unlimited number of times
35
The most commonly used gonadal shield is the:
a.) shadow shield
b.) collimator
c.) contact sheild
d.) filter
c.) contact sheild
36
For optimal radiation protection, what type of exposure technique should be used:
a.) low kvp, high mas
b.) small focal spot
c.) all manual technique
d.) high kvp, low mas
d.) high kvp, low mas
37
For optimal radiation protection, what speed of IR should be used?
a.) slow
b.) speed has no impact on dose
c.) analog
d.) fast
d.) fast
38
The minimum source to skin distance for portable radiography is:
a.) at least 12 inches
b.) at least 15 inches
c.) at least 72 inches
d.) at least 40 inches
a.) at least 12 inches
39
How often is added filtration adjusted by the radiographer?
a.) after several exposures
b.) daily
c.) as part of weekly quality control
d.) never
d.) never
40
What report does a radiographer consult and initial to verify occupational dose received?
a.) PACs
b.) dosimeter
c.) radiation
d.) annual dose report
b.) dosimeter
41
What are radiation effects that manifest themselves in the person being irradiated?
a.) genetic
b.) exposed cell
c.) somatic
d.) molecular
c.) somatic
42
What type of background radiation is radon?
a.) man made
b.) radioactive water
c.) natural
d.) natural form of electromagnetic waves
c.) natural
43
The photoelectric effect is responsible for:
a.) the brightness of the image
b.) producing scatter radiation
c.) differential absorption of the xray beam by the body
d.) spatial resolution
c.) differential absorption of the xray beam by the body
44
The unit of measurement that is determined by measuring ions produced in air as radiation passes through it is the:
a.) becquerel
b.) gray
c.) air kerma
d.) sievert
c.) air kerma
45
One (1) is the radiation weighting factor (Wr) for:
a.) neutrons
b.) gamma rays
c.) cosmic rays
d.) radon
b.) gamma rays
46
Atomic number is represented by the letter:
a.) M
b.) A
c.) Z
d.) Q
a.) M
47
Atomic mass is represented by the letter:
a.) M
b.) A
c.) Z
d.) Q
a.) M
48
The primary purpose of filtering the xray beam is to:
a.) increase contrast
b.) improve radiation protection
c.) soften the beam for proper imaging
d.) remove short wavelength rays
b.) improve radiation protection
49
Considering probability, xray photons will probably strike:
a.) the nucleus
b.) RNA
c.) DNA
d.) water
d.) water
50
Xray photons depositing their energy in the water of the cytoplasm may cause:
a.) electrolysis
b.) radiolysis
c.) radioactivity
d.) pair production
b.) radiolysis
51
Free radicals may recombine to form:
a.) DNA
b.) hydrogen peroxide
c.) sulfuric acid
d.) new cytoplasm
b.) hydrogen peroxide
52
What is the thickness of a thyroid shield that should be worn during fluoroscopy?
a.) 0.10 mm lead equivalent
b.) 0.50 mm lead equivalent
c.) 0.50 mm aluminum equivalent
d.) 0.10 mm aluminum equivalent
b.) 0.50 mm lead equivalent
53
For sheilding purposes, what is the xray control booth considered?
a.) secondary protective barrier
b.) primary protective barrier
c.) equivalent to a lead apron
d.) a tertiary protective barrier
a.) secondary protective barrier
54
An ionization chamber circuit places:
a.) a photomultiplier tube between the IR and the patient
b.) an ionization chamber beneath or behind the IR
c.) an ionization chamber between the patient and the xray tube
d.) an ionization chamber betweeen the IR and the patient
d.) an ionization chamber between the IR and the patient
55
Full wave rectification uses:
a.) a single semiconductor
b.) four silicone based semiconductors
c.) the xray tube as a semiconductor
d.) four silicon based semiconductors
d.) four silicon based semiconductors
56
A full wave rectified, three phase, 12 pulse xray machine produces approximately ______________% more average photon energy than a full wave rectified, single phase xray machine.
a.) 35
b.) 50
c.) 41
d.) 100
c.) 41
57
According to the anode heel effect, the intensity of radiation is greater at the _____________ side of the xray tube.
a.) anode
b.) central xray
c.) neither side, the beam is of uniform intensity
d.) cathode
d.) cathode
58
The amount of time needed for an AEC to terminate the exposure is called:
a.) exposure latitude
b.) minimum reaction time
c.) chamber response time
d.) electronic time
b.) minimum reaction time
59
A particular xray room is shooting dark. the problem arises when a change is made from 200 to 300 mA using fixed kvp techniques at 0.16 seconds. Which of the following would lead to an accurate diagnosis of the problem?
a.) resolution test pattern
b.) measurement of HVL
c.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure reproducibility
d.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure linearity
d.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure linearity
60
An outpatient radiographic room is used primarily for tabletop radiography of the extremities. On a particularly busy afternoon, the radiographers find that similar exposure techniques on successive patients result in substantially different radiographs. Which of the following would lead to an accurate diagnosis of the problem?
a.) contrast test pattern
b.) measurement of HVL
c.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure resproducibility
d.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure linearity
c.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure reproducibility
61
Xray beam quality is expressed in terms of:
a.) half value layer
b.) exposure linearity
c.) exposure reproducibility
d.) mas
a.) half value layer
62
The accuracy of collimation at a 40 inch sid must be:
a.) 4 inches
b.) 8/10 inches
c.) 1 inch
d.) 1/10 inch
b.) 8/10 inch
63
The accuracy of kvp at 80 kvp must be:
a.) within 5%
b.) within 10%
c.) within 15%
d.) within 20%
b.) within 10%
64
The apparent size of the focal spot as viewed by the image receptor is called the:
a.) actual focal spot
b.) target angle spot
c.) anode heel effect
d.) effective focal spot
d.) effective focal spot
65
Which of the following interactions is the primary souce of diagnostic xrays?
a.) photoelectric effect
b.) brems
c.) compton
d.) pair production
b.) brems
66
The components of a grid are:
a.) Pb strips and Pb interspacers
b.) Al strips and Pb interspacers
c.) Pb strips and Al interspacers
d.) Pb strips and cardboard interspacers
c.) Pb strips and Al interspacers
67
Which of the following lists of substances that make up the human body best places them in increasing order of density?
a.) air, fat, water, muscle, bone
b.) bone, muscle, water, fat, air
c.) air, fat, muscle, water, bone
d.) air, fat, water, muscle, bone, tooth enamel
a.) air, fat, water, muscle, bone
68
Bit depth describes:
a.) the available gray scale of an imaging system
b.) window level
c.) spatial resolution
d.) optimum exposure needed for an imaging system
a.) the available gray scale of an imaging system
69
If it is necessary to reduce exposure by half, and it is impossible to do so by changing mAs, the radiographer may:
a.) reduce SID by half
b.) double SID
c.) decrease kvp by 15%
d.) devcrease kvp by 50%
c.) decrease kvp by 15%
70
The dynamic range for digital imaging is:
a.) wide
b.) narrow
c.) unrelated to diagnostic imaging
a.) wide
71
Dynamic range is defined as :
a.) the range of exposures over which a detector can acquire image data
b.) exposure latitude
c.) window width
d.) window level
a.) the range of exposures over which a detector can acquire image data
72
Modulation transfer function (MTF) is:
a.) the controlling factor of contrast resolution
b.) a measure of the ability of the imaging system to preserve signal contrast as a function of the spatial resolution
c.) a function of exposured
d.) a function of pixel density
b.) a measure of the ability of the imaging system to preserve signal contrast as a function of the spatial resolution
73
2n (where n equals the number of bits) defines:
a.) pixel density
b.) shades of gray
c.) bit depth
d.) detector element size
c.) bit depth
74
A scintillator:
a.) absorbs xray energy and emits part of that energy as visible light
b.) absorbs xray energy and emits that energy as electrons
c.) converts visible light into electrons
d.) converts electrons into visible light
a.) absorbs xray energy and emits part of that energy as visible light
75
The magnitude of the signal differences in the remnant beam refers to:
a.) subject contrast
b.) IP contrast
c.) window level
d.) spatial resolution
a.) subject contrast
76
A term used to describe the mathematical formula used by the computer to reconstruct the image is:
a.) bit depth
b.) algorithm
c.) mathematical function
d.) exposure equation
b.) algorithm
77
When speed is essential in completing an imaging examination, the preferred IR is:
a.) CR
b.) DR
c.) wireless DR plate
c.) wireless DR plate
78
Pixel is an acronym meaning:
a.) detector element
b.) picture element
c.) volume element
d.) bit element
a.) detector element
79
Improper use of grids with a digital imaging system may cause an artifact known as:
a.) moire pattern
b.) grid cutoff
c.) motion artifact
d.) quatam mottle
b.) grid cutoff
80
An integrated system of images and information is called:
a.) DICOM
b.) DDR
c.) CR/DDR
d.) PACS
a.) DICOM
81
Image noise may be described as :
a.) undesirable fluctuations in brightness
b.) undesirable fluctuations in contrast
c.) inadequate spatial resolution
d.) a function of MAS
a.) undesirable fluctuations in brightness
82
The measurement of the luminance of a monitor is called:
a.) density
b.) contrast
c.) brightness
d.) detail visibility
c.) brightness
83
grid radius is:
a.) the total amount of lead in a grid
b.) the objective plane
c.) H/D
d.) the range of SIDs that may be used with a focused grid
d.) the range of SIDs that may be used with a focused grid
84
Visibility of an objects edge may be limited by:
a.) speed class
b.) modulation transfer function
c.) contrast resolution
d.) quantam noise
d.) quantam noise
85
Detective quantam efficiency indicates:
a.) patient dose
b.) potential speed class
c.) spatial resolution
d.) contrast resolution
b.) potential speed class
86
Digital receptors have what kind of response to exposure?
a.) nonlinear
b.) linear
c.) curvilinear
d.) hyperlinear
b.) linear
87
If the angle on the anode is decreased, what effect is there on spatial resolution?
a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect
a.) increases
88
If mas is increased four times, what is the effect on receptor exposure?
a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect
a.) increases
89
If SID is increased, what is the effect on IR exposure?
a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect
b.) decreases
90
If OID is decreased what is the effect on spatial resolution ?
a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect
a.) Increases
91
A photodiode converts:
a.) AC to DC
b.) light into a charge
c.) electrons into light
d.) MRI signal into PACS data
b. ) light into a charge
92
If kvp is increased, what happens to attenuation of the beam in the patient?
a.) increase
b.) decrease
c.) no appreaciable effects
b.) decrease
93
In a conversion from a nongrid to a 12:1 grid, what happens to image contrast?
a.) increases
b. ) decrease
c.) no appreciable effect
a.) increases
94
If SID is decreased from 60 inches to 30 inches, what happens to magnification?
a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect
a.) increases
95
If the IR is moved from tabletop to bucky, what happens to spatial resolution?
a.) increase
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect
a.) increases
96
If there is a decrease in source to object distance, what happens to spatial resolution?
a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) No appreciable effects
a.) increases
97
The amount of lead in a grid is referred to as:
a.) grid frequency
b.) grid ratio
c.) grid radius
d.) grid cleanup ability
a.) grid frequency
98
For the parietoacanthial projection (waters) for the sinuses, the oml forms an angle of how many degrees with the cassette?
a.) 53
b.) 45
c.) 25
d.) 37
d.) 37
99
For the PA axial projection for the colon, the central ray is angled caudad how many degrees?
a.) 10 to 20
b.) 20 to 30
c.) 30 to 40
d.) 25 to 45
c.) 30 to 40
100
the carpal bones are arranged in two rows as follows:
proximal row (schaphoid, lunate, triquetral, pisiform)
distal row (trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate)
101
The prominent point of the elbow is called:
a.) olecranon, part of the radius
b.) semilunar notch
c.) trochlea
d.) olecranon, part of the ulna
d.) Olecranon, part of the ulna
102
Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the cervical spine?
a.) talipes
b.) colles fracture
c.) ankylosing spondylitis
d.) jefferson fracture
d.) jefferson fracture
103
Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the hand?
a.) talipes
b.) colle fracture
c.) boxer fracture
d.) ankylosing spondylitis
c.) boxer fracture
104
Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the distal forearm ?
a.) talipes
b.) colle fracture
c.) boxer fracture
d.) ankylosing spondylitis
b.) colle fracture
105
Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the feet?
a.) talipes
b.) colle fracture
c.) boxer fracture
d.) ankylosing spondylitis
a.) talipes
106
Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the entire spine?
a.) talipes
b.) colle fracture
c.) boxer fracture
d.) ankylosing spondylitis
d.) ankylosing spondylitis
107
A patient unable to supinate the hand for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the forearm:
a.) should be made to do so to provide a diagnostic radiograph
b.) probably has a fracture of the radial head and must be handled carefully
c.) probably has a low pain tolerance and must be handled carefully
d.) may require radiographs with and without weights
b.) probably has a fracture of the radial head and must be handled carefully
108
When a posteroanterior (PA) axial projection of the clavicle is performed, the central ray should be angled:
a.) 15 degrees cephalad
b.) 15 degrees caudad
c.) 25 to 30 degrees cephald
d.) 25 to 30 degrees caudad
d.) 25 to 30 degrees caudad
109
When a lateral projection of the knee is performed, the knee should be:
a.) extended 20 to 30 degrees
b.) flexed to a 90 degree angle
c.) flexed 20 to 30 degrees
d.) fully extended
c.) flexed 20 to 30 degrees
110
When a tangential projection of the patella is performed with the patient prone, the central ray should be angled:
a.) 15 degrees cephalad
b.) 15 degrees caudad
c.) 25 degreees cephalad
d.) 45 degrees cephalad
d.) 45 degrees cephalad
111
Use of which of the following would provide an improved image of the femur?
a.) wedge filter
b.) anode heel effect
c.) short SID
d.) long OID
b.) anode heel effect
112
When an AP projection of the hip is performed, the central ray is directed:
a.) perpendicular to a point 2 inches medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) at the level of the superior margin of the greater trochanter
b.) parallel to a point 2 inches medial to the ASIS at the level of the superior margin of the greater trochanter
c.) at a 15 degree cephalad angle
d.) to the level of the ASIS
a.) perpendicular to a point 2 inches medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) at the level of the superior margin of the greater trochanter
113
When an AP oblique projection is performed for the cervical vertebrae, the central ray is directed:
a.) 25 to 30 degrees cephalad
b.) 15 to 20 degrees caudad
c.) 5 to 10 degrees cephalad
d.) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
d.) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
114
When the AP oblique projection is performed for the lumbar vertebra, the side of interest is:
a.) fartherest from the image receptor
b.) closeest to the image receptor
c.) rotated 30 degrees
d.) rotated 20 degrees
b.) closest to the image receptor
115
When the PA oblique projection for the sacroiliac joints is performed, the side of interest is:
a.) fartherest from the image receptor
b.) clsoest to the image receptor
c.) rotated 10 degrees
d.) rotated 45 degrees
a.) fartherest from the image receptor
116
Routine chest radiography is performed:
a.) at the end of full inspiration
b.) at the end of full expiration
c.) at the end of the second full inspiration
d.) with the patient supine or upright
c.) at the end of the second full inspiration
117
The primary purpose of performing oblique projections of the ribs is:
a.) to image the axillary portion of the ribs
b.) to image the ribs above the diaphragm
c.) to image the ribs below the diaphragm
d.) to determine the extent of the patients pain tolerance
a.) to image the axiallary portion of the ribs
118
when the PA projection of the skull is performed to image the frontal bone:
1.) the central ray is directed perpendicular to the IR
2.) the OML is perpendicular to the IR
3.) the central ray exits at the glabella
4.) MSP is paralle to the cassette
a.) all are true
b.) 1, 2
c.) 1, 3, 4
d.) 1, 3
b.) 1, 2
119
Which of the following bones has no body?
a.) atlas
b.) axis
c.) thoracic vertebra
d.) lumbar vertebra
a.) atlas
120
This forms the medial part of the anterior chest wall?
a.) manubrium
b.) floating
c.) xiphoid
d.) sternum
d.) sternum
121
which of the following is (are) located just below the head of the humerus?
a.) greater and lesser trochanter
b.) bicipital groove
c.) capitulum
d.) trochlea
a.) greater and lesser trochanter
122
Blood vessels, the brochial tree and nerves enter the lungs at this point:
a.) trachea
b.) left lung
c.) right lung
d.) hilus
d.) hilus
123
The narrow distal end of the stomach that connects with the small intestine is called the:
a.) rugae
b.) pylorous
c.) fundus
d.) greater curvature
b.) pylourous
124
The part of the urinary system located between the renal pelvis and the bladder is called thee:
a.) cortex
b.) medulla
c.) nephron
d.) ureter
d.) ureter
125
The first tier of transmission based isolation precautions is called:
a.) universal precautions
b.) standard precautions
c.) infection control
d.) linear, nonthreshold
b.) standard precautions
126
The first step in pouring liquids into containers in a sterile field is to:
a.) allow the liquid to drop onto the sterile field
b.) pour a small amount into a waste receptacle to cleanse the lip of the bottle
c.) carefully determine the contents of the container
d.) immediately pour the solution when requested to do so
b.) pour a small amount into a waste receptacle to cleanse the lip of the bottle
127
What is usually used to perform medical asepsis?
a.) water and chemicals
b.) complete sterilization procedure
c.) surgical suite procedures
d.) soap and water
a.) water and chemicals
128
The suffix that means condition is:
a.) pathy
b.) itis
c.) osis
d.) tomy
c.) osis
129
The suffix that means disease is:
a.) osis
b.) pathy
c.) rhaphy
d.) scopy
b.) pathy
130
bradycardia indicates a pules of:
a.) greater than 100 beats per minute
b.) greater than 60 beats per minute
c.) greater than 90 beats per minute
d.) less than 60 beats per minute
d.) less than 60 beats per minute
131
Normal adult respiration is:
a.) greater than 100 beats per minute
b.) less than 60 beats per minute
c.) 12 to 16 breaths per minute
d.) 12 to 16 beats per minute
c.) 12 to 16 breaths per minute
132
The radiographer must be proficient in the use of which of the following medical instruments?
a.) angiography catheter
b.) sphygmomnanometer
c.) thermometer
d.) oxygen administration equipment
d.) oxygen adiministration equipment
133
A tube used to feed a patient or to perform gastric suction is called a:
a.) tracheostomy tube
b.) tracheotomy tube
c.) nasogastric tube
d.) ventilator tube
c.) nasogastric tube
134
Nosocomial infections are acquired:
a.) in radiology
b.) through the nose
c.) during cold and flu season
d.) in the health care setting
d.) in the health care setting
135
During movement and transfer of patients, urinary catheter bags should be:
a.) safely placed on the patients abdomen
b.) kept below the level of the bladder
c.) kept below the level of the xray table
d.) kept on the cart or wheelchair
b.) kept below the level of the bladder
136
The first task that must be performed when beginning a radiographic examination of a patient is to:
a.) verify patient identity
b.) determine accuracy of physicians orders
c.) verify the examination to be performed
d.) remove radiopaque objects from the area of interest
a.) verify patient identity
137
Which of the following is not required for valid consent?
a.) pateint must be of legal age
b.) patient must be adequately informed and sign a consent form
c.) patient must be mentally competent
d.) consent must be offered voluntarily
b.) patient must be adequately informed and sign a consent form
138
The prefix that means around is:
a.) poly
b.) peri
c.) retro
d.) trans
b.) peri
139
The prefix that mean many is:
a.) poly
b.) peri
c.) hemi
d.) epi
a.) poly
140
A system that uses barriers between individuals and assumes all patients are infectious is called:
a.) standard precautions
b.) whole body isolations
c.) sterile technique
d.) surgical asepsis
a.) standard precautions
141
When you are performing patient care in radiology:
a.) hands should be washed after each procedure
b.) gowns and gloves should always be worn
c.) hands should be washed only after you care for obviously infectious patients
d.) gloves should be worn only when you perform gastrointestinal procedures or venipuncture
a.) hands should be washed after each procedure
142
Patient transfer from cart to xray table should be performed:
a.) alone when working evenings or nights
b.) by radiographers working in pairs at all times
c.) alone when the department is busy or has a staff shortage
d.) in pairs only when other radiographers are available to assist
b.) by radiographers working in pairs at all times
143
Your best source for the latest information regarding standard precautions is the:
a.) radiology administrator
b.) radiology purchasing manager
c.) infection control department
d.) radiologist
c.) infection control department
144
After all radiographic or fluoroscopic procedures, the radiographer should use _____________ to clean surfaces with which the patient was in contact
a.) alcohol
b.) surgical asepsis
c.) soap and water
d.) medical asepsis
d.) medical asepsis
145
When sterile fields are prepared, damp packages:
a.) are always considered contaminated
b.) are always considered sterile because the dampness confirms they were cleaned
c.) should be unwrapped first and placed in the center of the sterile field
d.) are always considered sterile; the dampness is a remnant of the gassing process
a.) are always considered contaminated
146
When mobile radiography is performed, the mobile unit:
a.) does not have to be cleaned because it is never in contact with sterile fields
b.) must be cleaned before and after each use
c.) msut be cleaned before it is brought into surgical areas or reverse isolation units
d.) must be cleaned before it is brought into surgical areas or reverse isolation units and after its removal from most isolation units
d.) must be cleaned before it is brought into surgical areas or reverse isolation units and after its removal from most isolation units
147
When radiography is performed on patients in isolation the IR:
a.) should be placed in a protective covering only if the patient is in reverse isolation
b.) must always be placed in a protective covering
c.) should be placed in a protective covering to keep it free of microbes
d.) should be placed in a protective covering, so that no microbes leave the room
b.) must always be placed in a protective covering
148
Which of the following procedures should a radiographer be prepared to assist with at any time?
a.) cardiac massage
b.) defibrillation
c.) feeding tube insertion
d.) CPR
d.) CPR
149
In addition to performing radiography on a trauma victim, the radiographer should be:
1.) assessing the patients condition continually
2.) interpreting the images for the emergency department physician
3.) taking additional projections as indicated by the patients condition or prelimiary images
4.) keeping all other health care workers out of the room because of radiaiton protection standards
5.) providing comfort and communicating quietly with the patient, whether the patient is conscious or unconcious
a.) 1, 3
b.) 4, 5
c.) 1, 3, 5
d.) 1, 3, 4, 5
c.) 1, 3, 5
150
For a barium enema the contrast agent shoul dbe mixed with:
a.) cold water
b.) water at or below body temp
c.) water at approximately 120 dgrees F
d.) water at approximately 100 F
d.) water at approximately 100 F
151
All iodinated contrast media used today contain:
a.) iodine and free ions
b.) free ions
c.) only iodine
d.) salts of organic iodine compounds
d.) salts of organic iodine compounds
152
The highest incidence of contrast agent reactions occurs with the use of:
a.) negative contrast media
b.) ionic iodinated contrast media
c.) nonionic iodinated contrast media
d.) barium sulfate
b.) ionic iodinated contrast media
153
Ir is important for the radiographer to obtain the recent history of radiographic examinations performed on a patient so that;
a.) an overdose of iodinated contrast media does not occur from examinations recently performed
b.) an overdose of radiation is not administered
c.) unnecessary examinations may be avoided
d.) costs may be contained
a.) an overdose of iodinated contrast media does not occur from examination recently perfomred
154
For a patient who has a history of intravenous urography and no contrast agent reactions:
a.) the radiographer may assume there would be no reaction on other subsequent intrvenous urograms
b.) the radioger must assume there is a chance of a reaction on other contrast examinations
c.) the radiographer must assume there is a chance of a reaction on subsequent intravenous urtograms
d.) there is no chance of reactions on subsequent intravenous urograms
c.) the radiographer must assume there is a chance of a reaction on subsequent intravenous urtograms
155
A negative contrast agent used in chest radiography and some arthrography is:
a.) barium sulfate
b.) iodine
c.) perforated ulcers or ruptured appendix
d.) air
d.) air
156
A positve contrast agent administered to the pateitn who is going to surgery is:
a.) barium sulfate
b.) iodine
c.) perforated ulcers or ruptured appendix
d.) aqueous iodine compound
d.) aqueous iodine compound
157
In an attempt to maintain the quality of patient care at the highest level possible over time, proof of continuing education is mandatory for renewal of certification with:
a.) state licensing boards in all 50 states
b.) american society of radiologic technologists
c.) the joint commision
d.) ARRT
d.) ARRT
