Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Mocks/Review > Mock 1 > Flashcards

Mock 1 Flashcards

1
Q

An artifact caused by magnetic fields is called:

a.) pincushion distortion
b.) vignetting
c.) barrel distortion
d.) S distortion

A

d.) S distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A nosocomial infection is a:

a.) upper respiratory infection
b.) type of rhinitis
c.) infection acquired in a hospital
d.) infection acquired at a large gathering

A

c.) infection acquired in a hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Collimation systems equipped with positive beam limitation must be accurate to within _____________% of the SID.

a.) 4
b.) 3
c.) 5
d.) 2

A

b.) 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A decrease in kvp will result in which of the following:

1.) a decrease in photon energy
2.) an increase in average filtration
3.) a decrease in receptor exposure
4.) an increase in beam penetrability
5.) a 15% increase in mas

a.) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
b.) 1, 2 and 3 only
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1, 3 and 5 only
e.) 1 and 3 only

A

e.) 1 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In the xray circuit, which transformer does voltage travel through first?

a.) mutual induction transformer
b.) step up transformer
c.) autotransformer
d.) step down transformer

A

c.) autotransformer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sources of natural background radiation contributing to whole body radiation dose include:

1.) dental xrays
2.) terrestrial radionuclides
3.) internal radionuclides

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 2 and 3 only

A

d.) 2 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A particular radiograph was produced using 12 mas and 85 kvp with a 16:1 ratio grid. The radiohraph is to be repeated using an 8:1 ratio grid. What should be the new milliampere seconds value?

a.) 8
b.) 3
c.) 6
d.) 10

A

a.) 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the cecum be found?

a.) right upper quadrant (RUQ)
b.) left lower quadrant (LLQ)
c.) left upper quadrant (LUQ)
d.) right lower quadrant (RLQ)

A

d.) right lower quadrant (RLQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A radiograph that has densities that are very different from each other:

a.) has many shades of gray
b.) has low contrast
c.) has high contrast
d.) has long scale contrast

A

c.) has high contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Immature cells are referred to as:

1.) undifferentiated cells
2.) stem cells
3.) genetic cells

a.) 1 and 2 only
b.) 1 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 2 and 3 only

A

a.) 1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fog seen on a radiographic image is primarily the result of:

a.) Photoelectric interactions
b.) classical interaction
c.) compton interactions
d.) coherent interactions

A

c.) compton interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A loss of brightness around the edge of the fluoroscopic image caused by the curve of the photocathode is :

a.) noise
b.) pincushion appearance
c.) vignetting
d.) magnification

A

c.) vignetting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When the ASIS to tabletop measurement is between 19 and 24 cm, the CR angulation for an AP knee is:

a.) 7 degrees
b.) 5 degrees caudad
c.) 0 degrees
d.) 5 degrees cephalad

A

c.) 0 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following exams requires restriction of the patients diet?

1.) UGI
2.) abdominal survey
3.) IVP

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 3 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

A

b.) 1 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A line voltage compensator is incorporated into the primary circuit of a digital radiographic unit to:

a.) maintain a constant voltage coming into the circuit
b.) control the desired speed of the anode
c.) compensate for variations mAs timer
d.) provide the desired filament charge

A

a.) maintain a constant voltage coming into the circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following contributes significantly to the exposure of the radiographer?

a.) compton scattered photons
b.) electrons
c.) positrons
d.) compton scattered electrons

A

a.) compton scattered photons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The medial malleolus is part of the:

a.) calcaneus
b.) tibia
c.) fibula
d.) talus

A

c.) fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The normal range for adult systolic blood pressure is:

a.) 120-140
b.) 60-80
c.) 100-120
d.) 80-100

A

c.) 100-120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The SID indicator must be within ________% of the actual SID.

a.) 1
b.) 10
c.) 2
d.) 5

A

c.) 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An increase in total filtration of the xray beam will decrease:

a.) IR exposure
b.) image quality
c.) the average energy of the xray beam
d.) beam HVL
e.) IR exposure

A

e.) IR exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Establishing a 20 minute maximum wait time for a procedure is considered:

a.) patient comfort
b.) threshold of acceptability
c.) patient satisfaction
d.) personell performance

A

b.) threshold of acceptability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is (are) considered low-LET radiation?

1.) xrays
2.) alpha particles
3.) gamma rays

a.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 2 only
d.) 1 only

A

a.) 1 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

As kvp increases, scatter radiation will:

a.) remain unchanged
b.) increase because of more compton interaction
c.) decrease beacuase of less photoelectric interaction
d.) decrease because of less compton interactions

A

b.) increase because of more compton interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the most radiosensitive white blood cells in the human body?

a.) lymphocytes
b.) neutrophils
c.) granulocytes
d.) eosinophils

A

a.) lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The normal range for adult pulse rate is:

a.) 80-100 beats per minute
b.) 60-100 beats per minute
c.) 100-120 beats per minute
d.) 40-60 beats per minute

A

b.) 60-100 beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where is the CR centered for the left lateral decubitus projection of the abdomen?

a.) at the level of the iliac crest
b.) 2 inches above the iliac crest
c.) 2 inches below the iliac crest
d.) xiphoid process

A

b.) 2 inches above the iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A radiograph of an AP abdomen demonstrates elongation of the left iliac wing and narrowing of the right iliac wing. Which one of the following positioning errors produced this outcome?

a.) rotation to the left (LPO)
b.) left hip was internally rotated more than the right hip
c.) rotation to the right (RPO)
d.) CR off center to the left

A

a.) rotation to the left (LPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A radiographer who performs an xray examination on a patient without the patients consent, or after the patient has refused the examination, may be liable for:

a.) battery
b.) libel
c.) assault
d.) slander

A

a.) battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Irradiation of water molecules within the body and thier resulting breakdown is termed:

a.) proliferation
b.) repopulation
c.) epilation
d.) radiolysis (direct effect)

A

d.) radiolysis (direct effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Appropriate scatter radiation control methods include which of the following?
1.) tight collimation
2.) lead masking at the edge of the exposure field
3.) appropriate use of a grid
4.) increasing FOV
5.) using an air gap method

a.) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b.) 2, 3 and 5 only
c.) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
d.) 1, 2 and 4 only

A

a.) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

An autotransformer is used to control which aspect of the xray circuit electrical supply?

a.) resistance
b.) rectification
c.) power
d.) voltage

A

d.) voltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

As a waves wavelength increases, its frequency

a.) it depends on the type of EMR
b.) decreases
c.) stays the same
d.) increases

A

b.) decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Stochastic/probabilistic effects of radiation are those that:

1.) have a threshold
2.) may be described as “all or nothing” effects
3.) are late effects

a.) 1 and 2 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1 only

A

b.) 2 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The third metacarpal of the hand articulates with the:

a.) hamate
b.) capitate
c.) scaphoid
d.) lunate

A

b.) capitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An increase in the image size of an object compared to its true, or actual size is called:

a.) minification
b.) sharpness distortion
c.) size distortion
d.) shape distortion

A

c.) size distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Anatomic structures that readily transmit xrays:

a.) are called radiolucent
b.) have a high effective atomic number
c.) have a high probability for photoelectric effect
d.) are called radiopaque

A

a.) are called radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The ASRT document that defines the radiographers role is the:

a.) standard of care
b.) legal standards
c.) standards of ethics
d.) practice standards

A

d.) practice standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Patients right include the following:

1.) the right to refuse treatment
2.) the right to confidentiality
3.) the right to possess ones medical records

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 only
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 and 3 only

A

c.) 1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the CR angulation for an AP axial projection of the cervical spine?

a.) 20-30 degrees cephalad
b.) 15-20 degrees caudad
c.) 15-20 degrees cephalad
d.) perpendicular

A

c.) 15-20 degrees cephalad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How much should the leg be flexed for a lateral projection of the knee?

a.) 90 degrees
b.) 70 degrees
c.) 20 to 30 degrees
d.) 10 to 20 degrees

A

c.) 20 to 30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Using the hip localization method, the femoral neck can be found:

a.) 1-2” distal and 3-4” medial to ASIS
b.) 3-4” distal to ASIS
c.) 1-2” superior and 3-4” medial to pubic symphisis
d.) 1-2” medial and 3-4” distal to ASIS

A

d.) 1-2” medial and 3-4” distal to ASIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following are classified as high let radiation?

1.) alpha particles
2.) gamma rays
3.) xrays

a.) 1 only
b.) 3 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 2 only

A

a.) 1 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified as:

a.) hypovolemic
b.) septic
c.) cardiogenic
d.) neurogenic

A

d.) neurogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Factors that decrease xray absorption include:

a.) increased tissue density
b.) increased tissue thickness
c.) increased xray beam quality
d.) increased atomic number

A

c.) increased xray beam quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

For an AP sacral image, the:

1.) patient should empty the bladder and colon before the procedure
2.) CR is angled 15 degrees cephalically
3.) ASISs are positioned at equal distance to the imaging table
4.) hips and knees are flexed

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c.) 1, 2 and 3 only
d.) 1 only

A

c.) 1, 2 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The heart is located in the anterior chest at the level of:

a.) the thymus gland
b.) T5-8
c.) T2-5
d.) the arch of the aorta

A

b.) T5-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A patient arrives in radiology with a metal foreign body in the palm of the hand. Which of the following hand routines should be performed on this patient to confirm the location of the foreign body?

a.) PA and lateral in extension projections
b.) PA and lateral in flexion projections
c.) PA and fan lateral projections
d.) PA and gaynor hart method

A

a.) PA and lateral in extension projections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fluid that collects in the pleural cavity is termed:

a.) pneumoconiosis
b.) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
c.) pleural effusion
d.) pneumonia

A

c.) pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding the administration of a barium enema to a patient with colostomy, except:

a.) the drainage pouch should be retained unless a fresh one can be provided
b.) the colostomy tip or catheter should be selected by the radiologist
c.) the dressing should be removed and disposed of
d.) the patient should not be permitted to insert the colostomy tip

A

d.) the patient should not be permitted to insert the colostomy tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the angle between the OML and the plane of the IR for the parietoacanthial (waters) projection?

a.) 15-20 degrees
b.) 42 degrees
c.) 37 degrees
d.) 55 degrees

A

c.) 37 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is the primary beam affected when increasing the tube filtration?

a.) increase in the proportion of higher energy xrays
b.) increase in the number of xray photons
c.) increase in the speed of the xray photons
d.) increase in the proportion of lower energy xrays

A

a.) increase in the proportion of higher energy xrays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A radiograph of the lumbar spine is produced using automatic exposure control (AEC). The exposure results in optimal contrast but low receptor exposure. What is the ideal way to increase the receptor exposure?

a.) decrease density setting
b.) increase density setting
c.) decrease grid ratio
d.) increase kvp

A

b.) increase density setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

local anasthetics are likely to be used in all of the following radiographic exams except:

a.) lower extremity arteriography
b.) arthrography
c.) postoperative or t tube cholangiography
d.) myelography

A

c.) postoperative or t tube cholangiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following are stages of acute radiation syndrome?

a.) prodromal stage
b.) latent stage
c.) manifest illness stage
d.) all of the above

A

d.) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Amorpheus selenium is used as the:

a.) photoconductor for indirect capture DR Imaging
b.) photodetector for indirect capture DR Imaging
c.) photoconductor for direct capture DR imaging
d.) photodetector for direct capture DR imaging

A

c.) photoconductor for direct capture DR Imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Calculate the total repeat rate: 1500 total images, 220 repeats, 50 repeats were for positioning, 20 were for techincal factors

a.) 4.6%
b.) 19.3%
c.) 14.6%

A

c.) 14.6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of:

a.) invasion of privacy
b.) defamation
c.) libel
d.) slander

A

a.) invasion of privacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which projection of the ankle best demonstrates the distal tibiofibular joint?

a.) lateromedial ankle
b.) AP projection
c.) mortise view
d.) AP obliue with 45 degree rotaton

A

d.) AP oblique with 45 degree rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A grid usually is used in which of the following circumstances?

1.) when radiographing a large or dense body part
2.) when using high kilovoltage
3.) when a lower patient dose is required

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 only
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 3 only

A

c.) 1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Flat panel detectors for fluoroscopic imaging can be the:

a.) cesium iodide amorphus silicon indirect capture detector
b.) amorphus selenium direct capture detector
c.) amorphus silicon direct capture detector
d.) a and b

A

d.) a and b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Distance and xray beam quantity or intensity share what kind of relationship ?

a.) inverse
b.) direct

A

a.) inverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

For a lateral projection of the forearm, the elbow should be flexed:

a.) 90 degrees
b.) 90-120 degrees
c.) 120 degrees
d.) 45 degrees

A

a.) 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Amorphus silicon is used as the:

a.) photoconductor for indirect capture DR imaging
b.) photodetector for indirect capture DR imaging
c.) photoconductor for direct capture DR imaging
d.) photodetector for direct capture DR Imaging

A

b.) photodetector for indirect capture DR imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Types of secondary radiation barriers include:

1.) the control booth
2.) lead aprons
3.) the xray tube

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 2 only

A

a.) 1, 2 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

At what dose does hematopoietic syndrome begin?

a.) 1 Gy (100 rad)
b.) 100 Gy (10000 rad)
c.) 0.1 Gy (10 rad)
d.) 10 Gy (1000rad)

A

a.) 1 Gy (100 rad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A measurement of the efficiency of an image receptor in converting xray exposure to a quality image describes:

a.) MTF
b.) dynamic range
c.) DQE
d.) FOV

A

c.) DQE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The __________ includes levels of accuracy, sensitivity, and specificicity of diagnosis and should include items such as the number of xrays taken per exam and the amount of radiation per exam.

a.) adverse event
b.) diagnostic reference level
c.) threshold of acceptability
d.) sentinel event

A

c.) threshold of acceptability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which of the following is (are) possible long term somatic effects of radiation?

1.) nausea and vomiting
2.) carinsogenesis
3.) leukemia

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1
d.) 1 and 2 only

A

a.) 2 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The normal average rate of respiration for a healthy adult patient is:

a.) 5 to 7 breaths/minute
b.) 8 to 12 breaths/minute
c.) 12 to 20 breaths/minute
d.) 20 to 30 breaths/minute

A

c.) 12 to 20 breaths/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Foreshortening can be caused by:

a.) the radiographic object being placed at an angle to the IR
b.) insuffiecient distance between the focus and the IR
c.) excessive distance between the object and the IR
d.) excessive angle of the tube to the IR

A

a.) the radiographic object being placed at an angle to the IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following is the “prep phase” that occurs prior to mitosis?

a.) prophase
b.) metaphase
c.) interphase
d.) anaphase

A

c.) interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Organizations that are not accredited: (choose all that apply)

a.) can only treat self paying patients
b.) will lose medicaid/medicare reimbursements
c.) lose their residency programs
d.) cannot get malpractice insurance
e.) cannot treat pediatric patients

A

b.) will lose medicaid/medicare reimbursements
c.) will lose their residency programs
d.) cannot get malpractive insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A decrease in brightness at the lateral edges of the image in called:

a.) veiling glare
b.) barrel distortion
c.) S distortion
d.) vignetting

A

d.) vignetting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

For a transthoracic lateral projection of the humerus, the epicondyles should be positioned:

a.) 30 degrees oblique to the IR (medial rotation)
b.) perpendicular to the IR
c.) parallel to the IR
d.) 45 degrees oblique to the IR (medial rotation)

A

b.) perpendicular to the IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The AP oblique projection, RPO position of the chest corresponds to and essentially produces the same image as the ____________ oblique projection, _________ position.

a.) AP, LPO
b.) PA, LAO
c.) PA, RAO

A

b.) PA, LAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When a patient with an arm injury needs help undressing, the radiographer should,

a.) always cut clothing away from the injured arm
b.) always remove clothing from the left arm first
c.) remove clothing from the uninjured arm first
d.) remove clothing from the injured arm first

A

c.) remove clothing from the uninjured arm first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A lateral knee radiograph that is over rotated toward the IR can be recognized by which of the following?

a.) the fibular head will appear less superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral
b.) the fibular head will appear more superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral
c.) the medial condyle of the femur will appear more posterior
d.) both A and C are correct

A

a.) the fibular head will appear less superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

A measure of the ability of a system to display contrast of anatomic objects varying in size describes:

a.) MTF
b.) OID
c.) FOV
d.) DQE

A

a.) MTF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which of the following patient rights is violated by discussing privleged patient information with an individual who is not involved with the patients care?

1.) the right to considerate and respectful care
2.) the right to privacy
3.) the right to continuity of care

a.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 2 only
d.) 1 only

A

c.) 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Radiographs are the property of the:

a.) radiologist
b.) health care institution
c.) patient
d.) referring physician

A

b.) health care institution

81
Q

Guidelines for the use of protective sheilding state that gonadal shielding should be used

1.) if the patient has reasonable reproductive potential
2.) when the gonads are within 5 cm of the collimated field
3.) when tight collimation is not possible

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1 only
c.) 1 and 3 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

A

d.) 1 and 2 only

82
Q

If a patient is unable to stand for an upright AP abdominal radiograph, which position should be used?

a.) right lateral decubitus
b.) left lateral decubitus
c.) ventral decubitus
d.) dorsal decubitus

A

b.) left lateral decubitus

83
Q

Which of the following methods will clearly demonstrate the petrous ridges, foramen magnum, dorsum sellae, and posterior clinoid processes?

1.) Haas (PA axial)
2.) Towne (AP axial
3.) schuller (SMV)

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 3 only
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 2 and 3 only

A

c.) 1 and 2 only

84
Q

Hypochloric bleach (clorox) and lysol are examples of:

a.) antiseptics
b.) disinfectants
c.) antifungal agents
d.) bacteriostatics

A

b.) disinfectants

85
Q

A patient who is diaphoretic has:

a.) warm, moist skin
b.) pale, cool clammy skin
c.) hot, dry skin
d.) dialated pupils

A

b.) pale, cool clammy skin

86
Q

If the AEC detectors are not completely covered by the part being imaged, exposing the cells to primary radiation, what is likely to occur?

a.) the IR will be exposed to the proper amount of radiation
b.) none of these choices are correct
c.) the exposure will terminate very quickly
d.) the patient will be overexposed

A

c.) the exposure will terminate very quickly

87
Q

__________ arises from the lateral portion of the vertebral arch near the junction of the lamina and pedicle

a.) spinous processes
b.) zygopophyseal joints
c.) transverse processes
d.) rib articulations

A

c.) transverse processes

88
Q

Which of the following structures is considered to be the most proximal?

a.) olecranon process
b.) head of the ulna
c.) coronoid process
d.) radial tuberosity

A

a.) olecranon process

89
Q

The joint commission sets their standards based on:

a.) medicare/medicaid conditions that must be met for reimbursements
b.) private insurance conditions that must be met for reimbursements
c.) conditions set by professional bodies (ARRT,ASRT)
d.) florence nightingales standards

A

a.) medicare/medicaid conditions that must be met for reimbursements

90
Q

The two bones that join together to form the top and sides of the cranial cavity are the:

a.) occipital bones
b.) parietal bones
c.) temporal bones
d.) sphenoid bones

A

b.) parietal bones

91
Q

Anode angle will have an effect on the:

1.) severity of the heel effect
2.) focal spot size
3.) heat load capacity

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 only
c.) 2 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

A

a.) 1, 2 and 3

92
Q

The two major types of effects that occur are the direct and indirect effect. The _____________ usually occurs with LET radiation and when ionization occurs at the DNA molecule itself.

a.) compton effect
b.) indirect effect
c.) direct effect

A

c.) direct effect

93
Q

A SMPTE pattern is best used to evaluate:

1.) dry laser printers
2.) electronic display devices
3.) image intensifiers
4.) DICOM systems

a.) 3 only
b.) 1 and 2
c.) 1, 2, 4
d.) 2 only

A

b.) 1 and 2

94
Q

The calcaneus articulates with the talus and the:

a.) cuboid
b.) lateral cuneiform
c.) medial cuneiform
d.) navicular

A

a.) cuboid

95
Q

An example of an internal customer would be:

a.) contrast vendor
b.) patients family member
c.) ER department
d.) patient

A

c.) ER department

96
Q

Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the skull?

a.) 3/4” anterior and 3/4” superior to EAM
b.) 2” superior to EAM
c.) midway between EAM and nasion
d.) EAM

A

b.) 2” superior to EAM

97
Q

Quality assessment:

a.) makes no effort to improve the level of care, just maintain it
b.) concerns only human factors
c.) focuses on the process, not the employee
d.) concerns only instruments and equipment

A

a.) makes no effort to improve the level of care, just maintain it

98
Q

The most accurate body temperature measurement can be obtained by what method?

a.) oral
b.) rectal
c.) tympanic
d.) axillary

A

b.) rectal

99
Q

The bending or forcing of the hand laterally with the hand pronated in a posteroanterior (PA) projection is known as:

a.) ulnar extension
b.) radial deviation
c.) ulnar deviation
d.) radial abduction

A

c.) ulnar deviation

100
Q

Which of the following are well demonstrated on a PA oblique projection of the wrist?

1.) capitate
2.) trapezium
3.) scaphoid

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 and 3 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

A

b.) 2 and 3 only

101
Q

Occasionally, a patient may have to be placed in the prone position for a sacrum xray and a PA projection performed. What is the CR angle for this projection?

a.) 15 degrees caudad
b.) 10 degrees caudad
c.) 15 degrees cephalad
d.) 10 degrees cephalad

A

a.) 15 degrees caudad

102
Q

A lateral lumbar spine image demonstrates adequate receptor exposure and acceptable contrast using a fixed technique. How will these image factors change if the same technique is used to acquire a collimated view of the L5-S1 articulation?

a.) no change in receptor exposure
b.) decreased receptor exposure
c.) increased receptor exposure

A

b.) decreased receptor exposure

103
Q

For an AP weight bearing feet projection, the CR should be:

a.) perpendicular to the image receptor
b.) directed horizontal
c.) angled 15 degrees posteriorly
d.) angled 5 degrees posteriorly

A

c.) angled 15 degrees posteriorly

104
Q

Accreditation is: (choose all that apply)

a.) the minimum, not the maximum
b.) a method established to determine if an organization is meeting minimum standards
c.) voluntary
d.) enforced by the ARRT

A

b.) a method established to determine if an organization is meeting minimum standards
c.) voluntary

105
Q

Which of the following best describes the position of the thymus gland?

a.) behind the manubrium
b.) in the mediastinum
c.) behind the heart
d.) in the anterior neck

A

a.) behind the manubrium

106
Q

A wedge, trough or boomerang filter is also known as:

a.) inherent filtration
b.) added filtration
c.) a compensating filter
d.) a device to replace added filtration

A

c.) a compensating filter

107
Q

Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the right anterior upper ribs?

a.) PA and RAO
b.) AP and LAO
c.) PA and LAO
d.) AP and RAO

A

c.) PA and LAO

108
Q

The ___________ which occurs more frequently, happens when ionization takes place away from the DNA molecule in the cellular water.

a.) compton effect
b.) direct effect
c.) indirect effect

A

c.) indirect effect

109
Q

The interaction between ionizing radiation and the target molecule that is most likely to occur is the:

a.) target effect
b.) random effect
c.) indirect effect
d.) direct effect

A

c.) indirect effect

110
Q

How does the target angle affect the size of the actual focal spot?

a.) it decreases the effective focal spot
b.) it has no affect
c.) it increases the actual focal spot
d.) it increases the effective focal spot

A

b.) it has no affect

111
Q

Which of the following is (are) symptoms of shock?

1.) pallor and weakness
2.) increased pulse rate
3.) fever

a.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 1, 2 and 3

A

b.) 1 and 2 only

112
Q

The ability of an xray imaging system to produce constant radiation output at various combinations of mA and exposure time, resulting in the same mAs is called:

a.) uniformity
b.) reproducibility
c.) linearity
d.) reciprocity

A

d.) reciprocity

113
Q

A heat sensor alarm should activate when ________% of the heat capacity is achieved.

a.) 75
b.) 20
c.) 63
d.) 50

A

a.) 75

114
Q

Besides the joint commission, what other organization is approved to accredit health care facilities?

a.) JCAHO
b.) ARRT
c.) DNV
d.) CMS

A

c.) DNV

115
Q

Which types of dose response relationship represents radiation induced leukemia and gentic effects?

a.) nonlinear, nonthreshold
b.) linear, nonthreshold
c.) nonlinear, threshold
d.) linear, threshold

A

b.) linear, nonthreshold

116
Q

If a chest xray is performed at 120 kv, 10 ma, 0.2 seconds, using a three phase generator with a correction factor of 1.35, How many HU (heat units) will be produced?

a.) 24 HU
b.) 3,240 HU
c.) 324 HU
d.) 240 HU

A

c.) 324 HU

117
Q

If the patient cannot be placed in the lordotic position for radiography of the pulmonary apices, what is the central ray angle that can be used to project the clavicles above the apices?

a.) 15-20 degrees caudad
b.) 5-10 degrees cephalad
c.) 15-20 degrees cephalad
d.) 5-10 degrees caudad

A

c.) 15-20 degrees cephalad

118
Q

When reviewing a patients blood chemistry levels, what is considered a normal creatinine range?

a.) up to 50 mg/100 mL
b.) 8 to 25 mg/100mL
c.) 4.5 to 6 mg/100mL
d.) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100mL

A

d.) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100mL

119
Q

What syndrome most likely occurs when a person is exposed to 1 to 10 gy (100 to 1000 rad) of ionizing radiation?

a.) cerebrovascular syndrome
b.) hematopoietic syndrome
c.) gastrointestinal syndrome
d.) prodromal

A

b.) hematopoietic syndrome

120
Q

The IR must be elevated how many degrees for the PA axial projection of the wrist (stretcher method) ?

a.) 15 degrees
b.) 20 degrees
c.) 10 degrees
d.) 5 degrees

A

b.) 20 degrees

121
Q

Which acute radiation syndrome requires the largest exposure before the associated effects become apparent?

a.) hematopoietic
b.) skeletal
c.) central nervous system (CNS)
d.) gastrointestinal

A

c.) central nervous system (CNS)

122
Q

Somatic effects of radiation refer to effects that are manifested:

a.) in the reproductive cells of the exposed individual
b.) in the future
c.) in the exposed individual and his or her descendants
d.) during the life of the exposed individual

A

d.) during the life of the exposed individual

123
Q

A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures?

1.) pylorous
2.) sigmoid
3.) duodenum

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 3 only
c.) 1 and 3 only
d.) 2 and 3 only

A

c.) 1 and 3 only

124
Q

Compared with a low ratio grid, a high ratio grid will:

1.) allow more centering latitude
2.) absorb more scattered radiation
3.) absorb more primary radiation

a.) 2 and 3
b.) 1 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 2

A

a.) 2 and 3

125
Q

The usual patient preperation for an upper GI exam is:

a.) NPO 24 hours before the exam
b.) light breakfast only on the morning of the exam
c.) clear fluids only on the morning of the exam
d.) NPO 8 hours before the exam

A

d.) NPO 8 hours before the exam

126
Q

The adductor tubercle is located on the:

a.) lateral femoral condyle
b.) lateral tibial condyle
c.) medial femoral condyle
d.) medial tibial condyle

A

c.) medial femoral condyle

127
Q

Which of the following may be used to effectively reduce the viscosity of contrast media?

a.) refrigeration
b.) warming
c.) storage at a normal room temperature
d.) storage in a cool, dry place

A

b.) warming

128
Q

An individuals legal documents identifying his or her specific wishes regarding medical care to be provided in the event that he or she is unable to make or communicate decisions is called:

1.) advanced health care directive
2.) informed consent
3.) last will and testament

a.) 1 only
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1, 2 and 3

A

a.) 1 only

129
Q

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cervical spine reveals that the ramus of the mandible is superimposed over the spine. What could the technologist have done to prevent this?

a.) have the patient hold 5 to 10 pounds in each hand
b.) increase the extension of the skull
c.) increase the flexion of the skull
d.) angle the CR 3 to 5 degrees caudad

A

b.) increase the extension of the skull

130
Q

Phantom artifacts can occur due to:

a.) heat
b.) radiation fog
c.) not erasing the IR
d.) backscatter

A

c.) not erasing the IR

131
Q

Which organization has the authority to impose professional sanctions on a radiographer?

a.) ARRT
b.) ASRT
c.) JCERT
d.) TJC

A

a.) ARRT

132
Q

An xray of an AP pelvis reveals that the lesser trochanters are not visible. What correction should be performed?

a.) nothing
b.) ensure ASIS is equal distance
c.) rotate the lower limbs more internally
d.) angle the CR 10-15 degrees cephalad

A

a.) nothing

133
Q

Indirect action usually involves what molecule first?

a.) DNA
b.) critical
c.) RNA
d.) water

A

d.) water

134
Q

The head of the radius articulates on the medial side with the:

a.) coronoid process
b.) radial notch
c.) ulnar styloid process
d.) trochlear notch

A

b.) radial notch

135
Q

The presence of free air in the thorax is termed:

a.) tuberculosis
b.) pneumothorax
c.) pneumonia
d.) emphysema

A

b.) pneumothorax

136
Q

The shallow depression, located on the anterior medial side of the distal humerus, receives which of the following when the elbow is flexed?

a.) coronoid process
b.) capitulum
c.) trochlea
d.) radial head

A

a.) coronoid process

137
Q

Added filtration affects the xray beam in what way?

a.) higher patient dose
b.) higher beam quantity
c.) poorer beam quality
d.) increased beam hardening

A

d.) increased beam hardening

138
Q

Where will the fibula be located on a properly positioned lateral radiograph of the lower leg?

a.) directly over the tibia
b.) behind the tibia
c.) over the posterior half of the tibia
d.) over the anterior half of the tibia

A

c.) over the posterior half of the tibia

139
Q

The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed:

a.) disinfection
b.) sterilization
c.) surgical asepsis
d.) medical asepsis

A

c.) surgical asepsis

140
Q

If the radiographer has the oppurtunity to set the back up time, it should be approximately _________ of the expected exposure time.

a.) 50%
b.) 150%
c.) 600%
d.) 275%

A

b.) 150%

141
Q

Any variations between the stated kilovolt (peak) on the control panel and the measured kilovolt (peak) must be plus or minus ___________ %

a.) 10
b.) 20
c.) 2
d.) 5

A

d.) 5

142
Q

The first cervical vertebra is called the:

a.) vertebra prominens
b.) atlas
c.) axis
d.) dens

A

b.) atlas

143
Q

An xray of a PA axial (caldwell) of the skull reveals that the petrous ridges are located at the level of the lower one third of the orbits. The tech performed this projection with the CR angled 15 degrees caudal to the OML. How must positioning be altered if a repeat exposure is performed?

a.) increase extension of the skull
b.) increase the CR angle
c.) nothing, positioning was correct
d.) increase flexion of the skull

A

c.) nothing, positioning was correct

144
Q

Which of the following kv ranges is recommended for a KUB on an adult?

a.) 110-120
b.) 70-80
c.) 50-60
d.) 90-100

A

b.) 70-80

145
Q

A 3 phase-12 pulse generator will produce how many pulses each second?

a.) 1/120
b.) 720
c.) 360
d.) 1/1000

A

b.) 720

146
Q

How is the CR directed for the PA axial projection (holmblad method) of the intercondylar fossa?

a.) perpendicular to the lower leg
b.) perpendicular to the femur
c.) 40-50 degrees to the lower leg
d.) 90 degrees to the femur

A

a.) perpendicular to the lower leg

147
Q

A technologist is performing a PA chest radiograph on a bariatric patient using an automatic exposure control (AEC) system. Which of the following changes will be noted if the technologist increases the mA?

a.) increased patient dose
b.) decreased contrast
c.) decreased exposure rate
d.) increased receptor exposure

A

c.) decreased exposure time

148
Q

How many bones make up the adult vertebral column?

a.) 26
b.) 33
c.) 28
d.) 31

A

a.) 26

149
Q

For a non DR system the most common type of image intensifier is the:

a.) tube type
b.) flat panel

A

a.) tube type

150
Q

A radiograph of the left SI joint demonstrates it open and clearly seen. Which of the following positions was performed?

a.) RPO
b.) RAO
c.) LPO
d.) AP

A

a.) RPO

151
Q

HVL is best used to measure:

a.) reproducibility of exposure
b.) linearity
c.) focal spot size
d.) filtration

A

d.) filtration

152
Q

Which age group tends to develop fears of injury, disease or death?

a.) school age children
b.) infants
c.) toddlers
d.) preschoolers

A

a.) school age children

153
Q

Which type of personel radiation monitor can provide an immediate reading?

a.) ionization chamber
b.) thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)
c.) optically stimulated luminescense (OLS)
d.) film badge

A

a.) ionization chamber

154
Q

According to the basic principles of radiation protection, a radiographer should minimize what?

a.) distance
b.) shielding
c.) patient protection
d.) time

A

d.) time

155
Q

A disadvantage of using magnification mode during fluroscopy is:

a.) the image has less resolution
b.) the image brightness is inconsistent
c.) the patient recieves additional dose
d.) none of the above

A

c.) the patient receives additional dose

156
Q

A small anode angle will do which of the following?

a.) increase image receptor exposure because of lack of electron absorption from the anode
b.) increase spatial resolution by creating a small effective focal spot
c.) decrease spatial resolution by creating a large effective focal spot
d.) increase heat dissipation due to a larger surface area being bombarded by electrons

A

b.) increase spatial resolution by creating a small effective focal spot

157
Q

An incident that costs a facility money or its reputation is:

a.) diagnostic reference
b.) an adverse event
c.) loss potential
d.) risk

A

c.) loss potential

158
Q

An esophagram might be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms?

1.) varices
2.) achlasia
3.) dysphasia

a.) 1 and 2 only
b.) 1 and 3 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 1, 2 and 3

A

a.) 1 and 2 only

159
Q

For a PA projection of the second digit, the CR is directed to the:

a.) proximal interphalangeal joint
b.) distal interphalangeal joint
c.) carpometacarpal joint
d.) metacarpophalangeal joint

A

a.) proximal interphalangeal joint

160
Q

A current with a single path for electric current flow is defined as an:

a.) parallel circuit
b.) open circuit
c.) closed circuit
d.) series circuit

A

d.) series circuit

161
Q

How should the patient remain in position before making the exposure when performing a projection in the lateral or dorsal decubitus position?

a.) 5 minutes
b.) 1 minute
c.) 10 minutes
d.) 2 minutes

A

c.) 10 minutes

162
Q

A dorsal decubitus abdomen is ordered on a patient. The patient is placed on his back on a cart. The CR will enter the left side of the patient with the patient’s right side against the image receptor. What type of marker should be used?

a.) right and decubitus markers
b.) left and decubitus markers
c.) use post processing annotation

A

a.) right and decubitus markers

163
Q

All of the following are true about windowing except:

a.) window level adjustments change the contrast of the image
b.) saving adjusted windowing settings to the PACS system narrows the dynamic range for future viewers
c.) windowing is referred to as a post processing manipulation procedure
d.) windowing occurs after the image is displayed on a monitor

A

a.) window level adjustments change the contrast of the image

164
Q

A fluoro system equipped with an ABC mechanism with the xray tube below the table, moving the image intensifier away from the patient will:

a.) reduce image size of an anatomic structure
b.) decrease patient dose
c.) increase patient dose
d.) increase the size of the radiation field at the table top

A

c.) increase patient dose

165
Q

Increasing patient thickness while using an AEC device would results in:

a.) increased exposure time
b.) increased image contrast
c.) decreased mas readout
d.) decreased brightness

A

a.) increased exposure time

166
Q

Which of the following passes throught the carpel tunnel?

a.) radial nerve
b.) median vein
c.) radial vein
d.) medial nerve

A

d.) medial nerve

167
Q

Which projection will clearly demonstrate the joint spaces between the talus and both malleoli?

a.) AP oblique, 45 degree internal rotation
b.) AP
c.) AP oblique, 45 degree external rotation
d.) Ap oblique, 15 to 20 degree internal rotation

A

d.) AP oblique, 15 to 20 degree internal rotation

168
Q

The measurement of oxygen saturation of the blood is accomplished with a:

a.) blood test
b.) stethoscope
c.) sphygmomanometer
d.) pulse oximeter

A

d.) pulse oximeter

169
Q

The bucky slot cover is in place to protect the:

1.) patient
2.) fluoroscopist
3.) technologist

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1 only

A

c.) 2 and 3 only

170
Q

The following is not considered a short term somatic effect of radiation

a.) nausea
b.) loss of hair
c.) diffused redness of the skin
d.) cancer

A

d.) cancer

171
Q

In a tungsten atom, a brems interaction will occur when the incident electron __________

a.) strikes the nucleus
b.) strikes an outer shell electron
c.) interacts with force field around the nucleus
d.) strikes an inner shell electron

A

c.) interacts with the force field around the nucleus

172
Q

A radiograph of a PA oblique of the hand reveals that the midaspect of the fourth and fifth metacarpals is superimposed. What specific positioning error has been commited?

a.) incorrect CR angulation
b.) fingers are not parallel to the IR
c.) excessive rotation of the hand/wrist
d.) insufficient rotation of the hand/wrist

A

c.) excessive rotation of the hand/wrist

173
Q

All of the joints of the foot are synovial (freely movable) except the:

a.) patellofemoral
b.) distal tibiofibular
c.) proximal tibiofibular
d.) femorotibial

A

b.) distal tibiofibular

174
Q

A large anode angle will produce which of the following?

a.) decreased image receptor exposure
b.) increased image receptor exposure
c.) increase in spatial resolution
d.) a large heel effect

A

b.) increase image receptor exposure

175
Q

The xray interaction with matter that is responsible for the majority of scattered radiation reaching the image receptor (IR) is:

a.) compton scatter
b.) pair production
c.) classical scatter
d.) the photoelectric effect

A

a.) compton scatter

176
Q

What is the recommended SID for the lateral sternum position?

a.) 40 degrees
b.) 46 degrees
c.) 72 degrees
d.) 44 degrees

A

c.) 72 degrees

177
Q

Which of the following is considered a barrier to communicating with another?

a.) distracting enviroment
b.) disagreeing
c.) language
d.) complex medical terms
e.) all the above

A

e.) all the above

178
Q

A patient whose systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mmHg is usually considered:

a.) baseline
b.) hyposensitive
c.) hypersensitive
d.) average/normal

A

b.) hyposensitive

179
Q

Beam quantity should be within:

a.) 1%
b.) 10%
c.) 2%
d.) 5%

A

b.) 10%

180
Q

If the lateral decubitus position is used to demonstrate fluid in the pleural cavity, on which side must the patientlie?

a.) unaffected side
b.) either side
c.) affected side

A

c.) affected side

181
Q

Compton scattering involves the xray photon

a.) being absorbed in the atom
b.) removing an inner shell electron
c.) passing through the atom without any change
d.) removing a middle or outer shell electron

A

d.) removing a middle or outer shell electron

182
Q

When imaging the foot, the _________ position is used to demonstrate anterior/posterior displacements of bony structures and to localize foreign bodies.

a.) axial
b.) lateral
c.) oblique
d.) AP (dorsoplantar)

A

b.) lateral

183
Q

What is the degree of body rotation for the PA oblique, LAO position of the chest during a cardiac series?

a.) 45 degrees
b.) 55-60 degrees
c.) 50 degrees
d.) 60-70 degrees

A

b.) 55-60 degrees

184
Q

All of the following are components of a fluoro system except:

a.) image intensifier
b.) generator
c.) video monitoring system
d.) image plate reader
e.) xray tube

A

d.) image plate reader

185
Q

What is the established annual occupational dose equivalent limit for the extremities?

a.) 50 msv
b.) 200msv
c.) 10msv
d.) 500 smv

A

d.) 500 msv

186
Q

Which of the following technical factors do not apply to lateral nasal bone projections?

a.) the tech should not use AEC
b.) the tech should use a small focal spot
c.) the tech should use low to medium kv
d.) all of the above apply

A

d.) all of the above apply

187
Q

ALl of the following are related to spatial resolution except:

a.) SID
b.) focal spot size
c.) milliamperage
d.) OID

A

c.) milliamperage

188
Q

With the radial head projection what is the only difference between the four projections?

a.) the SID used for each projection
b.) the amount of flexion of the elbow
c.) the position of the hand/wrist
d.) the CR angulation

A

c.) the position of the hand/wrist

189
Q

Mr. jones comes to the radiology department for an examination. He informs the technologist that heis having severe paine. this data would be listed as:

a.) subjective data
b.) objective data
c.) validating
d.) acceptance

A

a.) subjective data

190
Q

What is the length of time between radiation exposure and death from cerebrovascular syndrome?

a.) 1 to 15 minutes
b.) about a week
c.) from hours up to 2 to 3 days
d.) roughly a month

A

c.) from hours up to 2 to 3 days

191
Q

which of the following must be included in the patients medical record or chart?

1.) diagnostic and therapeutic orders
2.) medical history
3.) informed consent

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 3 only

A

a.) 2 and 3 only

192
Q

The large aperture in the occipital bone, through which the medulla oblangata and spinal cord exit, is termed the:

a.) hypoglossal canal
b.) occipital protuberance
c.) basilar part
d.) foramen magnum

A

d.) foramen magnum

193
Q

The pituitary gland is associated with and prottected by the __________ bone.

a.) sphenoid
b.) temporal
c.) ethmoid
d.) palatinea

A

a.) sphenoid

194
Q

PA oblique projections of the should (Y) is performed to evaluate

a.) carcinoma
b.) fractures
c.) soft tissue swelling
d.) dislocations

A

d.) dislocations

195
Q

Which of the following conditions is not considered a pathologic indication for an acute abdominal series?

a.) kidney stones
b.) intraabdominal mass
c.) infection
d.) obstruction

A

a.) kidney stones

196
Q

As electrons collide with the anode surface less than 1% of their kinetic energy is charged to:

a.) gamma rays
b.) xrays
c.) recoil electrons
d.) heat

A

b.) xrays

197
Q

For a lateral decubitus chest image, the:

1.) shoulders and posterior ribs are positioned perpendicular to the cart
2.) humeri are positioned at a 90 degree angle with the IR
3.) midcoronal plane is aligned perpendicular to the IR
4.) patient is elevated on a radiolucent sponge of cardiac board

a.) 1 and 4 only
b.) 1, 2, 4
c.) 1, 2, 3, 4
d.) 2 and 3

A

a.) 1 and 4 only

198
Q

How many phalanges are in the hand?

a.) 27
b.) 30
c.) 14
d.) 32

A

c.) 14

199
Q

If there is inaccuracy of the timer, what could result?

A

increased patient dose

Mocks/Review (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions