Mock 2

Question 1

___________ interact with tungsten atoms and create a brems or characteristic xray.

a.) characteristic electrons
b.) photons
c.) electrons and photons
d.) electrons

Answer 1

d.) electrons

Question 2

According to the NCRP the annual occupational whole body dose equivalent limit is _____________ msv (5 rem or 5000 mrem)

a.) 30
b.) 500
c.) 50
d.) .5

Answer 2

c.) 50

Question 3

The annual occupational whole body dose equivalent limit for students under the age of 18 years is 1 msv aka 100mrem or 0.1 rem.

a.) 100 msv
b.) 5 msv
c.) 1 msv
d.) 10msv

Answer 3

c.) 1 msv

Question 4

___________ is the push or pull that changes the motion of the object.

a.) acceleration
b.) momentum
c.) force
d.) velocity

Answer 4

c.) force

Question 5

Structures involved in a blowout fracture include the:

1.) orbital floor
2.) inferior rectus muscle
3.) zygoma

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 5

d.) 1 and 2 only

Question 6

When a switch is closed, electric current _____________; when a switch is opened, electric current ___________.

a.) stops; flows
b.) becomes AC; becomes DC
c.) flows; stops
d.) stops; turns to AC

Answer 6

c.) flows; stops

Question 7

At what dose does hemapoietic syndrome begin?

a.) 10 Gy (1000 rad)
b.) 0.1 Gy (10 rad)
c.) 100 Gy (10000 rad)
d.) 1 Gy ( 100 rad)

Answer 7

d.) 1 Gy (100 rad)

Question 8

Which of the following types of grids will allow for the least amount of centering and/or positioning latitude?

a.) 16:1
b.) 12:1
c.) 5:1
d.) no grid

Answer 8

a.) 16:1

Question 9

To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

a.) are radiographed in palmar flexion
b.) must be supported parallel to the IR
c.) rest on the IR for immobilization
d.) are radiographed in natural flexion

Answer 9

b.) must be supported parallel to the IR

Question 10

The term osmolarity refers to which of the following?

a.) how a substance dissolves in water
b.) the thickness of a liquid
c.) whether a molecule seperates into ions in a solution
d.) the concentration of particles in a solution

Answer 10

d.) the concentration of particles in a solution

Question 11

What does the acronym PACS stand for?

a.) practitioner acquisition and communication system
b.) picture archiving and communication system
c.) picture acquisition and communication system
d.) practitioner archiving and communication system

Answer 11

b.) picture archiving and communication system

Question 12

During a grand mal seizuer, the patient should be:

a.) given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury
b.) allowed to thrash freely
c.) placed in a semiupright position to prevent aspiration
d.) protected from injury

Answer 12

d.) protected from injury

Question 13

The phosphor layer of a CR PSP plate is composed of:

a.) barium fluorohalide and euporium activators
b.) barium fluorohalide and amorphus silicon
c.) amorphous silicon and cesium iodide turbid or structured crystals
d.) amorphous silicon and euporium activators

Answer 13

a.) barium fluorohalide and euporium activators

Question 14

The smaller the area of xray exposure, the lower the pt. dose.

a.) true
b.) false

Answer 14

a.) true

Question 15

The reduction of voltage and development of high amperage by a step down transformer occurs in the:

a.) high tension portion of the secondary circuit
b.) primary portion of the circuit
c.) secondary portion of the circuit
d.) none of the options are correct

Answer 15

d.) none of the options are correct

Question 16

The largest amount of diagnostic xray absorption is most likely to occur in which of the following tissues?

a.) adipose
b.) lung
c.) bone
d.) muscle

Answer 16

c.) bone

Question 17

Which of the following types of radiation is/are considered electromagnetic?
1.) xray
2.) gamma
3.) beta

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 only

Answer 17

c.) 1 and 2 only

Question 18

Which of the following barium filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?

a.) ileocecal valve
b.) hepatic/right colic flexure
c.) sigmoid colon
d.) splenic/left colic flexure

Answer 18

b.) hepatic/right colic flexure

Question 19

A vasovagal response experienced after injection of a contrast agent is characterized by all of the following symptoms except:

a.) nausea
b.) hypertension
c.) anxiety
d.) syncope

Answer 19

b.) hypertension

Question 20

A 3 phase- 6 pulse generator will produce how many pulses each second?

a.) 720
b.) 1/60
c.) 360
d.) 1/120

Answer 20

c.) 360

Question 21

The skin response to radiation exposure, which appears as reddening of the irradiated skin area, is known as:

a.) erythema
b.) moist desquamation
c.) epilation
d.) dry desquamation

Answer 21

a.) erythema

Question 22

Which of the following is/are located on the anterior aspect of the femur?
1.) patellar surface
2.) intertrochanteric crest
3.) linea aspera

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 22

c.) 1 only

Question 23

To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that

a.) a line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical
b.) the glabellomeatal line is vertical
c.) the acanthiomeatal line is vertical
d.) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

Answer 23

d.) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

Question 24

During an IV bolus injection of contrast media, the injection of contrast media into the tissues surrounding the vessel is called:

a.) absorption
b.) resorption
c.) infiltration
d.) extravasation

Answer 24

d.) extravasation

Question 25

The radiographic image is formed principally by which of the following?

a.) photoelectric interactions
b.) classical scattering
c.) uniform distribution of remnant xrays
d.) compton interactions

Answer 25

a.) photoelectric interactions

Question 26

The stream projected toward the anode is called:

a.) target
b.) effective focal spot
c.) actual focal spot
d.) imaging spot

Answer 26

c.) actual focal spot

Question 27

The interaction between xray photons and tissue that is responsible for radiographic contrast but that also contributes significantly to patient dose is:

a.) compton scatter
b.) pair production
c.) coherent scatter
d.) the photoelectric effect

Answer 27

d.) the photoelectric effect

Question 28

Which of the following bones participates in the formation of the knee joint?

1.) femur
2.) tibia
3.) patella

a.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 28

d.) 1 and 2 only

Question 29

If an xray beam has an intensity of 1.2 mGy at a distance of 38”, what will the intensity be at a 72” SID?

a.) 0.33 mGy
b.) 4.3 mGy
c.) 0.67 mGy
d.) 0.033 mGy

Answer 29

a.) 0.33 mGy

Question 30

The target theory applies to:

a.) oocytes
b.) spermatogonia
c.) DNA molecules
d.) lymphocytes

Answer 30

c.) DNA molecules

Question 31

The following position is used to demonstrate the lumbosacral zygopophyseal articulation:

a.) AP
b.) 30 degree RPO
c.) 45 degree RPO
d.) lateral

Answer 31

b.) 30 degree RPO

Question 32

The thoracic zygopophyseal joints are demonstrated with the:

a.) coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR
b.) coronal plane 20 degrees to the IR
c.) MSP 90 degrees to the IR
d.) MSP 20 degrees to the IR

Answer 32

d.) MSP 20 degrees to the IR

Question 33

Which of the following photon interactions contribute to the attenuation of the xray beam?
1.) coherent scattering
2.) photoelectric absorption
3.) compton scattering

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 only
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1 only

Answer 33

a.) 1, 2 and 3

Question 34

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the
1.) vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed
2.) acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed
3.) inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs

a.) 1 and 2
b.) 1 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 3

Answer 34

b.) 1 only

Question 35

To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA projection, the

a.) skull is obliqued away from the affected side
b.) skull is obliqued toward the affected side
c.) CR is directed perpendicular to the IR
d.) CR is directed cephalad to the IR

Answer 35

c.) CR is directed perpendicular to the IR

Question 36

All of the following are acceptable ways to reduce radiation exposure except:

a.) use AP instead of PA projections
b.) use last image hold feature
c.) use a fast speed IR
d.) use intermittent (pulsed) fluoroscopy

Answer 36

a.) use AP instead of PA projections

Question 37

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?

1.) with the humerus parallel to the IR, CR perpendicular
2.) with forearm parallel to the IR, CR perpendicular
3.) through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 37

d.) 1 and 2 only

Question 38

Which of the following terms are related to xray beam quantity?

a.) HVL
b.) energy
c.) penetrability
d.) intensity

Answer 38

d.) intensity

Question 39

Immature cells are referred to as:

1.) undifferentiated cells
2.) stem cells
3.) genetic cells

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 39

d.) 1 and 2 only

Question 40

A motion picture camera is called:

a.) cinefluorography
b.) DVR
c.) spot film device
d.) spot film camera

Answer 40

a.) cinefluorography

Question 41

The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheal vessels is classified as:

a.) neurogenic
b.) hypovolemic
c.) septic
d.) cardiogenic

Answer 41

a.) neurogenic

Question 42

The genetic dose of radiation borne by each member of the reproductive population is called the:

a.) somatic related dose
b.) genetically related dose
c.) genetically significant dose
d.) somatic significant dose

Answer 42

c.) genetically significant dose

Question 43

Which of the following articulates with the bases of the metatarsals?

1.) the heads of the first row of phalanges
2.) the cuboid
3.) the cuneiform

a.) 1 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 43

c.) 2 and 3 only

Question 44

All of the following positions are likely to be used for both single- and double- contrast examinations of the large bowel except:

a.) AP axial rectosigmoid
b.) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
c.) lateral rectum
d.) RAO and LAO abdomen

Answer 44

b.) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen

Question 45

What term refers to unwants IR exposure caused by scatter?

a.) noise
b.) DQE
c.) fog
d.) mottle

Answer 45

c.) fog

Question 46

An xray system with unreliable exposure reproducibility may result in which two adverse effects?

a.) improper receptor exposure
b.) increased distortion
c.) unacceptable spatial resolution
d.) unnecessary patient exposure

Answer 46

a.) improper receptor exposure
d.) unnecessary patient exposure

Question 47

Which of the following lab tests are important for evaluating renal function before injection of iodine contrast media?
1.) creatanine
2.) complete blood count (CBC)
3.) glomerular filtration rate ( GFR)
4.) blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

a.) 1 and 4 only
b.) 1, 3 and 4
c.) 1 and 3 only
d.) 4 and 5 only
e.) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 47

b.) 1, 3 and 4

Question 48

When processing a CR cassette, the term slow scan describes a laser light moving over a stationary IR.

a.) true
b.) false

Answer 48

b.) false

Question 49

To visualize or ‘‘open’’ the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned

a.) 30-40 degrees RPO
b.) 30-40 degrees LPO
c.) 25-30 degrees LPO
d.) 25-30 degrees RPO

Answer 49

c.) 25-30 degrees LPO

Question 50

Which of the following carpals is best demonstrated by ulnar flexion/deviation?

1.) medial carpals
2.) lateral carpals
3.) schaphoid

a.) 1 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 50

b.) 2 and 3 only

Question 51

Which of the following will increase beam attenuation?

a.) decreasing tissue density
b.) thicker anatomic part
c.) higher kilovoltage
d.) lower atomic number

Answer 51

b.) thicker anatomic part

Question 52

Premedication is recquired for which type of patient undergoing IV injection of contrast media?

a.) patients with chronic or acute renal failure
b.) patients with elevated BUN or creatanine
c.) patients with diabetes
d.) patients with known allergy to iodine

Answer 52

d.) patients with known allergy to iodine

Question 53

Which tube stand configuration is the most versatile design and the most widely used in todays hospital setting?

a.) floor ceiling mount
b.) wall mount
c.) floor mount
d.) ceiling mount

Answer 53

d. ceiling mount

Question 54

The xray beam changes as it travels throught the patient by a process called:

a.) filtration
b.) annhilation
c.) attenuation
d.) electrification

Answer 54

c.) attenuation

Question 55

Which of the following is/are demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine?

1.) intervetebral foramina
2.) zygopophyseal joints
3.) intervetebral joints

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 only

Answer 55

b.) 2 and 3only

Question 56

Indirect action usually involves what molecule first?

a.) critical
b.) RNA
c.) DNA
d.) water

Answer 56

d.) water

Question 57

Barium sulfate is used for what type of xray examinations?

a.) urinary system
b.) gastrointestinal system
c.) vascular system
d.) endocrine system

Answer 57

b.) gastrointestinal system

Question 58

A patient unable to extend his/her arm is seated at the end of the xray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. the CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

1.) radial head
2.) capitulum
3.) coronoid process

a.) 1 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 58

d.) 1 and 2 only

Question 59

A particular radiograph was produced using 12 mAs and 85 kVp witha 12:1 ratio grid. The radiograph is to be repeated using an 8:1 ratio grid. What should be the new milliampere seconds value?

a.) 8
b.) 10
c.) 6
d.) 3

Answer 59

b.) 10

Question 60

Which of the following has/have been identified as sources of radon exposure?
1.) indoors, in houses
2.) smoking cigarettes
3.) radiology departments

a.) 1 only
b.) 1,2 and 3
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 2 and 3only

Answer 60

c.) 1 and 2 only

Question 61

A tech is using a variable kvp technique chart for a certain table top exam. The chart calls for 80 kvp but the tech uses 125 kvp. The resulting image will likely demonstrate:

a.) no visible errors
b.) quantam mottle artifact
c.) loss of contrast
d.) saturation artifact

Answer 61

d.) saturation artifact

Question 62

A DEL is also known as a:

a.) pixel
b.) CCD
c.) TFT
d.) AMA

Answer 62

a.) pixel

Question 63

How should a patient be instructed to breath for an AP soft tissue neck exam?

a.) slow, deep inspiration
b.) suspend after inspiration
c.) suspend after expiration
d.) slow, deep expiration

Answer 63

a.) slow, deep inspiration

Question 64

In the AP axial projection, or bilateral ‘‘frog leg” position, which of the following is most likely to place the long axes of the femoral necks parallel with the plane of the IR?

a.) adducted 25 degrees from the vertical
b.) abducted 40 degrees from the vertical
c.) abducted 25 degrees from the vertical
d.) adducted 40 degrees from the vertical

Answer 64

b.) abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

Question 65

Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?

a.) right ilium
b.) left ilium
c.) right sacroiliac joint
d.) left sacroiliac joint

Answer 65

d.) left sacroiliac joint

Question 66

A semiannual or annual QC test would be:

1.) generator testing
2.) film processor maintenance if hard copies are printed
3.) clean CRT screen monitors
4.) evaluate exposure indicator accuracy

a.) 1 and 4
b.) 1 only
c.) 2 and 3
d.) 2, 3 and 4

Answer 66

a.) 1 and 4

Question 67

The most proximal portion of the pharynx is the:

a.) laryngopharynx
b.) oropharynx
c.) epiglottis
d.) nasopharynx

Answer 67

d.) nasopharynx

Question 68

Which of the following is/are part of the bony thorax?
1.) manubrium
2.) clavicles
3.) 24 ribs

a.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 only

Answer 68

a.) 1 and 3 only

Question 69

What are the effects of scatter radiation on a radiographic image?

1.) it produces fog
2.) it increases contrast
3.) it decreases recorded detail
4.) it increases noise

a.) 1 only
b.) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c.) 1 and 3 only
d.) 1 and 4 only

Answer 69

a.) 1 only

Question 70

This describes the visible digital image (after processing)

a.) latent image
b.) manifest image
c.) mottle
d.) matrix

Answer 70

b.) manifest image

Question 71

For which of the following exams would barium sulfate be the contrast media of choice?

a.) myelogram
b.) arthrogram
c.) intravenous pyelogram
d.) small bowel

Answer 71

d.) small bowel

Question 72

If the distance from the source is charged from 72 inches to 36 inches and the original beam intensity was 200 mR, what is the new intensity?

a.) 400 mR
b.) 100 mR
c.) 800 mR
d.) 50 mR

Answer 72

c.) 800 mR

Question 73

Xray beam intensity is a term describing the :

a.) number of photons
b.) frequency of photons
c.) maximum energy of photons
d.) photon quality

Answer 73

a.) number of photons

Question 74

An inanimate object that has been in contact with an infectious microorganism is termed a :

a.) resevoir
b.) host
c.) vector
d.) fomite

Answer 74

d.) fomite

Question 75

Which of the following respiration rates would most likely apply to an adult patient with a diagnosis of tachypnea?

a.) 12 breaths per minute
b.) 30 breaths per minute
c.) 20 breaths per minute
d.) 6 breaths per minute

Answer 75

b.) 30 breaths per minute

Question 76

Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

a.) Oblique
b.) recumbent
c.) erect
d.) trendelenburg

Answer 76

c.) erect

Question 77

An xray of a chest was performed at a 72” SID. If a patients heart was 8” away from the image receptor, what would be the percentage of magnification?

a.) 8
b.) 1.2
c.) 0.01
d.) 10

Answer 77

d.) 10

Question 78

Which of the following is/are associated with a colles fracture?

1.) transverse fracture of the radial head
2.) chip fracture of the ulnar styloid
3.) posterior or backward displacement

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 and 3 only
d.) 1 only

Answer 78

b.) 2 and 3 only

Question 79

A high frequency generator can use current that has been altered to as much as ___________ Hz before being rectified.

a.) 60
b.) 100,000
c.) 60,000
d.) 120

Answer 79

b.) 100,000

Question 80

A radiograph of the abdomen is performed using 85 kvp, 10 mas, a 60’’ sid and no grid. If the exam is repeated using a 6:1 grid, what new mas would maintain proper IR exposure?

a.) 36.0 mas
b.) 360 mas
c.) 3.33 mas
d.) 30 mas

Answer 80

d.) 30 mas

Question 81

Beam quantity should be within:

a.) 5%
b.) 10%
c.) 2%
d.) 1%

Answer 81

b.) 10%

Question 82

In the PA axial oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the:

a.) intervetebral foramina nearest the IR
b.) interarticular joints
c.) intervetebral foramina furtherest from the IR
d.) intervetebral joints

Answer 82

a.) intervetebral foramina nearest the IR

Question 83

An xray generator that is used on the battlefield is called a:

a.) mobile
b.) Portable

Answer 83

b.) portable

Question 84

Immediately after Mr. Miller recieves an IV injection of iodinated contrast media, he complains of pruritus and you observe that he has two hives on his neck. What should your response to this situation be?

a.) recognize the onset of a severe reaction and alert the radiologist immediately
b.) no response is necessary since these are signs of a mild reaction
c.) recognize a moderate reaction and make sure that IV access is maintained
d.) monitor mr. millers vital signs and be alert for further reactions for at least 20 to 30 minutes

Answer 84

d.) monitor mr. millers vital signs and be alert for further reactions for at least 20-30 minutes

Question 85

In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris recquired for an accurate diagnosis?

1.) supine flexion 45 degrees (merchant)
2.) prone flexion 90 degrees ( settegast)
3.) prone flexion 55 degrees (hughston)

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 1 only

Answer 85

c.) 1 only

Question 86

To avoid damaging the xray tube components, the electrical power supplied to the xray tube must be:

a.) low voltage
b.) high voltage
c.) alternating current
d.) direct current

Answer 86

d.) direct current

Question 87

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the:

a.) right main bronchus
b.) left main bronchus
c.) esophagus
d.) proximal stomach

Answer 87

a.) right main bronchus

Question 88

Which of the following provides a numeric value indicating the level of radiation exposure to the digital image receptor?

a.) exposure indicator
b.) brightness
c.) noise
d.) contrast resolution

Answer 88

a.) exposure indicator

Question 89

Which of the following statements best describes a focused grid?

a.) lead strips are closer together in focused grids
b.) two sets of lead strips are present at 90 degrees to each other
c.) lead strips are perpendicular to each other
d.) lead strips are angled to match the divergence of the xray beam

Answer 89

d.) lead strips are angled to match the divergence of the xray beam

Question 90

Which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

a.) neutral position
b.) internal rotation
c.) AP
d.) external rotation

Answer 90

b.) internal rotation

Question 91

The elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?

a.) lateral
b.) AP
c.) AP partial flexion
d.) acute flexion

Answer 91

a.) lateral

Question 92

When performing a lateral cervical spine using an automatic exposure control (AEC) system, the technologist activates the outer ionization chamber.How might this affect the radiographic image?

a.) increased exposure time and decreased receptor exposure
b.) decreased exposure time and increased receptor exposure
c.) increased exposure time and increased receptor exposure
d.) decreased exposure time and decreased receptor exposure

Answer 92

d.) decreased exposure time and decreased receptor exposure

Question 93

What projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

a.) weight bearing lateral projection
b.) axial dorsoplantar projection
c.) axial plantodorsal projection
d.) lateral projection

Answer 93

c.) axial plantodorsal projection

Question 94

Which of the following is the most distal portion of the small bowel?

a.) jejunum
b.) cecum
c.) duodenum
d.) ileum

Answer 94

d.) ileum

Question 95

During an air contrast BE in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized in the AP recumbent position?

a.) transverse colon
b.) left and right colic flexure
c.) ascending colon
d.) descending colon

Answer 95

a.) transverse colon

Question 96

Which of the following is the correct breathing instruction for a lateral projection of the sternum?

a.) normal breathing
b.) suspend on deep inspiration
c.) suspend on deep expiration
d.) hold your breath

Answer 96

b.) suspend on deep inspiration

Question 97

What drugs are commonly used as premedication to prevent allergic reactions to IV Contrast in a patient with a known allergy?

a.) analgesics and anti inflammatories
b.) antihisthamines and corticosteroids
c.) corticosteroids and antibiotics
d.) antihisthamines and antibiotics

Answer 97

b.) antihisthamines and corticosteroids

Question 98

Which type of grid has lead strips situated parallel to the primary xray beam?

a.) focused grid
b.) stationary grid
c.) non focused grid
d.) parallel grid

Answer 98

a.) focused grid

Question 99

A radiograph is made at using a 40” SID resulting in an IR exposure of 0.02 mGy.What will be the receptor exposure if the SID is increased to 72”?

a.) 0.06 mGy
b.) 0.006 mGy
c.) 0.0025 mGy
d.) 0.0032 mGy

Answer 99

b.) 0.006 mGy

Question 100

A __________ uses a computer chip instead of a photoconductive target.

a.) vidocon
b.) CCD
c.) plumbicon
d.) orthicon

Answer 100

b.) CCD

Question 101

In which stage of infection do the infective microbes begin to multiply?

a.) convalescent phase
b.) latent period
c.) disease phase
d.) incubation period

Answer 101

d.) incubation period

Question 102

A physicist or engineer responsible for performing which type of testing?

a.) invasive and complex testing
b.) performance
c.) noninvasive and simple
d.) noninvasive and complex

Answer 102

a.) invasive and complex testing

Question 103

The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?

a.) hypogastric
b.) left iliac
c.) right lumbar
d.) right iliac

Answer 103

d.) right iliac

Question 104

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconcious and unresponsive. There is no rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should first

a.) begin with 5 external chest compressions at a rate of 50 compressions/min
b.) proceed with the heimlich maneuver
c.) being with 30 external chest compressions at a rate of 100 compressions/min
d.) begin mouth to mouth rescue breathing giving two full breaths

Answer 104

c.) begin with 30 external chest compressions at a rate of 100 compressions/min

Question 105

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?

1.) fractured lateral malleolous
2.) fractured medial malleolous
3.) fractured anterior tibia

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 105

d.) 1 and 2 only

Question 106

An activity that costs the facility money or their reputation is called:

a.) loss potential
b.) an incident
c.) claims prevention
d.) risk managment

Answer 106

a.) loss potential

Question 107

Useful characteristics radiation is created within the xray tube when high energy electrons interact with:

a.) inner shell electrons
b.) electric field of the nucleus
c.) outer shell electrons
d.) nuclear force field of the nucleus

Answer 107

a.) inner shell electrons

Question 108

Which component of the xray circuit must be powered by alternating current (AC) in order to function correctly?

a.) the transformers
b.) exposure timer
c.) the rectifiers
d.) mA selector

Answer 108

a.) the transformers

Question 109

A tech is using a variable mAs technique chart for a certain mobile exam. The chart calls for 1.5 mAs but the tech uses 2 mAs. The resulting image will likely demonstrate:

a.) no visible errors
b.) saturation artifact
c.) loss of contrast
d.) quantam mottle artifact

Answer 109

a.) no visible errors

Question 110

Xrays have a consistent velocity.

a.) true
b.) false

Answer 110

a.) true

Question 111

The annual occupational dose equivalent for the lens of the eye is _____________.

a.) 550 mSv
b.) 350 mSv
c.) 150 mSv
d.) 100 mSv

Answer 111

c.) 150 mSv

Question 112

What provides a numeric value indicating the level of exposure an image receptor has recieved?

a.) dynamic range
b.) DQE
c.) mAs readout
d.) exposure indicator

Answer 112

d.) exposure indicator

Question 113

What is the degree of body rotation for the PA oblique, LAO positon of the chest during a cardiac series?

a.) 55-60 degrees
b.) 45 degrees
c.) 50 degrees
d.) 60-70 degrees

Answer 113

a.) 55-60 degrees

Question 114

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure must be made with the

1.) epicondyles perependicular to the IR
2.) hand pronated and supinated as much as possible
3.) hand lateral and in internal rotation

a.) 1 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 114

b.) 1, 2 and 3

Question 115

An exposure is made in january at 70 kvp and 10 mas and produces a radiation output of 50 mR. the same exposure factors are used again in july and the same output of 50 mR is expected. This is called:

a.) reciprocity
b.) reproducibility
c.) linearity
d.) accuracy

Answer 115

b.) reproducibility

Question 116

The anatomic area being imaged is the:

a.) FOV
b.) bit depth
c.) matrix
d.) pixel

Answer 116

a.) FOV

Question 117

Brightness gained by difference in size between input and output phosphors is called:

a.) brightness gain
b.) minification gain
c.) flux gain
d.) magnification gain

Answer 117

b.) minification gain

Question 118

A pinhole camera and a star pattern are test tools for:

a.) KVP
b.) focal spot size
c.) mAs
d.) exposure timer

Answer 118

b.) focal spot size

Question 119

According to the national council on radiation protection and measurements NCRP, the monthly gestational dose equivalent limit for embryo/fetus of a pregnant radiographer is:

a.) 0.1mSv
b.) 1.0mSv
c.) 5.0mSv
d.) 0.5mSv

Answer 119

d.) 0.5mSv

Question 120

Which types of dose response relationship represents radiation induced leukemia and genetic effects?

a.) linear, threshold
b.) nonlinear, threshold
c.) linear, nonthreshold
d.) nonlinear, nonthreshold

Answer 120

c.) linear, nonthreshold

Question 121

Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses?
1.) Modified waters (mouth open)
2.) lateral
3.) PA axial

a.) 1 only
b.) 1 and 2
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 2 and 3 only

Answer 121

b.) 1 and 2

Question 122

Appropriate scatter radiation control methods include which of the following?
1.) tight collimation
2.) lead masking at the edge of the exposure field
3.) appropriate use of a grid
4.) increasing FOV
5.) using an air gap method

a.) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
b.) 2, 3 and 5 only
c.) 1, 2 and 4 only
d.) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

Answer 122

d.) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

Question 123

All of the following are true for reducing patient dose except:

a.) low mas
b.) use pulsed fluoro
c.) high kvp
d.) increase patient to image intensifier distance for c arm exams

Answer 123

d.) increase patient to image intensifier distance for c arm exams

Question 124

Which of these processes corrects for slight under exposure errors made by the technologists?

a.) digitization
b.) rescaling
c.) histogram analysis
d.) look up table

Answer 124

b.) rescaling

Question 125

During an IV injection of contrast media, your patient complains of tightness and burning in the area of the injection. What should your immediate response be?

a.) discontinue the injection and check for signs of extravasation
b.) place a cold compress on the are and continue the injection
c.) ensure you are injecting into the vein and if so, continue the injection
d.) stop the injection and pull back onto the plunger of the syringe to remove what has been injected

Answer 125

a.) discontinue the injection and check for signs of extravasation

Question 126

What is the primary difference between direct current (DC) and alternating current (AC) within an electrical circuit?

a.) direction of electron flow
b.) minimum power capacity
c.) maximum power capacity
d.) velocity of electron flow

Answer 126

a.) direction of electron flow

Question 127

Which of the following creatanine mg/dl levels would be considered abnormal?

a.) 2.0
b.) 0.8
c.) 1.5
d.) 1.0

Answer 127

a.) 2.0

Question 128

Which of the following is (are) possible long term somatic effects of radiation?

1.) nausea and vomiting
2.) carinsogenesis
3.) leukemia

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 128

c.) 2 and 3 only

Question 129

Which of the following is/are associated with magnification fluoroscopy?

1.) increase mA
2.) smaller portion of the input phosphor is used
3.) image intensifer focal point moves closer to the output phosphor

a.) 1 only
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 129

b.) 1 and 2 only

Question 130

How should a patient be instructed to breath for an AP soft tissue neck exam?

a.) slow, deep expiration
b.) suspend after expiration
c.) suspend after inspiration
d.) slow,, deep inspiration

Answer 130

d.) slow, deep inspiration

Question 131

Hypochlorite blean (clorox) and lysol are examples of:

a.) antifungal agents
b.) disinfectants
c.) antiseptics
d.) bacteriostatics

Answer 131

b.) disinfectants

Question 132

Advantages of CCDS over tehe use of television cameras in image intensification include:

1.) compact size
2.) improved resolution
3.) higher DQE

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 132

1, 2 and 3

Question 133

Where is the CR directed for a dorsal decubitus abdomen exam?

a.) at the iliac crest
b.) 3-4 inches above the iliac crest
c.) 1 inch above the iliac crest
d.) 2 inches above the iliac crest

Answer 133

d.) 2 inches above the iliac crest

Question 134

Which of the following drugs is used to treat dysrhythmias?

a.) nitroglycerin
b.) verapmil
c.) lidocaine
d.) epinephrine

Answer 134

c.) lidocaine

Question 135

What is the correct marker and marker placement for a lateral soft tissue neck?

a.) left marker place anteirorly
b.) right marker placed anteriorly
c.) right marker placed posteriorly
d.) left marker placed posteriorly
e.) left marker placed anteriorly or posteriorly

Answer 135

a.) left marker placed anteriorly

Question 136

In the PA axial oblique projection of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed

a.) 15 degrees caudad to c4
b.) perpendicular to C4
c.) parallel to c4
d.) 15 degrees cephalad to C4

Answer 136

a.) 15 degrees caudad to c4

Question 137

An iotrogenic infection is teh one caused by:

a.) infected droplets
b.) chemotherapy
c.) blood borne pathogens
d.) physician intervention

Answer 137

d.) physician intervention

Question 138

Which of thef following will result in increased scatter reaching the IR? (choose all that apply)

a.) compton scatter
b.) increased patient thickness
c.) decreased tissue density
d.) decreased FOV
e.) decreased grid ratio
f.) high kvp
g.) decreased collimation

Answer 138

a.) compton scatter
b.) increased patient thickness
e.) decreased grid ratio
f.) high kvp
g.) decreased collimation

Question 139

Which of the following is composed of cesium iodide?

a.) intensifier input phosphor
b.) intensifier photocathode
c.) convetional fluoroscopic screen
d.) intensifier output phosphor

Answer 139

a.) intensifier input phosphor

Question 140

Which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

a.) 5th metacarpal
b.) distal radius
c.) 1st metacarpal
d.) distal ulna

Answer 140

c.) 1st metacarpal

Question 141

In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

a.) medial oblique position of the foot
b.) dorsoplantar projection of the foot
c.) plantodorsal projection of the OS calcis
d.) lateral foot

Answer 141

c.) plantodorsal projectio of the os calcis

Question 142

A tech is using a variable mas technique chart for a certain mobile exam. The chart calls for 12 mas but the teck uses 1.5 mas. The resulting image will likely demonstrate:

a.) no visible errors
b.) saturation artifact
c.) quantam mottle artifact
d.) loss of contrast

Answer 142

c.) quantam mottle artifact

Question 143

LET is best defined as:

1.) a method of expressing radiation
2.) a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue
3.) absorption of polyenergetic radiation

a.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 2 only

Answer 143

d.) 1 and 2 only

Question 144

What is used to account for the difference in tissue sensitivity to ionizig radiation when determining effective dose?
1.) tissue weighting factors
2.) radiation weighting factors
3.) absorbed dose

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1 and 3 only
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 only

Answer 144

d.) 1 only

Question 145

Which of the following represents a moderate reaction to iodinated contrast media?

a.) rhinorhhea
b.) pruritis
c.) scattered hives
d.) persistent vomiting

Answer 145

d.) persistent vomiting

Question 146

Which of the following projections require that the humeral epicondyles be superimposed?

1.) lateral thumb
2.) lateral wrist
3.) lateral humerus

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1 only

Answer 146

a.) 2 and 3 only

Question 147

In a trauma situation, which two of the following arteries are best for assessing a patients pulse due to their larger size and more accuracte representation of the hearts activity?

1.) carotid
2.) radial
3.) popliteal
4.) femoral

a.) 1 and 4
b.) 1 and 2
c.) 3 and 4
d.) 2 and 4

Answer 147

a.) 1 and 4

Question 148

What is the most common reaction to iodinated contrast media?

a.) edema
b.) hives
c.) vomiting
d.) itching

Answer 148

b.) hives

Question 149

In the lateral proejction of the foot, the

1.) plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR
2.) metatarsals are superimposed
3.) talofibular joint should be visualized

a.) 1 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 149

c.) 1 and 2 only

Question 150

The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is:

a.) tengential projection wrist, gaynor hart method
b.) PA projection wrist, radial deviation
c.) AP oblique hands/norgaard method
d.) PA axial projection wrist, stretcher method

Answer 150

a.) tangential projection wrist, stretcher method

Question 151

Which of the following should be performed to rule out sublaxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

a.) AP cervical spine, recumbent
b.) horizontal beam lateral
c.) laterals in flexion and extension
d.) oblique cervical spine, seated

Answer 151

b.) horizontal beam lateral

Question 152

Which of the following will decrease the production of scatter?

a.) decreasing FOV
b.) increasing FOV
c.) decreasing KVP
d.) increasing grid ratio

Answer 152

a.) decreasing FOV

Question 153

If the exposure rate to a body standing 7 feet from a radiation source is 1/5 mGy, what will be the dose to that body at a distance of 8 feet from the source in 30 minutes?

a.) 0.57 mGy
b.) 13.1 mGy
c.) 1/31 mGy
d.) 1.14 mGy

Answer 153

a.) 0.57mGy

Question 154

When using a radiographic unit with automatic exposure control (AEC) , which of the following can be employed to reduce patient motion while maintaining proper receptor exposure?

a.) decrease density setting
b.) increase mA
c.) increase back up timer
d.) decrease kvp

Answer 154

b.) increase mA

Question 155

While obtaining patient history for an upper GI exam, the patient states that there is a possibility of power perforation. Which of the following situations would most likely be a result of this information?

a.) do not perform the exam at all since no contrast media could be used
b.) perform the exam as usual with no modifications
c.) perform the exam with an iodine based contrast media for the GI tract
d.) perform the exam with a less toxic form of barium sulfate

Answer 155

c.) perform the exam with an iodine based contrast media for the GI tract

Question 156

During a double contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?

a.) ventral decubitus
b.) right lateral decubitus
c.) AP or PA erect
d.) left lateral decubitus

Answer 156

b.) right lateral decubitus

Question 157

Advantages of DR over CR:
1.) less dose creep
2.) cheaper cost (less system overhaul)
3.) not as many repeats due to overexposure
4.) shorter acquisition times

a.) 3 and 4
b.) 2 only
c.) 3 only
d.) 1, 3 and 4

Answer 157

a.) 3 and 4

Question 158

Which of the following options determines the range of data in a histogram that is to be displayed?

a.) look up table
b.) area of interest
c.) region of interest
d.) value of interest

Answer 158

d.) value of interest

Question 159

The biologic effect on an individual depends on which of the following?
1.) type of tissue interaction
2.) amount of interaction
3.) biologic differences

a.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 159

d.) 1, 2 and 3

Question 160

An exposure is made using 115 kvp and 30 mas which results in a total mR of 1.88. A second exposure is made using the same kvp and mas and results in 1.82 mR. This describes:

a.) reproducibility
b.) reciprocity
c.) linearity
d.) kvp accuracy

Answer 160

a.) reproducibility

Question 161

Brightness gained by high voltage across the xray tube is defines as:

a.) resolution gain
b.) brightness gain
c.) minification gain
d.) flux gain

Answer 161

d.) flux gain

Question 162

Structures located proximal to the carpal bones include:

a.) proximal interphalangeal joints
b.) radial styloid process
c.) metacarpals
d.) distal interphalangeal joints

Answer 162

b.) radial styloid process

Question 163

All of the following are components of a fluoro system except:

a.) Image intensifier
b.) image plate reader
c.) video monitoring system
d.) generator
e.) xray tube

Answer 163

b.) image plate reader

Question 164

A particular radiograph was produced using 12 mas and 85 kvp with a 16:1 ratio grid. The radiograph is to be repeated using an 8:1 ration grid. What should be the new milliampere-seconds value?

a.) 3
b.) 6
c.) 10
d.) 8

Answer 164

d.) 8

Question 165

Which two of the following are the recommended treatments for a patient who has experienced extravasation of IV contrast media?
1.) elevation of the affected area
2.) cold or hot compress
3.) administration of an antihistamine
4.) a four hour observation of the patient

a.) 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 4
c.) 1 and 4
d.) 1 and 2

Answer 165

d.) 1 and 2

Question 166

Which of the folowing drugs would most likely be used as emergency treatment for a severe allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media?

a.) benedryl
b.) atropine
c.) diazepam
d.) epinephrine

Answer 166

d.) epinephrine

Question 167

Which of the following is the correct breathing instructions for a PA Oblique sternum, RAO position?

a.) suspend breath on expiration
b.) suspend breathing
c.) suspend breath on deep inspiration
d.) normal breathing

Answer 167

d.) normal breathing

Question 168

A QC trained tech can perform which of the following tests?

a.) noninvasive, complex
b.) noninvasive, simple
c.) invasive, complex
d.) invasive, simple

Answer 168

a.) noninvasive complex

Question 169

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

a.) AP knee
b.) tangential patella
c.) tunnel view
d.) lateral knee

Answer 169

b.) tangentital patella

Question 170

What is the appropriate degree of rotation for PA Oblique sternum, RAO position exam?

a.) 5 degrees
b.) 15-20 degrees
c.) 45 degrees
d.) 25-30 degrees

Answer 170

b.) 15-20 degrees

Question 171

An esophagram might be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms?
1.) varices
2.) achlasia
3.) dysphagia

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 3 only

Answer 171

b.) 1 and 2 only

Question 172

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right zygopophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebra?

a.) PA
b.) left lateral
c.) RPO
d.) LPO

Answer 172

c.) RPO

Question 173

For an AP lordotic chest radiograph, the CR should be directed

a.) 3-4 inches below the jugular notch
b.) 2-3 inches below the jugular notch
c.) 1-2 inches below the jugular notch
d.) 4-5 inches below the jugular notch

Answer 173

a.) 3-4 inches below the jugular notch

Question 174

The heel effect occurs because of:

a.) xray absorption in the anode
b.) a focusing cup
c.) the shape of the filament
d.) the shape charge effect
e.) reduced tube current

Answer 174

a.) xray absorption in the anode

Question 175

The AP prpjection of the sacrum requires that the CR should be directed:

1.) 15 degrees cephalad
2.) 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis
3.) to a level midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphisis

a.) 1 and 2 only
b.) 1 and 3 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 2 only

Answer 175

b.) 1 and 3 only

Question 176

As you progress with an IV injection of iodinated contrast media, your patient states she is having trouble breathing, and she is visibly struggling to breathe. What should your immediate reaction be?

a.) prepare emergency medications
b.) stop the injection
c.) call a code
d.) take her vital signs

Answer 176

b.) stop the injection

Question 177

The principal purpse of the high voltage transformer is to do which of the following?

a.) increase voltage
b.) stabilize voltage
c.) rectify voltage
d.) reduce voltage

Answer 177

a.) increase voltage

Question 178

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees

a.) toward the affected side
b.) away from the affected side
c.) with the arm at the side in anatomic position
d.) with the arm in external rotation

Answer 178

a.) toward the affected side

Question 179

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would best demonstrate in the:

a.) AP projection
b.) medial oblique projection
c.) lateral oblique projection
d.) lateral projection

Answer 179

a.) AP projection

Question 180

Double contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the:

a.) gastric or bowel mucousa
b.) diverticula
c.) size and shape of the organ
d.) position of the organ

Answer 180

a.) gastric or bowel mucousa

Question 181

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?

a.) exostosis
b.) osgood schlatter disease
c.) ewing sarcoma
d.) gout

Answer 181

b.) osgood schlatter disease

Question 182

The quantity of electrons is controlled by what technical setting?

a.) mas
b.) kvp
c.) S

Answer 182

a.) mas

Question 183

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?

a.) lateral oblique
b.) medial oblique
c.) lateral
d.) AP

Answer 183

b.) medial oblique

Question 184

Which of the following drugs would mst likely be administered to a patient experiencing an allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media?

a.) naproxen
b.) diphenhydramine
c.) hydromorphone
d.) cephalexin

Answer 184

b.) diphenhydramine

Question 185

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the foramen require that

1.) the epicondyles be parallel to the IR
2.) the radius and ulna be superimposed distally
3.) the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly

a.) 1 and 2 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1 only

Answer 185

c.) 2 and 3 only

Question 186

Radiation that passes through the tube housing in directions other than that of the useful beam is termed:

a.) scattered radiation
b.) remnant radiation
c.) secondary radiation
d.) leakage radiation

Answer 186

d.) leakage radiation

Question 187

Which situation is most likely to result in grid errors?

a.) stationary radiograph at the table bucky
b.) table top radiography
c.) stationary radiography in an upright bucky
d.) mobile radiography

Answer 187

d.) mobile radiography

Question 188

A decrease in renal function following administration of IV contrast media is called:

a.) iodine hypersensitivity
b.) nephroxity
c.) renal failure
d.) nephrolithasis

Answer 188

b.) nerproxicity

Question 189

Which type of grid cutoff is the only one that can be demonstrate with both focused and non focuses grids?

a.) off focus grid
b.) off level grid
c.) upside down grid
d.) off center grid

Answer 189

b.) off level grid

Question 190

A quality control program for radiographic equipment should include which of the following

1.) visual inspection
2.) enviromental inspection, and or
3.) performance testing

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 3 only
d.) 2 and 3 only

Answer 190

a.) 1, 2 and 3

Question 191

in the lateral projection of the ankle, the

1.) talotibial joint is visualized
2.) talotibular joint is visualized
3.) tibia and fibular are superimposed

a.) 1 only
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 1 and 3 only
d.) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 191

c.) 1 and3 only

Question 192

In the AP projection of the ankle, the

1.) plantar surface of the foot is vertical
2.) fibula projects more distally than the tibia
3.) calcaneus is well visualized

a.) 1 and 2 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1 only

Answer 192

a.) 1 and 2only

Question 193

What is the normal range of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) values for adults?

a.) 7-21
b.) 10-20
c.) 15-30
d.) 3-5

Answer 193

a.) 7-21

Question 194

All of the following are palpable bony landmarks tht can be used in radiography of the pelvix, except:

a.) the greater trochanter
b.) the femoral neck
c.) the iliac crest
d.) the pubic symphisis

Answer 194

b.) the femoral neck

Question 195

Which of the following methods of introducing contrast media into the body is considered an enternal method?

a.) intravenous
b.) intra-articular
c.) oral
d.) intrathecal

Answer 195

c.) oral

Question 196

Which of the following is a health record that covers the full range of a patients health history and can be communicated through different providers?

a.) electronic health record
b.) hospital information system
c.) electronic medical record
d.) electronic information system

Answer 196

a.) electronic health record

Question 197

The following bones participate in the formation of the obturator foramen?

1.) ilium
2.) ischium
3.) pubis

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 3 only
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 2 and 3 only

Answer 197

d.) 2 and 3 only