Mock 2 Flashcards

1
Q

___________ interact with tungsten atoms and create a brems or characteristic xray.

a.) characteristic electrons
b.) photons
c.) electrons and photons
d.) electrons

A

d.) electrons

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2
Q

According to the NCRP the annual occupational whole body dose equivalent limit is _____________ msv (5 rem or 5000 mrem)

a.) 30
b.) 500
c.) 50
d.) .5

A

c.) 50

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3
Q

The annual occupational whole body dose equivalent limit for students under the age of 18 years is 1 msv aka 100mrem or 0.1 rem.

a.) 100 msv
b.) 5 msv
c.) 1 msv
d.) 10msv

A

c.) 1 msv

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4
Q

___________ is the push or pull that changes the motion of the object.

a.) acceleration
b.) momentum
c.) force
d.) velocity

A

c.) force

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5
Q

Structures involved in a blowout fracture include the:

1.) orbital floor
2.) inferior rectus muscle
3.) zygoma

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

A

d.) 1 and 2 only

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6
Q

When a switch is closed, electric current _____________; when a switch is opened, electric current ___________.

a.) stops; flows
b.) becomes AC; becomes DC
c.) flows; stops
d.) stops; turns to AC

A

c.) flows; stops

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7
Q

At what dose does hemapoietic syndrome begin?

a.) 10 Gy (1000 rad)
b.) 0.1 Gy (10 rad)
c.) 100 Gy (10000 rad)
d.) 1 Gy ( 100 rad)

A

d.) 1 Gy (100 rad)

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8
Q

Which of the following types of grids will allow for the least amount of centering and/or positioning latitude?

a.) 16:1
b.) 12:1
c.) 5:1
d.) no grid

A

a.) 16:1

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9
Q

To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

a.) are radiographed in palmar flexion
b.) must be supported parallel to the IR
c.) rest on the IR for immobilization
d.) are radiographed in natural flexion

A

b.) must be supported parallel to the IR

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10
Q

The term osmolarity refers to which of the following?

a.) how a substance dissolves in water
b.) the thickness of a liquid
c.) whether a molecule seperates into ions in a solution
d.) the concentration of particles in a solution

A

d.) the concentration of particles in a solution

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11
Q

What does the acronym PACS stand for?

a.) practitioner acquisition and communication system
b.) picture archiving and communication system
c.) picture acquisition and communication system
d.) practitioner archiving and communication system

A

b.) picture archiving and communication system

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12
Q

During a grand mal seizuer, the patient should be:

a.) given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury
b.) allowed to thrash freely
c.) placed in a semiupright position to prevent aspiration
d.) protected from injury

A

d.) protected from injury

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13
Q

The phosphor layer of a CR PSP plate is composed of:

a.) barium fluorohalide and euporium activators
b.) barium fluorohalide and amorphus silicon
c.) amorphous silicon and cesium iodide turbid or structured crystals
d.) amorphous silicon and euporium activators

A

a.) barium fluorohalide and euporium activators

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14
Q

The smaller the area of xray exposure, the lower the pt. dose.

a.) true
b.) false

A

a.) true

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15
Q

The reduction of voltage and development of high amperage by a step down transformer occurs in the:

a.) high tension portion of the secondary circuit
b.) primary portion of the circuit
c.) secondary portion of the circuit
d.) none of the options are correct

A

d.) none of the options are correct

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16
Q

The largest amount of diagnostic xray absorption is most likely to occur in which of the following tissues?

a.) adipose
b.) lung
c.) bone
d.) muscle

A

c.) bone

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17
Q

Which of the following types of radiation is/are considered electromagnetic?
1.) xray
2.) gamma
3.) beta

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 only

A

c.) 1 and 2 only

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18
Q

Which of the following barium filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?

a.) ileocecal valve
b.) hepatic/right colic flexure
c.) sigmoid colon
d.) splenic/left colic flexure

A

b.) hepatic/right colic flexure

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19
Q

A vasovagal response experienced after injection of a contrast agent is characterized by all of the following symptoms except:

a.) nausea
b.) hypertension
c.) anxiety
d.) syncope

A

b.) hypertension

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20
Q

A 3 phase- 6 pulse generator will produce how many pulses each second?

a.) 720
b.) 1/60
c.) 360
d.) 1/120

A

c.) 360

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21
Q

The skin response to radiation exposure, which appears as reddening of the irradiated skin area, is known as:

a.) erythema
b.) moist desquamation
c.) epilation
d.) dry desquamation

A

a.) erythema

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22
Q

Which of the following is/are located on the anterior aspect of the femur?
1.) patellar surface
2.) intertrochanteric crest
3.) linea aspera

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 2 only

A

c.) 1 only

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23
Q

To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that

a.) a line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical
b.) the glabellomeatal line is vertical
c.) the acanthiomeatal line is vertical
d.) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

A

d.) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

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24
Q

During an IV bolus injection of contrast media, the injection of contrast media into the tissues surrounding the vessel is called:

a.) absorption
b.) resorption
c.) infiltration
d.) extravasation

A

d.) extravasation

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25
The radiographic image is formed principally by which of the following? a.) photoelectric interactions b.) classical scattering c.) uniform distribution of remnant xrays d.) compton interactions
a.) photoelectric interactions
26
The stream projected toward the anode is called: a.) target b.) effective focal spot c.) actual focal spot d.) imaging spot
c.) actual focal spot
27
The interaction between xray photons and tissue that is responsible for radiographic contrast but that also contributes significantly to patient dose is: a.) compton scatter b.) pair production c.) coherent scatter d.) the photoelectric effect
d.) the photoelectric effect
28
Which of the following bones participates in the formation of the knee joint? 1.) femur 2.) tibia 3.) patella a.) 1 and 3 only b.) 2 and 3 only c.) 1, 2 and 3 d.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 and 2 only
29
If an xray beam has an intensity of 1.2 mGy at a distance of 38", what will the intensity be at a 72" SID? a.) 0.33 mGy b.) 4.3 mGy c.) 0.67 mGy d.) 0.033 mGy
a.) 0.33 mGy
30
The target theory applies to: a.) oocytes b.) spermatogonia c.) DNA molecules d.) lymphocytes
c.) DNA molecules
31
The following position is used to demonstrate the lumbosacral zygopophyseal articulation: a.) AP b.) 30 degree RPO c.) 45 degree RPO d.) lateral
b.) 30 degree RPO
32
The thoracic zygopophyseal joints are demonstrated with the: a.) coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR b.) coronal plane 20 degrees to the IR c.) MSP 90 degrees to the IR d.) MSP 20 degrees to the IR
d.) MSP 20 degrees to the IR
33
Which of the following photon interactions contribute to the attenuation of the xray beam? 1.) coherent scattering 2.) photoelectric absorption 3.) compton scattering a.) 1, 2 and 3 b.) 2 only c.) 2 and 3 only d.) 1 only
a.) 1, 2 and 3
34
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1.) vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed 2.) acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed 3.) inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs a.) 1 and 2 b.) 1 only c.) 1, 2 and 3 d.) 1 and 3
b.) 1 only
35
To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA projection, the a.) skull is obliqued away from the affected side b.) skull is obliqued toward the affected side c.) CR is directed perpendicular to the IR d.) CR is directed cephalad to the IR
c.) CR is directed perpendicular to the IR
36
All of the following are acceptable ways to reduce radiation exposure except: a.) use AP instead of PA projections b.) use last image hold feature c.) use a fast speed IR d.) use intermittent (pulsed) fluoroscopy
a.) use AP instead of PA projections
37
When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? 1.) with the humerus parallel to the IR, CR perpendicular 2.) with forearm parallel to the IR, CR perpendicular 3.) through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular a.) 2 and 3 only b.) 1, 2 and 3 c.) 1 only d.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 and 2 only
38
Which of the following terms are related to xray beam quantity? a.) HVL b.) energy c.) penetrability d.) intensity
d.) intensity
39
Immature cells are referred to as: 1.) undifferentiated cells 2.) stem cells 3.) genetic cells a.) 2 and 3 only b.) 1, 2 and 3 c.) 1 only d.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 and 2 only
40
A motion picture camera is called: a.) cinefluorography b.) DVR c.) spot film device d.) spot film camera
a.) cinefluorography
41
The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheal vessels is classified as: a.) neurogenic b.) hypovolemic c.) septic d.) cardiogenic
a.) neurogenic
42
The genetic dose of radiation borne by each member of the reproductive population is called the: a.) somatic related dose b.) genetically related dose c.) genetically significant dose d.) somatic significant dose
c.) genetically significant dose
43
Which of the following articulates with the bases of the metatarsals? 1.) the heads of the first row of phalanges 2.) the cuboid 3.) the cuneiform a.) 1 only b.) 1, 2 and 3 c.) 2 and 3 only d.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 2 and 3 only
44
All of the following positions are likely to be used for both single- and double- contrast examinations of the large bowel except: a.) AP axial rectosigmoid b.) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen c.) lateral rectum d.) RAO and LAO abdomen
b.) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
45
What term refers to unwants IR exposure caused by scatter? a.) noise b.) DQE c.) fog d.) mottle
c.) fog
46
An xray system with unreliable exposure reproducibility may result in which two adverse effects? a.) improper receptor exposure b.) increased distortion c.) unacceptable spatial resolution d.) unnecessary patient exposure
a.) improper receptor exposure d.) unnecessary patient exposure
47
Which of the following lab tests are important for evaluating renal function before injection of iodine contrast media? 1.) creatanine 2.) complete blood count (CBC) 3.) glomerular filtration rate ( GFR) 4.) blood urea nitrogen (BUN) a.) 1 and 4 only b.) 1, 3 and 4 c.) 1 and 3 only d.) 4 and 5 only e.) 1, 2, 3, and 4
b.) 1, 3 and 4
48
When processing a CR cassette, the term slow scan describes a laser light moving over a stationary IR. a.) true b.) false
b.) false
49
To visualize or ''open'' the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned a.) 30-40 degrees RPO b.) 30-40 degrees LPO c.) 25-30 degrees LPO d.) 25-30 degrees RPO
c.) 25-30 degrees LPO
50
Which of the following carpals is best demonstrated by ulnar flexion/deviation? 1.) medial carpals 2.) lateral carpals 3.) schaphoid a.) 1 only b.) 2 and 3 only c.) 1, 2 and 3 d.) 1 and 2 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
51
Which of the following will increase beam attenuation? a.) decreasing tissue density b.) thicker anatomic part c.) higher kilovoltage d.) lower atomic number
b.) thicker anatomic part
52
Premedication is recquired for which type of patient undergoing IV injection of contrast media? a.) patients with chronic or acute renal failure b.) patients with elevated BUN or creatanine c.) patients with diabetes d.) patients with known allergy to iodine
d.) patients with known allergy to iodine
53
Which tube stand configuration is the most versatile design and the most widely used in todays hospital setting? a.) floor ceiling mount b.) wall mount c.) floor mount d.) ceiling mount
d. ceiling mount
54
The xray beam changes as it travels throught the patient by a process called: a.) filtration b.) annhilation c.) attenuation d.) electrification
c.) attenuation
55
Which of the following is/are demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine? 1.) intervetebral foramina 2.) zygopophyseal joints 3.) intervetebral joints a.) 1, 2 and 3 b.) 2 and 3 only c.) 1 and 2 only d.) 1 only
b.) 2 and 3only
56
Indirect action usually involves what molecule first? a.) critical b.) RNA c.) DNA d.) water
d.) water
57
Barium sulfate is used for what type of xray examinations? a.) urinary system b.) gastrointestinal system c.) vascular system d.) endocrine system
b.) gastrointestinal system
58
A patient unable to extend his/her arm is seated at the end of the xray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. the CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? 1.) radial head 2.) capitulum 3.) coronoid process a.) 1 only b.) 1, 2 and 3 c.) 2 and 3 only d.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 and 2 only
59
A particular radiograph was produced using 12 mAs and 85 kVp witha 12:1 ratio grid. The radiograph is to be repeated using an 8:1 ratio grid. What should be the new milliampere seconds value? a.) 8 b.) 10 c.) 6 d.) 3
b.) 10
60
Which of the following has/have been identified as sources of radon exposure? 1.) indoors, in houses 2.) smoking cigarettes 3.) radiology departments a.) 1 only b.) 1,2 and 3 c.) 1 and 2 only d.) 2 and 3only
c.) 1 and 2 only
61
A tech is using a variable kvp technique chart for a certain table top exam. The chart calls for 80 kvp but the tech uses 125 kvp. The resulting image will likely demonstrate: a.) no visible errors b.) quantam mottle artifact c.) loss of contrast d.) saturation artifact
d.) saturation artifact
62
A DEL is also known as a: a.) pixel b.) CCD c.) TFT d.) AMA
a.) pixel
63
How should a patient be instructed to breath for an AP soft tissue neck exam? a.) slow, deep inspiration b.) suspend after inspiration c.) suspend after expiration d.) slow, deep expiration
a.) slow, deep inspiration
64
In the AP axial projection, or bilateral ''frog leg" position, which of the following is most likely to place the long axes of the femoral necks parallel with the plane of the IR? a.) adducted 25 degrees from the vertical b.) abducted 40 degrees from the vertical c.) abducted 25 degrees from the vertical d.) adducted 40 degrees from the vertical
b.) abducted 40 degrees from the vertical
65
Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS? a.) right ilium b.) left ilium c.) right sacroiliac joint d.) left sacroiliac joint
d.) left sacroiliac joint
66
A semiannual or annual QC test would be: 1.) generator testing 2.) film processor maintenance if hard copies are printed 3.) clean CRT screen monitors 4.) evaluate exposure indicator accuracy a.) 1 and 4 b.) 1 only c.) 2 and 3 d.) 2, 3 and 4
a.) 1 and 4
67
The most proximal portion of the pharynx is the: a.) laryngopharynx b.) oropharynx c.) epiglottis d.) nasopharynx
d.) nasopharynx
68
Which of the following is/are part of the bony thorax? 1.) manubrium 2.) clavicles 3.) 24 ribs a.) 1 and 3 only b.) 1, 2 and 3 c.) 1 and 2 only d.) 1 only
a.) 1 and 3 only
69
What are the effects of scatter radiation on a radiographic image? 1.) it produces fog 2.) it increases contrast 3.) it decreases recorded detail 4.) it increases noise a.) 1 only b.) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c.) 1 and 3 only d.) 1 and 4 only
a.) 1 only
70
This describes the visible digital image (after processing) a.) latent image b.) manifest image c.) mottle d.) matrix
b.) manifest image
71
For which of the following exams would barium sulfate be the contrast media of choice? a.) myelogram b.) arthrogram c.) intravenous pyelogram d.) small bowel
d.) small bowel
72
If the distance from the source is charged from 72 inches to 36 inches and the original beam intensity was 200 mR, what is the new intensity? a.) 400 mR b.) 100 mR c.) 800 mR d.) 50 mR
c.) 800 mR
73
Xray beam intensity is a term describing the : a.) number of photons b.) frequency of photons c.) maximum energy of photons d.) photon quality
a.) number of photons
74
An inanimate object that has been in contact with an infectious microorganism is termed a : a.) resevoir b.) host c.) vector d.) fomite
d.) fomite
75
Which of the following respiration rates would most likely apply to an adult patient with a diagnosis of tachypnea? a.) 12 breaths per minute b.) 30 breaths per minute c.) 20 breaths per minute d.) 6 breaths per minute
b.) 30 breaths per minute
76
Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses? a.) Oblique b.) recumbent c.) erect d.) trendelenburg
c.) erect
77
An xray of a chest was performed at a 72" SID. If a patients heart was 8" away from the image receptor, what would be the percentage of magnification? a.) 8 b.) 1.2 c.) 0.01 d.) 10
d.) 10
78
Which of the following is/are associated with a colles fracture? 1.) transverse fracture of the radial head 2.) chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3.) posterior or backward displacement a.) 1, 2 and 3 b.) 2 and 3 only c.) 1 and 3 only d.) 1 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
79
A high frequency generator can use current that has been altered to as much as ___________ Hz before being rectified. a.) 60 b.) 100,000 c.) 60,000 d.) 120
b.) 100,000
80
A radiograph of the abdomen is performed using 85 kvp, 10 mas, a 60'' sid and no grid. If the exam is repeated using a 6:1 grid, what new mas would maintain proper IR exposure? a.) 36.0 mas b.) 360 mas c.) 3.33 mas d.) 30 mas
d.) 30 mas
81
Beam quantity should be within: a.) 5% b.) 10% c.) 2% d.) 1%
b.) 10%
82
In the PA axial oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the: a.) intervetebral foramina nearest the IR b.) interarticular joints c.) intervetebral foramina furtherest from the IR d.) intervetebral joints
a.) intervetebral foramina nearest the IR
83
An xray generator that is used on the battlefield is called a: a.) mobile b.) Portable
b.) portable
84
Immediately after Mr. Miller recieves an IV injection of iodinated contrast media, he complains of pruritus and you observe that he has two hives on his neck. What should your response to this situation be? a.) recognize the onset of a severe reaction and alert the radiologist immediately b.) no response is necessary since these are signs of a mild reaction c.) recognize a moderate reaction and make sure that IV access is maintained d.) monitor mr. millers vital signs and be alert for further reactions for at least 20 to 30 minutes
d.) monitor mr. millers vital signs and be alert for further reactions for at least 20-30 minutes
85
In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris recquired for an accurate diagnosis? 1.) supine flexion 45 degrees (merchant) 2.) prone flexion 90 degrees ( settegast) 3.) prone flexion 55 degrees (hughston) a.) 1, 2 and 3 b.) 1 and 2 only c.) 1 only
c.) 1 only
86
To avoid damaging the xray tube components, the electrical power supplied to the xray tube must be: a.) low voltage b.) high voltage c.) alternating current d.) direct current
d.) direct current
87
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the: a.) right main bronchus b.) left main bronchus c.) esophagus d.) proximal stomach
a.) right main bronchus
88
Which of the following provides a numeric value indicating the level of radiation exposure to the digital image receptor? a.) exposure indicator b.) brightness c.) noise d.) contrast resolution
a.) exposure indicator
89
Which of the following statements best describes a focused grid? a.) lead strips are closer together in focused grids b.) two sets of lead strips are present at 90 degrees to each other c.) lead strips are perpendicular to each other d.) lead strips are angled to match the divergence of the xray beam
d.) lead strips are angled to match the divergence of the xray beam
90
Which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head? a.) neutral position b.) internal rotation c.) AP d.) external rotation
b.) internal rotation
91
The elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position? a.) lateral b.) AP c.) AP partial flexion d.) acute flexion
a.) lateral
92
When performing a lateral cervical spine using an automatic exposure control (AEC) system, the technologist activates the outer ionization chamber.How might this affect the radiographic image? a.) increased exposure time and decreased receptor exposure b.) decreased exposure time and increased receptor exposure c.) increased exposure time and increased receptor exposure d.) decreased exposure time and decreased receptor exposure
d.) decreased exposure time and decreased receptor exposure
93
What projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad? a.) weight bearing lateral projection b.) axial dorsoplantar projection c.) axial plantodorsal projection d.) lateral projection
c.) axial plantodorsal projection
94
Which of the following is the most distal portion of the small bowel? a.) jejunum b.) cecum c.) duodenum d.) ileum
d.) ileum
95
During an air contrast BE in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized in the AP recumbent position? a.) transverse colon b.) left and right colic flexure c.) ascending colon d.) descending colon
a.) transverse colon
96
Which of the following is the correct breathing instruction for a lateral projection of the sternum? a.) normal breathing b.) suspend on deep inspiration c.) suspend on deep expiration d.) hold your breath
b.) suspend on deep inspiration
97
What drugs are commonly used as premedication to prevent allergic reactions to IV Contrast in a patient with a known allergy? a.) analgesics and anti inflammatories b.) antihisthamines and corticosteroids c.) corticosteroids and antibiotics d.) antihisthamines and antibiotics
b.) antihisthamines and corticosteroids
98
Which type of grid has lead strips situated parallel to the primary xray beam? a.) focused grid b.) stationary grid c.) non focused grid d.) parallel grid
a.) focused grid
99
A radiograph is made at using a 40" SID resulting in an IR exposure of 0.02 mGy.What will be the receptor exposure if the SID is increased to 72"? a.) 0.06 mGy b.) 0.006 mGy c.) 0.0025 mGy d.) 0.0032 mGy
b.) 0.006 mGy
100
A __________ uses a computer chip instead of a photoconductive target. a.) vidocon b.) CCD c.) plumbicon d.) orthicon
b.) CCD
101
In which stage of infection do the infective microbes begin to multiply? a.) convalescent phase b.) latent period c.) disease phase d.) incubation period
d.) incubation period
102
A physicist or engineer responsible for performing which type of testing? a.) invasive and complex testing b.) performance c.) noninvasive and simple d.) noninvasive and complex
a.) invasive and complex testing
103
The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions? a.) hypogastric b.) left iliac c.) right lumbar d.) right iliac
d.) right iliac
104
You have encountered a person who is apparently unconcious and unresponsive. There is no rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should first a.) begin with 5 external chest compressions at a rate of 50 compressions/min b.) proceed with the heimlich maneuver c.) being with 30 external chest compressions at a rate of 100 compressions/min d.) begin mouth to mouth rescue breathing giving two full breaths
c.) begin with 30 external chest compressions at a rate of 100 compressions/min
105
Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? 1.) fractured lateral malleolous 2.) fractured medial malleolous 3.) fractured anterior tibia a.) 1, 2 and 3 b.) 2 and 3 only c.) 1 only d.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 and 2 only
106
An activity that costs the facility money or their reputation is called: a.) loss potential b.) an incident c.) claims prevention d.) risk managment
a.) loss potential
107
Useful characteristics radiation is created within the xray tube when high energy electrons interact with: a.) inner shell electrons b.) electric field of the nucleus c.) outer shell electrons d.) nuclear force field of the nucleus
a.) inner shell electrons
108
Which component of the xray circuit must be powered by alternating current (AC) in order to function correctly? a.) the transformers b.) exposure timer c.) the rectifiers d.) mA selector
a.) the transformers
109
A tech is using a variable mAs technique chart for a certain mobile exam. The chart calls for 1.5 mAs but the tech uses 2 mAs. The resulting image will likely demonstrate: a.) no visible errors b.) saturation artifact c.) loss of contrast d.) quantam mottle artifact
a.) no visible errors
110
Xrays have a consistent velocity. a.) true b.) false
a.) true
111
The annual occupational dose equivalent for the lens of the eye is _____________. a.) 550 mSv b.) 350 mSv c.) 150 mSv d.) 100 mSv
c.) 150 mSv
112
What provides a numeric value indicating the level of exposure an image receptor has recieved? a.) dynamic range b.) DQE c.) mAs readout d.) exposure indicator
d.) exposure indicator
113
What is the degree of body rotation for the PA oblique, LAO positon of the chest during a cardiac series? a.) 55-60 degrees b.) 45 degrees c.) 50 degrees d.) 60-70 degrees
a.) 55-60 degrees
114
To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure must be made with the 1.) epicondyles perependicular to the IR 2.) hand pronated and supinated as much as possible 3.) hand lateral and in internal rotation a.) 1 only b.) 1, 2 and 3 c.) 1 and 3 only d.) 1 and 2 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
115
An exposure is made in january at 70 kvp and 10 mas and produces a radiation output of 50 mR. the same exposure factors are used again in july and the same output of 50 mR is expected. This is called: a.) reciprocity b.) reproducibility c.) linearity d.) accuracy
b.) reproducibility
116
The anatomic area being imaged is the: a.) FOV b.) bit depth c.) matrix d.) pixel
a.) FOV
117
Brightness gained by difference in size between input and output phosphors is called: a.) brightness gain b.) minification gain c.) flux gain d.) magnification gain
b.) minification gain
118
A pinhole camera and a star pattern are test tools for: a.) KVP b.) focal spot size c.) mAs d.) exposure timer
b.) focal spot size
119
According to the national council on radiation protection and measurements NCRP, the monthly gestational dose equivalent limit for embryo/fetus of a pregnant radiographer is: a.) 0.1mSv b.) 1.0mSv c.) 5.0mSv d.) 0.5mSv
d.) 0.5mSv
120
Which types of dose response relationship represents radiation induced leukemia and genetic effects? a.) linear, threshold b.) nonlinear, threshold c.) linear, nonthreshold d.) nonlinear, nonthreshold
c.) linear, nonthreshold
121
Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses? 1.) Modified waters (mouth open) 2.) lateral 3.) PA axial a.) 1 only b.) 1 and 2 c.) 1, 2 and 3 d.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1 and 2
122
Appropriate scatter radiation control methods include which of the following? 1.) tight collimation 2.) lead masking at the edge of the exposure field 3.) appropriate use of a grid 4.) increasing FOV 5.) using an air gap method a.) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 b.) 2, 3 and 5 only c.) 1, 2 and 4 only d.) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d.) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
123
All of the following are true for reducing patient dose except: a.) low mas b.) use pulsed fluoro c.) high kvp d.) increase patient to image intensifier distance for c arm exams
d.) increase patient to image intensifier distance for c arm exams
124
Which of these processes corrects for slight under exposure errors made by the technologists? a.) digitization b.) rescaling c.) histogram analysis d.) look up table
b.) rescaling
125
During an IV injection of contrast media, your patient complains of tightness and burning in the area of the injection. What should your immediate response be? a.) discontinue the injection and check for signs of extravasation b.) place a cold compress on the are and continue the injection c.) ensure you are injecting into the vein and if so, continue the injection d.) stop the injection and pull back onto the plunger of the syringe to remove what has been injected
a.) discontinue the injection and check for signs of extravasation
126
What is the primary difference between direct current (DC) and alternating current (AC) within an electrical circuit? a.) direction of electron flow b.) minimum power capacity c.) maximum power capacity d.) velocity of electron flow
a.) direction of electron flow
127
Which of the following creatanine mg/dl levels would be considered abnormal? a.) 2.0 b.) 0.8 c.) 1.5 d.) 1.0
a.) 2.0
128
Which of the following is (are) possible long term somatic effects of radiation? 1.) nausea and vomiting 2.) carinsogenesis 3.) leukemia a.) 1, 2 and 3 b.) 1 c.) 2 and 3 only d.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 2 and 3 only
129
Which of the following is/are associated with magnification fluoroscopy? 1.) increase mA 2.) smaller portion of the input phosphor is used 3.) image intensifer focal point moves closer to the output phosphor a.) 1 only b.) 1 and 2 only c.) 2 and 3 only d.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 2 only
130
How should a patient be instructed to breath for an AP soft tissue neck exam? a.) slow, deep expiration b.) suspend after expiration c.) suspend after inspiration d.) slow,, deep inspiration
d.) slow, deep inspiration
131
Hypochlorite blean (clorox) and lysol are examples of: a.) antifungal agents b.) disinfectants c.) antiseptics d.) bacteriostatics
b.) disinfectants
132
Advantages of CCDS over tehe use of television cameras in image intensification include: 1.) compact size 2.) improved resolution 3.) higher DQE a.) 1, 2 and 3 b.) 2 and 3 only c.) 1 only d.) 1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
133
Where is the CR directed for a dorsal decubitus abdomen exam? a.) at the iliac crest b.) 3-4 inches above the iliac crest c.) 1 inch above the iliac crest d.) 2 inches above the iliac crest
d.) 2 inches above the iliac crest
134
Which of the following drugs is used to treat dysrhythmias? a.) nitroglycerin b.) verapmil c.) lidocaine d.) epinephrine
c.) lidocaine
135
What is the correct marker and marker placement for a lateral soft tissue neck? a.) left marker place anteirorly b.) right marker placed anteriorly c.) right marker placed posteriorly d.) left marker placed posteriorly e.) left marker placed anteriorly or posteriorly
a.) left marker placed anteriorly
136
In the PA axial oblique projection of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed a.) 15 degrees caudad to c4 b.) perpendicular to C4 c.) parallel to c4 d.) 15 degrees cephalad to C4
a.) 15 degrees caudad to c4
137
An iotrogenic infection is teh one caused by: a.) infected droplets b.) chemotherapy c.) blood borne pathogens d.) physician intervention
d.) physician intervention
138
Which of thef following will result in increased scatter reaching the IR? (choose all that apply) a.) compton scatter b.) increased patient thickness c.) decreased tissue density d.) decreased FOV e.) decreased grid ratio f.) high kvp g.) decreased collimation
a.) compton scatter b.) increased patient thickness e.) decreased grid ratio f.) high kvp g.) decreased collimation
139
Which of the following is composed of cesium iodide? a.) intensifier input phosphor b.) intensifier photocathode c.) convetional fluoroscopic screen d.) intensifier output phosphor
a.) intensifier input phosphor
140
Which of the following does the trapezium articulate? a.) 5th metacarpal b.) distal radius c.) 1st metacarpal d.) distal ulna
c.) 1st metacarpal
141
In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized? a.) medial oblique position of the foot b.) dorsoplantar projection of the foot c.) plantodorsal projection of the OS calcis d.) lateral foot
c.) plantodorsal projectio of the os calcis
142
A tech is using a variable mas technique chart for a certain mobile exam. The chart calls for 12 mas but the teck uses 1.5 mas. The resulting image will likely demonstrate: a.) no visible errors b.) saturation artifact c.) quantam mottle artifact d.) loss of contrast
c.) quantam mottle artifact
143
LET is best defined as: 1.) a method of expressing radiation 2.) a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue 3.) absorption of polyenergetic radiation a.) 1 and 3 only b.) 2 and 3 only c.) 1, 2 and 3 d.) 1 and 2 only
d.) 1 and 2 only
144
What is used to account for the difference in tissue sensitivity to ionizig radiation when determining effective dose? 1.) tissue weighting factors 2.) radiation weighting factors 3.) absorbed dose a.) 2 and 3 only b.) 1 and 3 only c.) 1 and 2 only d.) 1 only
d.) 1 only
145
Which of the following represents a moderate reaction to iodinated contrast media? a.) rhinorhhea b.) pruritis c.) scattered hives d.) persistent vomiting
d.) persistent vomiting
146
Which of the following projections require that the humeral epicondyles be superimposed? 1.) lateral thumb 2.) lateral wrist 3.) lateral humerus a.) 2 and 3 only b.) 1 and 2 only c.) 1, 2 and 3 d.) 1 only
a.) 2 and 3 only
147
In a trauma situation, which two of the following arteries are best for assessing a patients pulse due to their larger size and more accuracte representation of the hearts activity? 1.) carotid 2.) radial 3.) popliteal 4.) femoral a.) 1 and 4 b.) 1 and 2 c.) 3 and 4 d.) 2 and 4
a.) 1 and 4
148
What is the most common reaction to iodinated contrast media? a.) edema b.) hives c.) vomiting d.) itching
b.) hives
149
In the lateral proejction of the foot, the 1.) plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR 2.) metatarsals are superimposed 3.) talofibular joint should be visualized a.) 1 only b.) 2 and 3 only c.) 1 and 2 only d.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 2 only
150
The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is: a.) tengential projection wrist, gaynor hart method b.) PA projection wrist, radial deviation c.) AP oblique hands/norgaard method d.) PA axial projection wrist, stretcher method
a.) tangential projection wrist, stretcher method
151
Which of the following should be performed to rule out sublaxation or fracture of the cervical spine? a.) AP cervical spine, recumbent b.) horizontal beam lateral c.) laterals in flexion and extension d.) oblique cervical spine, seated
b.) horizontal beam lateral
152
Which of the following will decrease the production of scatter? a.) decreasing FOV b.) increasing FOV c.) decreasing KVP d.) increasing grid ratio
a.) decreasing FOV
153
If the exposure rate to a body standing 7 feet from a radiation source is 1/5 mGy, what will be the dose to that body at a distance of 8 feet from the source in 30 minutes? a.) 0.57 mGy b.) 13.1 mGy c.) 1/31 mGy d.) 1.14 mGy
a.) 0.57mGy
154
When using a radiographic unit with automatic exposure control (AEC) , which of the following can be employed to reduce patient motion while maintaining proper receptor exposure? a.) decrease density setting b.) increase mA c.) increase back up timer d.) decrease kvp
b.) increase mA
155
While obtaining patient history for an upper GI exam, the patient states that there is a possibility of power perforation. Which of the following situations would most likely be a result of this information? a.) do not perform the exam at all since no contrast media could be used b.) perform the exam as usual with no modifications c.) perform the exam with an iodine based contrast media for the GI tract d.) perform the exam with a less toxic form of barium sulfate
c.) perform the exam with an iodine based contrast media for the GI tract
156
During a double contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon? a.) ventral decubitus b.) right lateral decubitus c.) AP or PA erect d.) left lateral decubitus
b.) right lateral decubitus
157
Advantages of DR over CR: 1.) less dose creep 2.) cheaper cost (less system overhaul) 3.) not as many repeats due to overexposure 4.) shorter acquisition times a.) 3 and 4 b.) 2 only c.) 3 only d.) 1, 3 and 4
a.) 3 and 4
158
Which of the following options determines the range of data in a histogram that is to be displayed? a.) look up table b.) area of interest c.) region of interest d.) value of interest
d.) value of interest
159
The biologic effect on an individual depends on which of the following? 1.) type of tissue interaction 2.) amount of interaction 3.) biologic differences a.) 1 and 3 only b.) 2 and 3 only c.) 1 and 2 only d.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1, 2 and 3
160
An exposure is made using 115 kvp and 30 mas which results in a total mR of 1.88. A second exposure is made using the same kvp and mas and results in 1.82 mR. This describes: a.) reproducibility b.) reciprocity c.) linearity d.) kvp accuracy
a.) reproducibility
161
Brightness gained by high voltage across the xray tube is defines as: a.) resolution gain b.) brightness gain c.) minification gain d.) flux gain
d.) flux gain
162
Structures located proximal to the carpal bones include: a.) proximal interphalangeal joints b.) radial styloid process c.) metacarpals d.) distal interphalangeal joints
b.) radial styloid process
163
All of the following are components of a fluoro system except: a.) Image intensifier b.) image plate reader c.) video monitoring system d.) generator e.) xray tube
b.) image plate reader
164
A particular radiograph was produced using 12 mas and 85 kvp with a 16:1 ratio grid. The radiograph is to be repeated using an 8:1 ration grid. What should be the new milliampere-seconds value? a.) 3 b.) 6 c.) 10 d.) 8
d.) 8
165
Which two of the following are the recommended treatments for a patient who has experienced extravasation of IV contrast media? 1.) elevation of the affected area 2.) cold or hot compress 3.) administration of an antihistamine 4.) a four hour observation of the patient a.) 2 and 3 b.) 2 and 4 c.) 1 and 4 d.) 1 and 2
d.) 1 and 2
166
Which of the folowing drugs would most likely be used as emergency treatment for a severe allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media? a.) benedryl b.) atropine c.) diazepam d.) epinephrine
d.) epinephrine
167
Which of the following is the correct breathing instructions for a PA Oblique sternum, RAO position? a.) suspend breath on expiration b.) suspend breathing c.) suspend breath on deep inspiration d.) normal breathing
d.) normal breathing
168
A QC trained tech can perform which of the following tests? a.) noninvasive, complex b.) noninvasive, simple c.) invasive, complex d.) invasive, simple
a.) noninvasive complex
169
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation? a.) AP knee b.) tangential patella c.) tunnel view d.) lateral knee
b.) tangentital patella
170
What is the appropriate degree of rotation for PA Oblique sternum, RAO position exam? a.) 5 degrees b.) 15-20 degrees c.) 45 degrees d.) 25-30 degrees
b.) 15-20 degrees
171
An esophagram might be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms? 1.) varices 2.) achlasia 3.) dysphagia a.) 1, 2 and 3 b.) 1 and 2 only c.) 1 only d.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 1 and 2 only
172
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right zygopophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebra? a.) PA b.) left lateral c.) RPO d.) LPO
c.) RPO
173
For an AP lordotic chest radiograph, the CR should be directed a.) 3-4 inches below the jugular notch b.) 2-3 inches below the jugular notch c.) 1-2 inches below the jugular notch d.) 4-5 inches below the jugular notch
a.) 3-4 inches below the jugular notch
174
The heel effect occurs because of: a.) xray absorption in the anode b.) a focusing cup c.) the shape of the filament d.) the shape charge effect e.) reduced tube current
a.) xray absorption in the anode
175
The AP prpjection of the sacrum requires that the CR should be directed: 1.) 15 degrees cephalad 2.) 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3.) to a level midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphisis a.) 1 and 2 only b.) 1 and 3 only c.) 1 only d.) 2 only
b.) 1 and 3 only
176
As you progress with an IV injection of iodinated contrast media, your patient states she is having trouble breathing, and she is visibly struggling to breathe. What should your immediate reaction be? a.) prepare emergency medications b.) stop the injection c.) call a code d.) take her vital signs
b.) stop the injection
177
The principal purpse of the high voltage transformer is to do which of the following? a.) increase voltage b.) stabilize voltage c.) rectify voltage d.) reduce voltage
a.) increase voltage
178
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees a.) toward the affected side b.) away from the affected side c.) with the arm at the side in anatomic position d.) with the arm in external rotation
a.) toward the affected side
179
Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would best demonstrate in the: a.) AP projection b.) medial oblique projection c.) lateral oblique projection d.) lateral projection
a.) AP projection
180
Double contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the: a.) gastric or bowel mucousa b.) diverticula c.) size and shape of the organ d.) position of the organ
a.) gastric or bowel mucousa
181
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity? a.) exostosis b.) osgood schlatter disease c.) ewing sarcoma d.) gout
b.) osgood schlatter disease
182
The quantity of electrons is controlled by what technical setting? a.) mas b.) kvp c.) S
a.) mas
183
In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated? a.) lateral oblique b.) medial oblique c.) lateral d.) AP
b.) medial oblique
184
Which of the following drugs would mst likely be administered to a patient experiencing an allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media? a.) naproxen b.) diphenhydramine c.) hydromorphone d.) cephalexin
b.) diphenhydramine
185
Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the foramen require that 1.) the epicondyles be parallel to the IR 2.) the radius and ulna be superimposed distally 3.) the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly a.) 1 and 2 only b.) 1, 2 and 3 c.) 2 and 3 only d.) 1 only
c.) 2 and 3 only
186
Radiation that passes through the tube housing in directions other than that of the useful beam is termed: a.) scattered radiation b.) remnant radiation c.) secondary radiation d.) leakage radiation
d.) leakage radiation
187
Which situation is most likely to result in grid errors? a.) stationary radiograph at the table bucky b.) table top radiography c.) stationary radiography in an upright bucky d.) mobile radiography
d.) mobile radiography
188
A decrease in renal function following administration of IV contrast media is called: a.) iodine hypersensitivity b.) nephroxity c.) renal failure d.) nephrolithasis
b.) nerproxicity
189
Which type of grid cutoff is the only one that can be demonstrate with both focused and non focuses grids? a.) off focus grid b.) off level grid c.) upside down grid d.) off center grid
b.) off level grid
190
A quality control program for radiographic equipment should include which of the following 1.) visual inspection 2.) enviromental inspection, and or 3.) performance testing a.) 1, 2 and 3 b.) 1 and 2 only c.) 3 only d.) 2 and 3 only
a.) 1, 2 and 3
191
in the lateral projection of the ankle, the 1.) talotibial joint is visualized 2.) talotibular joint is visualized 3.) tibia and fibular are superimposed a.) 1 only b.) 1 and 2 only c.) 1 and 3 only d.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1 and3 only
192
In the AP projection of the ankle, the 1.) plantar surface of the foot is vertical 2.) fibula projects more distally than the tibia 3.) calcaneus is well visualized a.) 1 and 2 only b.) 1, 2 and 3 c.) 2 and 3 only d.) 1 only
a.) 1 and 2only
193
What is the normal range of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) values for adults? a.) 7-21 b.) 10-20 c.) 15-30 d.) 3-5
a.) 7-21
194
All of the following are palpable bony landmarks tht can be used in radiography of the pelvix, except: a.) the greater trochanter b.) the femoral neck c.) the iliac crest d.) the pubic symphisis
b.) the femoral neck
195
Which of the following methods of introducing contrast media into the body is considered an enternal method? a.) intravenous b.) intra-articular c.) oral d.) intrathecal
c.) oral
196
Which of the following is a health record that covers the full range of a patients health history and can be communicated through different providers? a.) electronic health record b.) hospital information system c.) electronic medical record d.) electronic information system
a.) electronic health record
197
The following bones participate in the formation of the obturator foramen? 1.) ilium 2.) ischium 3.) pubis a.) 1, 2 and 3 b.) 1 and 3 only c.) 1 and 2 only d.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 2 and 3 only