MOCK 2023-2024 Flashcards
REVISION
Which stage of clinical development relies on a small number of healthy, male volunteers to determine the safety and tolerated dose of a new drug?
A - Phase IIa
B - Phase III
C - Phase 1
D - Phase IIb
E - Phase IV
Phase I
Which ONE of the following study designs can demonstrate causality?
A - Retrospective cohort study
B - Randomized - controlled trial
C - Prospective cohort study
D - Case-control study
E - Meta-analysis
Randomized - controlled trial
Which ONE of these excipients is commonly used as an alternative to gelatin in the manufacture of pharmaceutical capsule shells?
A - Hypromellose
B - Cellulose acetate
C - Erythrosine
D - Hydrogenated Vegetable Oil
E - Polyethylene glycol
Hypromellose
Which ONE of the following statements relating to transdermal drug delivery is INCORRECT?
A - Phonophoresis uses ultrasound energy in order to enhance the skin penetration of active substances
B - The powder jet system fires solid particle through the stratum corneum
C - Water can act as a penetration enhancer in transporting active substances across the skin
D - Chemical enhancers are able to transport an active substance across the skin by disrupting the lipid bilayer structure
E - Iontophoresis uses light energy to disrupt the lipid bilayer in the stratum corneum producing large pores for active substances to pass through
Iontophoresis uses light energy to disrupt the lipid bilayer in the stratum corneum producing large pores for active substances to pass through
Surface tension is a phenomenon that arises due to which ONE of the following?
A - A net outward force arising from the molecules trapped in solution
B - The availability of oxygen atoms for interaction in the gaseous phase above the liquid interface
C - Thermal drift currents that naturally circulate within the body of a fluid at rest
D - A net inward force at the surface due to a lack of neighbouring molecules
E - The presence of impurities within the media of interest
A net inward force at the surface due to a lack of neighbouring molecules
Which type of fluid behaviour is shown as a line going through (0,0) on a rheogram (F (Nm-2) vs G (s-1))?
A - Plastic
B - Newtonian
C - Thixotropic
D - Pseudoplastic
E - Dilatant
Newtonian
Which ONE of the following statements about reverse-phase HPLC is INCORRECT?
A - The mobile phase consists of low-polarity solvents such as hexane
B - The stationary phase is relatively non-polar
C - The pH of the mobile phase can affect the elution of ionisable analytes
D - The more polar the analyte, the more rapidly it is eluted #
E - Separation is based on partition of the analytes.
The mobile phase consists of low-polarity solvents such as hexane
The clearance of a drug might be quoted in which ONE of the following units?
A - mg.h-1
B - h-1.kg-1
C - L.h-1.kg-1
D - mg
E - h-1
L.h-1.kg-1
An 18yr old male student comes in to your pharmacy complaining of symptoms likely to be associated with allergic rhinitis. Upon questioning you find that he is otherwise healthy, not on any other medication and has previously diagnosed with allergic rhinitis. His symptoms are rhinorrhea, congestion, sneezing and pruritis. Which ONE of the following treatments is most likely to improve all of these symptoms?
A - Nasal steroid
B - Nasal antihistamine
C - Nasal decongestant
D - Oral antihistamine
E - Oral steroid
Nasal steroid
Which ONE of the following herbs should NOT be concurrently used with anticoagulants?
A - Ephedra
B - Black Cohosh
C - Echinacea
D - Feverfew
E - Valerian
Feverfew
Which ONE of the following is NOT a risk factor for venous thromboembolism?
A - Cancer
B - Pregnancy
C - Obesity
D - Haemophilia
E - Recent surgery
Haemophilia
Which ONE of the following statements in relation to Aspirin and Statin therapy is CORRECT?
A - Statins should be started if the 10 year QRISK2 is >20%
B - Aspirin should not be used for primary prevention of CVD
C - Statins are a likely cause of postural hypotension in newly treated hypertensive patients
D - Statins cannot be used if the patient has ischaemic heart disease
E - Clopidogrel is more appropriate than aspirin for primary prevention of CVD
Aspirin should not be used for primary prevention of CVD
Which ONE of the following is the most appropriate to provide rapid relief of angina symptoms?
A - Isosorbide mononitrate 40mg MR capsules
B - Bisoprolol 10mg tablets
C - Amlodipine 10mg tablets
D - Glyceryl trinitrate 300mcg tablets
E - Nicorandil 10mg tablets
Glyceryl trinitrate 300mcg tablets
Which ONE of the following potentially causes asystole, severe hypotension and heart failure when given concomitantly with beta blockers?
A - Lercanidipine
B - Felodipine
C - Verapamil
D - Lercidipine
E - Amlodipine
Verapamil
Which ONE of the following exacerbates digoxin toxicity?
A - Hyperkalaemia
B - Hypercalcaemia
C - Hyponatremia
D - Hypomagnesaemia
E - Hypokalaemia
Hypokalaemia
Which ONE of the following amino acids does the thiol group of captopril mimic when it inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme?
A - Phenylalanine (PHE)
B - Leucine (LEU)
C - Glutamic acid (GLU)
D - Histidine (HIS)
E - Arginine (ARG)
Histidine (HIS)
Which ONE of the drugs (CLUE: search structure) is an example of phenylalkylamine?
A - Amlodipine
B - Felodipine
C - Verapamil
D - Nifedipine
Verapamil
Which ONE of the drugs (CLUE: search structure) below is a first generation 1,4-dihydropyridine?
A - Amlodipine
B - Nifedipine
C - Verapamil
Nifedipine
Which ONE of the excipients below is used as a disintegrate in a tablet formulation?
A - Microcrystalline cellulose
B - Magnesium stearate
C - Silicon dioxide
D - Croscarmellose sodium
E - Lactose
Croscarmellose sodium
Which ONE of the excipients below is a glidant used to improve powder flow in a tablet formulation?
A - Magnesium stearate
B - Croscarmellose sodium
C - Lactose
D - Microcrystalline cellulose
E - Silicon dioxide
Silicon dioxide
Which ONE of the following statements regarding asthma is INCORRECT?
A - Asthma can be triggered by cold air in some people
B - People can die of Asthma
C - The drug omalizumab (Xolair) can be used in the treatment of asthma
D - Asthma is twice as common in males than females
E - Asthma is characterised by early and late asthmatic responses
Asthma is twice as common in males than females
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the used of Self-management plans in asthma is CORRECT?
A - Effective use of a self-management plan means there is never need for a patient to contact their GP regarding their asthma management
B - Patients need to have a home nebuliser system in order to make effective use of self-management plans
C - Patients may be required to increase their doses of inhaled corticosteroids as part of a self-management plan in response to a worsening of their asthma symptoms
D - Evidence shows that patients with self-management plans are more likely to be hospitalised as a result of worsening of their asthma symptoms
E - Antibiotics form a crucial part of self - management plans in the treatment of patients with asthma
Patients may be required to increase their doses of inhaled corticosteroids as part of a self-management plan in response to a worsening of their asthma symptoms
Which ONE of the following can significantly reduce the progressive decline in lung function in Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
A - Regular vigorous exercise
B - Low fat diet
C - Smoking cessation
D - Vitamin supplements
E - The use of inhaled steroids
Smoking cessation
Which ONE of the following medicines utilised in the treatment of COPD acts by influencing the balance of glycoproteins within mucus?
A - Tiotropium
B - Prednisolone
C - Roflumilast
D - Carbocisteine
E - Ipratropium
Carbocisteine
What is the usual target range for theophylline plasma concentrations?
A - 10 - 20 mg/L
B - 15 - 25 mg/L
C - 5 - 10 mg/L
D - 20 - 30 mg/L
E - 30 - 40 mg/L
10 - 20 mg/L
In addition to Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which ONE of the following organisms is associated with Tuberculosis (TB)?
A - Mycobacterium Kansaii clade
B - Mycobacterium gordonae clade
C - Mycobacterium Ieprae
D - Mycobacterium africanum
E - Mycobacterium avium
Mycobacterium africanum
Which ONE of the following medicines has no anti-mycobacterial activity but it is given to patients to prevent peripheral neuropathy associated with the treatment of tuberculosis?
A - Pyridoxine
B - Ethambutol
C - Rifampicin
D - Pyrazinamide
E - Isoniazid
Pyridoxine
Which ONE of the following statements regarding Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is INCORRECT?
A - Impaired mucociliary clearance can result in chronic lung infection in CF patients
B - In CF patients, biofilm formation is the final stage of pseudomonal infection
C - A decline in lung infection in CF patients is linked to chronic lung inflammation
D - The periciliary liquid layer in CF patients consists of mucin glycoproteins
E - The proteases produced by neutrophils can cleave structural proteins in the lungs
The periciliary liquid layer in CF patients consists of mucin glycoproteins
Which ONE of the following statements regarding pulmonary drug delivery devices is CORRECT?
A - A solution pressurised metered dose inhaler (pMDI) must be shaken by patient before use
B - A spacer device can be added to a breath actuated pMDI allowing a patient to inhale under normal tidal volume
C - Jet nebulizers convert the aqueous drug solutions/suspension in to a spray for inhalation using a piezoelectric crystal
D - A suspension pMDI generally has a lower respirable fraction of emitted dose than a solution pMDI
E - A dry powder inhaler (DPI) results in a variable dose because of patient’s poor inhaler technique
A suspension pMDI generally has a lower respirable fraction of emitted dose than a solution pMDI
Which ONE of the following would be the most suitable to recommend over the counter for a 5yr old child with an uncomplicated chesty cough that he’s had for 2 days?
A - Codeine
B - Diphenhydramine
C - Pholcodeine
D - Glycerol
E - Guaifenesin
Glycerol
To which ONE of the following classes of antibiotic does erythromycin belong?
A - Aminoglycosides
B - Beta lactams
C - Macrolides
D - Quinolones
E - Tetracyclines
Macrolides
Which one of the following is required when using the “start smart” approach to antibiotic prescribing?
A - Obtain cultures after commencing therapy
B - Include review/stop date or duration
C - Take a drug history
D - Start an antibiotic without evidence of infection
E - Document clinical indication in the clinical notes but not on the drug chart
Include review/stop date or duration
Based on the product shelf-life, how many days after opening must a patient discard any unused eye drops within a multiuse bottle?
A - 2
B - 28
C - 21
D - 8
E - 14
28
Which ONE of the following is NOT an approved type of childhood immunisation?
A - A live version of the organism is injected into the child
B - A live attenuated version of the organism is injected into the child
C - The detoxifies exotoxin of the organism is injected into the child
D - An inactivated version of the organism is injected into the child
E - Extracts of the organism is injected into the child
A live version of the organism is injected into the child
Which ONE of the following statements about photoallergy is INCORRECT?
A - Its biochemistry involves an ionised cysteine acting as a biological nucleophile
B - It typically manifests itself on areas of the skin that have been exposed to the sun
C - Any chemical that can haptenate a protein can trigger it
D - Its biochemistry involves an inflammatory response
E - It is a lifelong condition
Any chemical that can haptenate a protein can trigger it
Which ONE of the following statements relating to Bordetella pertussis is CORRECT?
A - This organism is Gram negative and causes whooping cough
B - This organism is classed as a rod shaped bacterium and causes myocarditis
C - This organism is classed as a coccus shaped bacterium and causes whooping cough
D - This organism is classed as a coccus shaped bacterium and causes myocarditis
E - This organism is Gram positive and causes whooping cough
This organism is Gram negative and causes whooping cough
Histoplasmosis is an infection that primarily affects lungs. Which ONE of the following agents would be most suitable to treat this disease?
A - Co-amoxiclav
B - Amphotericin B
C - Ciprofloxacin
D - Amoxycillin
E - Amantadine
Amphotericin B
Which ONE of the following methods of sterilisation would be most suitable for the preparation of vaccines for parenteral use?
A - Moist heat
B - Microfiltration
C - Dry heat
D - None of the above as vaccines do not require sterilisation
E - Gamma irradiation
Microfiltration
Which ONE of the following correctly describes the quality of grade A air in pharmaceutical cleanroom?
A - Sterile with a controlled level of humidity
B - Sterile
C - Free from contaminants
D - Free from non-viable particles but with moderate level of microorganisms
E - Controlled level of particles and almost free from microorganisms
Controlled level of particles and almost free from microorganisms
Which ONE of the following statements about the CNS is INCORRECT?
A - The NMDA-receptor is important in the pathology of hyperalgesia, epilepsy and stroke
B - Glycine mediates inhibition within spinal cord and brain stem
C - Carbidopa inhibits the peripheral metabolism of levodopa improving its efficacy
D - GABA-B receptors mediate therapeutic actions of spinal muscle relaxants (e.g. baclofen)
E - Allosteric modulators that potentiate the action of GABA include ethanol and glycine
Allosteric modulators that potentiate the action of GABA include ethanol and glycine
Which ONE of the following is a ligand operated ion channel responsible for depolarisation?
A - INa(v) (sodium channel)
B - GABA-A-type receptors
C - Na/K-ATPase (sodium pump)
D - Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
E - IK (v) (potassium channel)
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
Which ONE of the following is an agonist of inhibitory chloride channels in the CNS?
A - Magnesium
B - Calcium
C - Glycine
D - Ethanol
E - Aspartate
Glycine
Which ONE of the following statements about the blood-brain barrier is INCORRECT?
A - The blood-brain barrier is more permeable in neonates than in adults
B - Certain molecules in the blood take longer to equilibrate with tissue fluid in the brain than with tissue fluid elsewhere
C - The blood-brain barrier permits CO2 to pass freely
D - The blood-brain barrier is not fully developed at birth
E - The blood-brain barrier is more permeable to water-soluble substance than fat-soluble substances
The blood-brain barrier is more permeable to water-soluble substance than fat-soluble substances
Which ONE of the following drug groups does NOT exhibit a specific drug-receptor interaction?
A - Analgesics
B - Hypnotics
C - Anti-epileptics
D - Anti-depressants
E - Tranquilisers
Hypnotics
Which ONE of the following statements about benzodiazepines is INCORRECT?
A - A paradoxical increase in hostility and aggression may be reported by patients taking benzodiazepines
B - Withdrawal of a benzodiazepine should be gradual
C - Benzodiazepines can be used to treat severe, disabling insomnia
D - Benzodiazepines are appropriate for the treatment of short-term, mild anxiety
E - Tolerance to the effects of benzodiazepines can develop within 3 days of use
Benzodiazepines are appropriate for the treatment of short-term, mild anxiety
Which ONE of the following benzodiazepines does NOT form a long-lasting metabolite?
A - Clorazepate
B - Diazepam
C - Lorazepam
D - Chlordiazepoxide
E - Temazepam
Temazepam
Which ONE of the following is NOT a desirable property of an ideal inhalational anaesthetic?
A - Non-irritant to airway
B - Potency
C - Stability
D - No respiratory depression
E - High solubility in blood
High solubility in blood
Which of the following side effects is most likely to occur with the anaesthetic propofol?
A - Pain on injection
B - Adrenal inhibition
C - Vomiting
D - Analgesia
E - Unwanted movements
Pain on injection
A young patient presents with the following symptoms: daily, brief and intermittent reduced awareness, blinking and twitching of the eyelids and cessation of activity for seconds at a time. These symptoms are likely indicators of which type of seizures?
A - Status epilepticus
B - Myoclonic
C - Tonic-clonic
D - Infant febrile seizures
E - Absence
Absence
Which one of the following drugs will precipitate withdrawal if administered to an opioid dependent drug user?
A - Methadone
B - Diamorphine
C - Dexamphetamine
D - Naloxone
E - Lofexidine
Naloxone
Which ONE of the following statements regarding hormonal regulation of the female menstrual cycle is INCORRECT?
A - Leutenising hormone (LH) helps to mature the final (Graafian follicle) until ovulation occurs
B - LH increases production of progesterone (during luteal phase of cycle) by the corpus luteum
C - Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) promotes the development of 15-20 small follicles until only one forms the final follicle
D - The secretion of inhibin is not affected by FSH and LH
E - Both FSH and LH increase the production of oestrogen by the follicles and ovaries
The secretion of inhibin is not affected by FSH and LH
Which ONE of the following statements regarding screening of genetic conditions is INCORRECT?
A - The advice for people at risk is to undertake a carrier screen test before planning a family
B - Genetic screening can identify mutations that increase a person’s risk of developing disorders with a genetic basis
C - Preimplantation testing can screen for chromosomal disorders as well as gene disorders
D - The newborn blood spot test involves taking a blood sample from the baby’s heel
E - The combined prenatal test only considers the levels of two first trimester markers
The combined prenatal test only considers the levels of two first trimester markers
What therapy adjustment would you recommend for a new born baby who needs a dose of a water soluble drug that is not excreted by the kidneys?
A - Adjust to a higher dose in a mg/kg basis and administer less often
B - Adjust to a lower dose in a mg/kg basis and administer more often
C - Adjust to a higher dose in a mg/kg basis
D - Adjust to a lower dose in a mg/kg basis
E - No adjustments of dosage or frequency
Adjust to a higher dose in a mg/kg basis and administer less often
Which ONE of the following excipients is a commonly used sweetener in liquid formulations, but can promote dental carriers in children?
A - Disodium edetate
B - Sucrose
C - Hypromellose
D - Propylene glycol
E - Lactose
Sucrose
Emotional abuse is the persistent emotional maltreatment of a child or adult. Which ONE of the following is most likely to indicate emotional abuse in a child?
A - Bruises on the abdomen
B - Knowledge of sexual activity inappropriate for age
C - Speech disorders
D - Recurrent infection
E - Poor hygiene
Speech disorders
Which ONE of the following is NOT a usual part of a multi-factorial approach to managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A - Increasing blood levels of low density lipoproteins
B - Management of hypertension
C - Losing weight (where appropriate)
D - Decreasing blood levels of triglycerides
E - Smoking cessation
Increasing blood levels of low density lipoproteins
Which ONE of the following drugs is the gold standard therapy for treatment of diabetes mellitus in the UK, with no risk of hypoglycaemia when used as a monotherapy?
A - Acarbose
B - Metformin
C - Sulphonylurea - Glibenclamide
D - Sitagliptin
E - Exenatide
Metformin
