Mock Flashcards
vasovagal reaction
Faint
This structure adheres to the bone surface, it contains osteoblasts and osteoclasts, which form and destroy bone matrix.
Inner (visceral) osteoblastic layer of the periosteum.
This structure is made of fibrous connective tissue and contains fibroblasts, blood vessels and nerve fibres.
Outer (parietal) layer of the periosteum.
Which cylindrical structures, consisting of concentric rings (lamellae) of matrix surrounding a central canal are a predominant feature of compact bone?
Osteon.
These are channels which run through the core of each osteon in order to carry neurovascular structures.
Haversian canals
In osteology, what channels which run perpendicular (at 90 degrees) to the central canal and connect them to the periosteum?
Volkmann canals
This bone is harder and denser than spongy bone and forms the tough outer shell (cortex).
Compact bone
This bone surface is formed by branching and anastomosing bars and plates of osseous tissue. The trabeculae are the main support structure of this bone.
Cancellous bone
List three types of fracture.
Transverse
Oblique
Greenstick
Compound fracture
crushed fracture
Comminuted fracture
Spiral fracture
Closed fracture
With reference to the structure of bone, explain what happens when a fracture occurs and how it heals.
Inflammatory / Reactive stage
When the fracture first occurs a blood clot forms around the fracture within the first 24 hours, this causes a large blood clot called a hematoma to form.
Then the necrosed cells that died due to the trauma (break) release cytokines (which are chemical signals) which will start the healing process as it means specialist cells will start to work.
Fibroblasts and chondroblasts begin the granulation process where granulation tissue will replace the hematoma which takes 3-10 days. The granulation tissue is a mesh of cartilage and fibrocartilage.
Osteoclasts will also remove necrotic tissue from bone.
Reparative phase
A soft callus is formed in the granulation phase, and it fills the gaps in the fracture fragments.
After a few weeks, capillaries grow in the soft callus to improve vascularisation and help with healing.
Then osteoblasts at the periosteum lay down soft and unorganized bone that will connect the bits of bone back together. It forms almost like a capsule around the affected area. This is called woven bone.
After this, the hard callus will start to form which is about 2- to 3 weeks after the fracture occurred. This works by the osteoblasts using minerals such as calcium and phosphate to make a hard callus starting at the edges of the soft callus and moving inwards once the outer edges have been filled. The woven bone is last until all the fragments of the fracture are put together by the new bone and this takes about 3-4 months after the fracture.
Bone remodeling phase.
This process can take several years, the hard callus will become a capsule over the fracture site meaning it looks enlarged to the rest of the bone.
The osteoblasts start to rebuild the bone but they do this randomly so in the next stage the osteoclasts remodel the new bone formed.
Over time any woven bone will be made into the lamellar of the bone and the medullary canal will return also.
Sutures, syndesmoses and gomphoses are three types of which joint classification?
Choose the correct answer from the following:
Select one:
a.
Synovial Joints
b.
Fibrous Joints
c.
Cartilaginous Joints
Fibrous Joints
Correct. These joints have very limited or no movement.
1st carpometacarpal joints are what kind of joint?
a.
Ball and Socket
b.
Hinge
c.
Saddle
d.
Ellipisoid
e.
Plane
f.
Pivot
c. saddle
The articular surfaces are concave and convex and allow a wide range of movements. The 1st carpometacarpal joints are examples.
1st meta-phalangeal joint is what
a.
Plane
b.
Ball and Socket
c.
Saddle
d.
Hinge
e.
Pivot
f.
Condylar / Ellipisoid
Condylar / Ellipisoid
Otherwise known as condyloid (knuckle-like, not to be mistaken for Condylar). They resemble saddle joints but have less movement.
What joint is the articulation between the Atlas (C1) and Axis (C2) which also allows uniaxial rotation
Select one:
a.
Ellipisoid
b.
Saddle
c.
Hinge
d.
Ball and Socket
e.
Pivot
f.
Plane
e.
Pivot
Another example of this joint is the articulation between the Atlas (C1) and Axis (C2) which also allows uniaxial rotation.
The articular surfaces are flat and allow gliding movements. Other examples are the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
What kind of joint is this?
Select one:
a.
Plane
b.
Ellipisoid
c.
Ball and Socket
d.
Pivot
e.
Saddle
f.
Hinge
Plane
Which type of synovial joint has been depicted? (1 mark)
Elbow joint?
Select one:
a.
Plane joint
b.
Hinge joint
c.
Pivot
d.
Ellipisoid
e.
Saddle
f.
Ball and Socket
Hinge joint
This joint allows uni-direction movement of flexion and extension only.
What generic centring point should be used for radiographic examination of the Finger(s)? (1 mark)
Proximal Interphalangeal Joint of the affected digit.
What centring point is used for an AP projection of the Humerus?
Midway between the Shoulder and Elbow joints.
What is the correct centring point to use when imaging the Thumb? 1 mark
First metacarpo-phalangeal joint.
The pharynx sits between C1 and C4
Select one:
True
False
False Correct
The nose is lined with ciliated columnar epithelium
Select one:
True
False
True Correct
One of the functions of the pharynx is to warm and humidify air
Select one:
True
False
True Correct
The trachea divides into 2 at which vertebral level ?
a.
Thoracic vertebra 6
b.
Thoracic vertebra 5
c.
Thoracic vertebra 4
d.
Cervical vertebra 4
Thoracic vertebra 4
The larynx is composed of 4 cartilages
Select one:
True
False
False - the larynx is composed of 5 cartilages
Food is prevented from going down the trachea by the epiglottis
Select one:
True
False
True Correct
The larynx sits inferiorly to the hyoid bone
Select one:
True
False
True Correct
The left bronchus is shorter than the right one
Select one:
True
False
False Correct
The intercostal muscles are found between the ribs
Select one:
True
False
True
Fibrotic changes in the lungs have no affect on their compliance
Select one:
True
False
False
The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm at T10
Select one:
True
False
True Correct
The stomach is a retroperitoneal structure
Select one:
True
False
False
Your parotid salivary gland in found under your tongue
Select one:
True
False
False
it sits in your cheek in front of your ear
Intrinsic factor combines with Vitamin B1
Select one:
True
False
False
its Vitamin B12
The muscularis consists of circular muscle fibres only
Select one:
True
False
False it also has longitudinal fibres too
The pyloric sphincter sits in the superior part of the stomach
Select one:
True
False
The pyloric sphincter sits in the superior part of the stomach
Select one:
False
It sits in the distal part of the stomach
The epiglottis seals off the oesophagus when swallowing
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
False
it seal off the trachea
The GI tract is lined with squamous cells
Select one:
True
False
The GI tract is lined with squamous cells
Select one:
False
Chyme is found in the small intestine
Select one:
True
False
Chyme is found in the small intestine
Select one:
False
its found in the stomach
Gastric pits are found in the stomach
Select one:
True
False
True
Salivary amylase is used in the digestion of proteins
Select one:
True
False
Salivary amylase is used in the digestion of proteins
Select one:
False
-its for the digestion of starch
The stomach sits superiorly to the transverse colon
Select one:
True
False
True
The GI tract consists of 3 layers
Select one:
True
False
The GI tract consists of 3 layers
Select one:
False
there are 4
The peritoneum is the largest serous membrane of the body
Select one:
True
False
The peritoneum is the largest serous membrane of the body
Select one:
True
The movement of food through the GI tract is via a process called peristalsis
Select one:
True
False
The movement of food through the GI tract is via a process called peristalsis
Select one:
True Correct
The sphincter of Oddi is found in the stomach
Select one:
True
False
The sphincter of Oddi is found in the stomach
Select one:
False -well done. Its found in the duodenum
Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by sulphuric acid
Select one:
True
False
False
The stomach sits in the right hypochondriac region
Select one:
True
False
The stomach sits in the right hypochondriac region
Select one:
False
The Oesophagus sits to the right of the sternum
Select one:
True
False
False
The correct description for a very slim person is mesomorph
Select one:
True
False
The correct description for a very slim person is mesomorph
Select one:
False Correct
Secretions from the pancreas entry the GI tract via the hepatopancreatic ampulla
Select one:
True
False
Secretions from the pancreas entry the GI tract via the hepatopancreatic ampulla
Select one:
True
The tongue is supplied by the lobular artery
Select one:
True
False
The tongue is supplied by the lobular artery
Select one:
False
the correct answer is The Lingual artery
The lining of the stomach lies in large folds called haustra
Select one:
True
False
False
They are called rugae
The Oropharynx sits superior to the laryngopharynx
Select one:
True
False
True Correct
The papillae is the correct anatomical name for the taste buds
Select one:
True
False
The papillae is the correct anatomical name for the taste buds
Select one:
True Correct
The parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal wall
Select one:
True
False
The parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal wall
Select one:
True Correct
Bile salts are absorbed in the jejunum
Select one:
True
False
Bile salts are absorbed in the jejunum
Select one:
False Correct
The appendix is full of good bacteria
Select one:
True
False
The appendix is full of good bacteria
Select one:
True Correct
The plicae circulares slows down the passage of food
Select one:
True
False
The plicae circulares slows down the passage of food
Select one:
True Correct
Haustrations are found in the large bowel
Select one:
True
False
Haustrations are found in the large bowel
Select one:
True Correct
The caecum is found in the epigastric region
Select one:
True
False
The caecum is found in the epigastric region
Select one:
False Correct
Pancreatic juice contain lipase
Select one:
True
False
Pancreatic juice contain lipase
Select one:
True Correct
The ascending colon is a retroperitoneal structure
Select one:
True
False
The ascending colon is a retroperitoneal structure
Select one:
True Correct
Peyer’s patches are found in the duodenum
Select one:
True
False
Peyer’s patches are found in the duodenum
Select one:
False
The ascending colon is supplied by branches of the Superior Mesenteric Artery
Select one:
True
False
The ascending colon is supplied by branches of the Superior Mesenteric Artery
Select one:
True Correct
The iliac forms parts of the small intestine
Select one:
True
False
The iliac forms parts of the small intestine
Select one:
False
its the ileum
Finger like projections in the wall of the bowel are called villi
Select one:
True
False
Finger like projections in the wall of the bowel are called villi
Select one:
True
The rectum sits at the Level of L2
Select one:
True
False
The rectum sits at the Level of L2
Select one:
False Correct
Correct -the rectum sits at the Level of S3
The hepatic flexure is found between the descending and transverse portions of the colon
Select one:
True
False
False
All of the duodenum is intraperitoneal
Select one:
True
False
All of the duodenum is intraperitoneal
Select one:
False
The scapula has a coronoid process
Select one:
True
False
False
Feedback
No, its a corocoid process
The function of the glenoid labrum is to provide stability for the shoulder joint
Select one:
True
False
True
The clavicle has a conoid tubercle
Select one:
True
False
True
The acromio - clavicular joint is a synovial saddle joint
Select one:
True
False
False
The sterno clavicular joint is a synovial saddle joint
Select one:
True
False
False
The clavicle articulates with the corocoid
Select one:
True
False
False
No, it articulates with the acromion and the sternum
The subscapular fossa is on the anterior surface of the scapula
Select one:
True
False
True
The liver weighs between 1 -2.3 kg
Select one:
True
False
True
The majority of the liver sits in the left hypochondriac region
Select one:
True
False
The majority of the liver sits in the left hypochondriac region
Select one:
False
No, this in not correct. The majority of the liver sits in the RIGHT hypochondriac region
The liver sits anterior to the oesophagus
Select one:
True
False
True
The liver sits above the right adrenal gland
Select one:
True
False
True
The quadrate lobe is the smallest lobe of the liver
Select one:
True
False
The quadrate lobe is the smallest lobe of the liver
Select one:
False
its the caudate
The portal fissure is where the blood vessels and nerve fibres enter and leave the liver
Select one:
True
False
True
A blood vessel with an incomplete wall is called a capillary
Select one:
True
False
A blood vessel with an incomplete wall is called a capillary
Select one:
False
its a sinusoid
Cholesterol is found in bile
Select one:
True
False
True
Bile is needed to digest protein
Select one:
True
False
False
Jaundice is caused by excess bilirubin
Select one:
True
False
True
Microbes in the large intestine convert Bilirubin to glucuronic acid
Select one:
True
False
False
The cystic duct empties at the Ampulla of Vater
Select one:
True
False
True
The gall bladder is an intraperitoneal structure.
Select one:
True
False
False
The stomach is posterior to the gall bladder
Select one:
True
False
True
The gall bladder makes bile
Select one:
True
False
False
The pancreas gets some of it blood supply from the splenic artery
Select one:
True
False
True
The pancreas consists of a head, neck and body
Select one:
True
False
The pancreas consists of a head, neck and body
False
its head, body and tail
Hepatocytes are cuboidal cells
Select one:
True
False
True
Kupffer cells are found in the gall bladder
Select one:
True
False
Kupffer cells are found in the gall bladder
Select one:
False
they are found in the liver
Vitamin D is stored in the liver
Select one:
True
False
True
The common hepatic duct is formed by the right and left hepatic duct and the cystic duct.
Select one:
True
False
The common hepatic duct is formed by the right and left hepatic duct and the cystic duct.
Select one:
False
its just the right and left hepatic duct
The pancreas is both an exocrine and endocrine gland
Select one:
True
False
True
The Islets of Langerhans produce insulin
Select one:
True
False
True
The ischium forms part of the acetabulum
Select one:
True
False
True
The obturator foramen is found in the
a.
Ischium bone
b.
Pubic bone
c.
Ilium bone
b.
Pubic bone
When comparing the female bony pelvis to the male, which of the following are true
a.
The female pelvis has a wider pubic arch
b.
The female pelvis has less prominent ischial spines
c.
The female pelvis has a longer sacrum
d.
The female pelvis has larger obturator foramen
e.
a and b only
f.
All of the above
e.
a and b only
The sacroiliac joints are
a.
synovial saddle joints
b.
Plane joints
c.
Synovial plane joints
c.
Synovial plane joints
Where the pubic bones join, a synovial symphysis is created
Select one:
True
False
False
its a cartilaginous symphysis
The ischium can also be called the ala
Select one:
True
False
False
its is the ilium
When x-raying a lateral femur, the femoral condyles must be
a.
equidistant from each other
b.
superimposed
c.
equidistant from the table top
superimposed
A patient comes for an x-ray of their pelvis following an accident. There left hip is painful. What projections would you do?
a.
AP pelvis only
b.
AP hips and turned lateral left hip
c.
AP hips and horizontal beam lateral left hip
d.
AP pelvis and horizontal beam lateral left hip
e.
AP pelvis and turned lateral left hip
d.
AP pelvis and horizontal beam lateral left hip
When positioning a patient for AP Pelvis, their ASIS must be superimposed
Select one:
True
False
False
When undertaking an AP projection of the pelvis, internally rotating the patients legs, brings the greater trochanter closer to the Image Receptor
Select one:
True
False
False
No, it brings it further away, but into profile, so we can see it better
For an AP projection of the pelvis, I would centre over the symphysis pubis, in the midline
Select one:
True
False
For an AP projection of the pelvis, I would centre over the symphysis pubis, in the midline
Select one:
False
its 5cm above the symphysis pubis
The centring point for an AP projection of the pelvis is
a.
on the symphysis pubis
b.
5cm above the symphysis pubis in the mid line
c.
on the symphysis pubis in the midline
d.
in the middle of the image receptor
e.
5 cm above the symphysis pubis
b.
5cm above the symphysis pubis in the mid line
You need to undertake an AP projection of a left hip - which AED chamber do you select?
a.
the right hand one
b.
the middle one
c.
All 3
d.
the left hand one
b.
the middle one
Which projection best demonstrates a SUFE?
a.
A turned lateral of the affected side
b.
An AP both hips
c.
A turned lateral of the unaffected side
d.
A frog lateral
d.
A frog lateral
When x-raying sacroiliac joints ad the patient is lying prone, you need to angle the x-ray tube cranially
Select one:
True
False
False
Lumbar vertebrae have
a.
heart shaped bodies
b.
kidney shaped bodies
c.
circular shaped bodies
d.
oval shaped bodies
b.
kidney shaped bodies
Facet joints are an example of a
a.
synovial plane joint
b.
synovial condylar joint
c.
synovial saddle joint
d.
synovial hinge joint
synovial plane joint
C1 is also know as the atlas
Select one:
True
False
True
Bifid spinous processes are only found in the thoracic region
Select one:
True
False
False
The odontoid peg is flattened on its posterior surface because…
a.
it articulates with the transverse ligament
b.
it articulates with the atlas
c.
it articulates with the skull
d.
it articulates with the coronal ligament
it articulates with the transverse ligament
Costal articular facets are found
a.
on the transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae
b.
on the spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae
c.
on the transverse processes of thoracic vertebrae
d.
on the spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae
on the transverse processes of thoracic vertebrae
The spinous processes on thoracic vertebrae are described as
a.
short and straight
b.
long and sloping
c.
short and sloping
d.
long and straight
b.
long and sloping
Cervical vertebrae have….
a.
round bodies and triangular vertebral foramen
b.
heart shaped bodies and triangular vertebral foramen
c.
oval bodies and round vertebral foramen
d.
oval bodies and triangular vertebral foramen
oval bodies and triangular vertebral foramen
The C1 - Occiput joint is an example of
a.
a synovial plane joint
b.
a synovial pivot joint
c.
a synovial condylar joint
d.
a synovial saddle joint
a synovial condylar joint
The anatomical relations of the vagina are
a.
bladder, rectum, ovary and cervix
b.
bladder, rectum, anus and small bowel
c.
bladder, rectum, anus and cervix
d.
bladder, rectum, ureter and cervix
bladder, rectum, anus and cervix
The uterus is divided into
a.
fundus, cervix and neck
b.
neck, body and cervix
c.
fundus, body and cervix
d.
fundus, body and neck
c.
fundus, body and cervix
The Pouch of Douglas sits
a.
anterior to the uterus
b.
inferior to the uterus
c.
posterior to the uterus
d.
superior to the uterus
posterior to the uterus
The inner layer of the uterus is called the myometrium
Select one:
True
False
False
The seminiferous tubules and made up of
a.
columnated epithelial cells
b.
germinal epithelial cells
c.
cilliated epithelial cells
d.
stirated epithelial cell
germinal epithelial cells
The testicular artery arises off the aorta…
a.
just before the aorta divides in the pelvis
b.
just above the renal arteries
c.
just below the inferior mesenteric artery
d.
just below the renal arteries
d.
just below the renal arteries
The ejaculatory duct is formed from…
a.
the deferent duct and the seminal vesicle duct
b.
the deferent duct and the prostrate duct
c.
the efferent duct and the seminal vesicle duct
d.
the prostrate duct and the seminal vesicle duct
a.
the deferent duct and the seminal vesicle duct
The finger like projections at the end of the fallopian tubes are called
a.
villa
b.
fimbra
c.
fimbriae
d.
villi
c.
fimbriae
The ovum moves in to the uterus by
a.
peristalsis
b.
ciliary movement
c.
ciliary movement and peristalsis
c.
ciliary movement and peristalsis
The cortex of an ovary is covered in fimbriae
Select one:
True
False
False
A maturing follicle is called a
a.
Graafian follicle
b.
Primary follicle
c.
Germinal follicle
d.
Luteal follicle
a.
Graafian follicle
Each half of the scrotum contains
a.
1 testis, 1 deferent duct and 1 spermatic cord
b.
1 testis, 1 epididymis and 1 spermatic cord
c.
1 testis, 1 afferent duct and 1 spermatic cord
d.
1 testis, 1 epididymis and 1 deferent duct
b.
1 testis, 1 epididymis and 1 spermatic cord
The testes consists of 3 layers of tissue. The tunica vaginalis, the tunica albuginea and the tunica intima
Select one:
True
False
False
The seminiferous tubules join together to form the
a.
testes
b.
seminal vesicle
c.
epididymis
d.
spermatic cord
c.
epididymis
The penis consists of 3 cylindrical masses of erectile tissue, 2 of which are called the corpora cavernosa
Select one:
True
False
True
Which one of the following is NOT an anatomical relation of the Right Kidney?
a.
Duodenum
b.
Jejunum
c.
Liver
d.
Right Adrenal Gland
b.
Jejunum
The closed end of a nephron is called
a.
The glomerulus
b.
the convoluted tubule
c.
the glomerular capsule
c.
the glomerular capsule
The pointed end of a renal pyramid is called the papilla
Select one:
True
False
True
The ureters are a retroperitoneal structure
Select one:
True
False
True
The ureters are continuous with
a.
The Loop of Henle
b.
The renal pelvis
c.
The renal cortex
d.
The renal medulla
b.
The renal pelvis
The bladder has 3 openings, together they are called
a.
The tri cysts
b.
The triangle
c.
The trigone
d.
The tri foramen
c.
The trigone
Rugae can be found in
a.
The stomach
b.
The urinary bladder
c.
The small intestine
d.
a and b
e.
a, b and c
d.
a and b
a.
The stomach
b.
The urinary bladder
The kidneys secrete erythropoietin
Select one:
True
False
True
In the kidneys, the efferent arteriole has a smaller diameter because….
a.
It allows the cells to move out easier
b.
its small structure, so there is not much room
c.
it stops the red blood cells from leaving
d.
It increases the pressure to drive filtration
d.
It increases the pressure to drive filtration
The glomerular filtration rate for an adult is
a.
125l/min
b.
125ml/min
c.
125mm/min
d.
125cl/min
b.
125ml/min
Selective reabsorption takes place in
a.
Distal convoluted tubule
b.
Proximal convoluted tubule
c.
renal pelvis
d.
Loop of Henle
b.
Proximal convoluted tubule
Which of the following are selectively reabsorbed, within the kidney, as part of the production of urine
a.
water
b.
electrolytes
c.
amino acids
d.
all of the above
d.
all of the above
Atrial natriuretic peptide increases the absorption of sodium
Select one:
True
False
False
In what order do the following processes occur within the kidney
a.
filtration, tubular reabsorption, selective secretion
b.
tubular secretion, filtration, selective reabsorption
c.
selective reabsorption, tubular secretion, filtration
d.
filtration, selective reabsorption, tubular secretion
d.
filtration, selective reabsorption, tubular secretion
The hormones regulating blood calcium levels are
Select one:
a.
parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
b.
glycogen and parathyroid hormone.
c.
oestrogen and progesterone
d.
insulin and glucagon.
a.
parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
Which of the following organs is NOT part of the endocrine system:
a.
Kidney
b.
Thyroid Gland
c.
Spleen
d.
Pituitary Gland
e.
Pancreas
Spleen
Match the following hormones to the organs where they are produced: Organs Pancreas Thymus Pineal Gland Adrenal Gland
Hormones Insulin Thymopoietin Aldosterone Melatonin
The correct answer is:
Pancreas → Insulin,
Thymus → Thymopoietin,
Pineal Gland → Melatonin,
Adrenal Gland → Aldosterone
Hashimoto’s disease is caused by:
a.
Hyperparathyroidism
b.
Hypothyroidism
c.
Hyperthyroidism
d.
Hypnothyroidism
Hypothyroidism
Glucagon function
Select one:
a.
decreases the conversion of glycogen into glucose.
b.
accelerates the conversion of glycogen into glucose.
c.
slows down glucose formation from lactic acid.
d.
speeds up protein synthesis within cells.
b.
accelerates the conversion of glycogen into glucose.
The gland which can be classified as an endocrine and an exocrine gland is the
Select one:
a.
pituitary.
b.
thyroid.
c.
pancreas.
d.
thymus.
c.
pancreas.
Hormones of the exocrine system are delivered directly into the blood steam.
Select one:
True
False
False
The parathyroid is reponsible for:
a.
Increasing cortisol levels
b.
The regulation of hormone secretion within the endocrine system
c.
Helping regulate blood glucose levels
d.
Helping regulate blood calcium levels
d.
Helping regulate blood calcium levels
Gastrin and cholocystokinin are examples of exocrine hormones.
Select one:
True
False
True
Glucogon and Insulin are produced in the pancreas.
What is the name of the specialist cells?
Islets of Langerhans
