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Radiography Year 1 Introduction to Diagnostic Imaging Practice RAD4044 > Mock > Flashcards

Mock Flashcards

1
Q

vasovagal reaction

A

Faint

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2
Q

This structure adheres to the bone surface, it contains osteoblasts and osteoclasts, which form and destroy bone matrix.

A

Inner (visceral) osteoblastic layer of the periosteum.

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3
Q

This structure is made of fibrous connective tissue and contains fibroblasts, blood vessels and nerve fibres.

A

Outer (parietal) layer of the periosteum.

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4
Q

Which cylindrical structures, consisting of concentric rings (lamellae) of matrix surrounding a central canal are a predominant feature of compact bone?

A

Osteon.

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5
Q

These are channels which run through the core of each osteon in order to carry neurovascular structures.

A

Haversian canals

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6
Q

In osteology, what channels which run perpendicular (at 90 degrees) to the central canal and connect them to the periosteum?

A

Volkmann canals

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7
Q

This bone is harder and denser than spongy bone and forms the tough outer shell (cortex).

A

Compact bone

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8
Q

This bone surface is formed by branching and anastomosing bars and plates of osseous tissue. The trabeculae are the main support structure of this bone.

A

Cancellous bone

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9
Q

List three types of fracture.

A

Transverse

Oblique

Greenstick

Compound fracture

crushed fracture

Comminuted fracture

Spiral fracture

Closed fracture

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10
Q

With reference to the structure of bone, explain what happens when a fracture occurs and how it heals.

A

Inflammatory / Reactive stage
When the fracture first occurs a blood clot forms around the fracture within the first 24 hours, this causes a large blood clot called a hematoma to form.
Then the necrosed cells that died due to the trauma (break) release cytokines (which are chemical signals) which will start the healing process as it means specialist cells will start to work.
Fibroblasts and chondroblasts begin the granulation process where granulation tissue will replace the hematoma which takes 3-10 days. The granulation tissue is a mesh of cartilage and fibrocartilage.
Osteoclasts will also remove necrotic tissue from bone.
Reparative phase
A soft callus is formed in the granulation phase, and it fills the gaps in the fracture fragments.
After a few weeks, capillaries grow in the soft callus to improve vascularisation and help with healing.
Then osteoblasts at the periosteum lay down soft and unorganized bone that will connect the bits of bone back together. It forms almost like a capsule around the affected area. This is called woven bone.
After this, the hard callus will start to form which is about 2- to 3 weeks after the fracture occurred. This works by the osteoblasts using minerals such as calcium and phosphate to make a hard callus starting at the edges of the soft callus and moving inwards once the outer edges have been filled. The woven bone is last until all the fragments of the fracture are put together by the new bone and this takes about 3-4 months after the fracture.

Bone remodeling phase.
This process can take several years, the hard callus will become a capsule over the fracture site meaning it looks enlarged to the rest of the bone.
The osteoblasts start to rebuild the bone but they do this randomly so in the next stage the osteoclasts remodel the new bone formed.
Over time any woven bone will be made into the lamellar of the bone and the medullary canal will return also.

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11
Q

Sutures, syndesmoses and gomphoses are three types of which joint classification?

Choose the correct answer from the following:
Select one:

a.
Synovial Joints

b.
Fibrous Joints

c.
Cartilaginous Joints

A

Fibrous Joints

Correct. These joints have very limited or no movement.

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12
Q

1st carpometacarpal joints are what kind of joint?

a.
Ball and Socket

b.
Hinge

c.
Saddle

d.
Ellipisoid

e.
Plane

f.
Pivot

A

c. saddle
The articular surfaces are concave and convex and allow a wide range of movements. The 1st carpometacarpal joints are examples.

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13
Q

1st meta-phalangeal joint is what
a.
Plane

b.
Ball and Socket

c.
Saddle

d.
Hinge

e.
Pivot

f.
Condylar / Ellipisoid

A

Condylar / Ellipisoid
Otherwise known as condyloid (knuckle-like, not to be mistaken for Condylar). They resemble saddle joints but have less movement.

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14
Q

What joint is the articulation between the Atlas (C1) and Axis (C2) which also allows uniaxial rotation

Select one:
a.
Ellipisoid

b.
Saddle

c.
Hinge

d.
Ball and Socket

e.
Pivot

f.
Plane

A

e.
Pivot
Another example of this joint is the articulation between the Atlas (C1) and Axis (C2) which also allows uniaxial rotation.

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15
Q

The articular surfaces are flat and allow gliding movements. Other examples are the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
What kind of joint is this?
Select one:

a.
Plane

b.
Ellipisoid

c.
Ball and Socket

d.
Pivot

e.
Saddle

f.
Hinge

A

Plane

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16
Q

Which type of synovial joint has been depicted? (1 mark)
Elbow joint?

Select one:
a.
Plane joint

b.
Hinge joint

c.
Pivot

d.
Ellipisoid

e.
Saddle

f.
Ball and Socket

A

Hinge joint

This joint allows uni-direction movement of flexion and extension only.

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17
Q

What generic centring point should be used for radiographic examination of the Finger(s)? (1 mark)

A

Proximal Interphalangeal Joint of the affected digit.

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18
Q

What centring point is used for an AP projection of the Humerus?

A

Midway between the Shoulder and Elbow joints.

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19
Q

What is the correct centring point to use when imaging the Thumb? 1 mark

A

First metacarpo-phalangeal joint.

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20
Q

The pharynx sits between C1 and C4

Select one:
True
False

A

False Correct

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21
Q

The nose is lined with ciliated columnar epithelium

Select one:
True
False

A

True Correct

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22
Q

One of the functions of the pharynx is to warm and humidify air

Select one:
True
False

A

True Correct

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23
Q

The trachea divides into 2 at which vertebral level ?

a.
Thoracic vertebra 6

b.
Thoracic vertebra 5

c.
Thoracic vertebra 4

d.
Cervical vertebra 4

A

Thoracic vertebra 4

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24
Q

The larynx is composed of 4 cartilages

Select one:
True
False

A

False - the larynx is composed of 5 cartilages

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25
Q

Food is prevented from going down the trachea by the epiglottis

Select one:
True
False

A

True Correct

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26
Q

The larynx sits inferiorly to the hyoid bone

Select one:
True
False

A

True Correct

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27
Q

The left bronchus is shorter than the right one

Select one:
True
False

A

False Correct

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28
Q

The intercostal muscles are found between the ribs

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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29
Q

Fibrotic changes in the lungs have no affect on their compliance

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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30
Q

The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm at T10

Select one:
True
False

A

True Correct

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31
Q

The stomach is a retroperitoneal structure

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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32
Q

Your parotid salivary gland in found under your tongue

Select one:
True
False

A

False

it sits in your cheek in front of your ear

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33
Q

Intrinsic factor combines with Vitamin B1

Select one:
True
False

A

False

its Vitamin B12

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34
Q

The muscularis consists of circular muscle fibres only

Select one:
True
False

A

False it also has longitudinal fibres too

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35
Q

The pyloric sphincter sits in the superior part of the stomach

Select one:
True
False

A

The pyloric sphincter sits in the superior part of the stomach

Select one:
False
It sits in the distal part of the stomach

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36
Q

The epiglottis seals off the oesophagus when swallowing

Select one:
True
False

A

Select one:
False
it seal off the trachea

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37
Q

The GI tract is lined with squamous cells

Select one:
True
False

A

The GI tract is lined with squamous cells

Select one:
False

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38
Q

Chyme is found in the small intestine

Select one:
True
False

A

Chyme is found in the small intestine

Select one:
False
its found in the stomach

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39
Q

Gastric pits are found in the stomach

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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40
Q

Salivary amylase is used in the digestion of proteins

Select one:
True
False

A

Salivary amylase is used in the digestion of proteins

Select one:
False
-its for the digestion of starch

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41
Q

The stomach sits superiorly to the transverse colon

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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42
Q

The GI tract consists of 3 layers

Select one:
True
False

A

The GI tract consists of 3 layers

Select one:
False
there are 4

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43
Q

The peritoneum is the largest serous membrane of the body

Select one:
True
False

A

The peritoneum is the largest serous membrane of the body

Select one:
True

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44
Q

The movement of food through the GI tract is via a process called peristalsis

Select one:
True
False

A

The movement of food through the GI tract is via a process called peristalsis

Select one:
True Correct

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45
Q

The sphincter of Oddi is found in the stomach

Select one:
True
False

A

The sphincter of Oddi is found in the stomach

Select one:

False -well done. Its found in the duodenum

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46
Q

Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by sulphuric acid

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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47
Q

The stomach sits in the right hypochondriac region

Select one:
True
False

A

The stomach sits in the right hypochondriac region

Select one:
False

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48
Q

The Oesophagus sits to the right of the sternum

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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49
Q

The correct description for a very slim person is mesomorph

Select one:
True
False

A

The correct description for a very slim person is mesomorph

Select one:
False Correct

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50
Q

Secretions from the pancreas entry the GI tract via the hepatopancreatic ampulla

Select one:
True
False

A

Secretions from the pancreas entry the GI tract via the hepatopancreatic ampulla

Select one:
True

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51
Q

The tongue is supplied by the lobular artery

Select one:
True
False

A

The tongue is supplied by the lobular artery

Select one:
False
the correct answer is The Lingual artery

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52
Q

The lining of the stomach lies in large folds called haustra

Select one:
True
False

A

False

They are called rugae

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53
Q

The Oropharynx sits superior to the laryngopharynx

Select one:
True
False

A

True Correct

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54
Q

The papillae is the correct anatomical name for the taste buds

Select one:
True
False

A

The papillae is the correct anatomical name for the taste buds

Select one:
True Correct

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55
Q

The parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal wall

Select one:
True
False

A

The parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal wall

Select one:
True Correct

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56
Q

Bile salts are absorbed in the jejunum

Select one:
True
False

A

Bile salts are absorbed in the jejunum

Select one:
False Correct

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57
Q

The appendix is full of good bacteria

Select one:
True
False

A

The appendix is full of good bacteria

Select one:
True Correct

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58
Q

The plicae circulares slows down the passage of food

Select one:
True
False

A

The plicae circulares slows down the passage of food

Select one:
True Correct

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59
Q

Haustrations are found in the large bowel

Select one:
True
False

A

Haustrations are found in the large bowel

Select one:
True Correct

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60
Q

The caecum is found in the epigastric region

Select one:
True
False

A

The caecum is found in the epigastric region

Select one:

False Correct

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61
Q

Pancreatic juice contain lipase

Select one:
True
False

A

Pancreatic juice contain lipase

Select one:
True Correct

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62
Q

The ascending colon is a retroperitoneal structure

Select one:
True
False

A

The ascending colon is a retroperitoneal structure

Select one:
True Correct

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63
Q

Peyer’s patches are found in the duodenum

Select one:
True
False

A

Peyer’s patches are found in the duodenum

Select one:
False

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64
Q

The ascending colon is supplied by branches of the Superior Mesenteric Artery

Select one:
True
False

A

The ascending colon is supplied by branches of the Superior Mesenteric Artery

Select one:
True Correct

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65
Q

The iliac forms parts of the small intestine

Select one:
True
False

A

The iliac forms parts of the small intestine

Select one:
False
its the ileum

66
Q

Finger like projections in the wall of the bowel are called villi

Select one:
True
False

A

Finger like projections in the wall of the bowel are called villi

Select one:
True

67
Q

The rectum sits at the Level of L2

Select one:
True
False

A

The rectum sits at the Level of L2

Select one:
False Correct
Correct -the rectum sits at the Level of S3

68
Q

The hepatic flexure is found between the descending and transverse portions of the colon

Select one:
True
False

A

False

69
Q

All of the duodenum is intraperitoneal

Select one:
True
False

A

All of the duodenum is intraperitoneal

Select one:
False

70
Q

The scapula has a coronoid process

Select one:
True
False

A

False
Feedback
No, its a corocoid process

71
Q

The function of the glenoid labrum is to provide stability for the shoulder joint

Select one:
True
False

A

True

72
Q

The clavicle has a conoid tubercle

Select one:
True
False

A

True

73
Q

The acromio - clavicular joint is a synovial saddle joint

Select one:
True
False

A

False

74
Q

The sterno clavicular joint is a synovial saddle joint

Select one:
True
False

A

False

75
Q

The clavicle articulates with the corocoid

Select one:
True
False

A

False

No, it articulates with the acromion and the sternum

76
Q

The subscapular fossa is on the anterior surface of the scapula

Select one:
True
False

A

True

77
Q

The liver weighs between 1 -2.3 kg

Select one:
True
False

A

True

78
Q

The majority of the liver sits in the left hypochondriac region

Select one:
True
False

A

The majority of the liver sits in the left hypochondriac region

Select one:
False
No, this in not correct. The majority of the liver sits in the RIGHT hypochondriac region

79
Q

The liver sits anterior to the oesophagus

Select one:
True
False

A

True

80
Q

The liver sits above the right adrenal gland

Select one:
True
False

A

True

81
Q

The quadrate lobe is the smallest lobe of the liver

Select one:
True
False

A

The quadrate lobe is the smallest lobe of the liver

Select one:
False
its the caudate

82
Q

The portal fissure is where the blood vessels and nerve fibres enter and leave the liver

Select one:
True
False

A

True

83
Q

A blood vessel with an incomplete wall is called a capillary

Select one:
True
False

A

A blood vessel with an incomplete wall is called a capillary

Select one:

False
its a sinusoid

84
Q

Cholesterol is found in bile

Select one:
True
False

A

True

85
Q

Bile is needed to digest protein

Select one:
True
False

A

False

86
Q

Jaundice is caused by excess bilirubin

Select one:
True
False

A

True

87
Q

Microbes in the large intestine convert Bilirubin to glucuronic acid

Select one:
True
False

A

False

88
Q

The cystic duct empties at the Ampulla of Vater

Select one:
True
False

A

True

89
Q

The gall bladder is an intraperitoneal structure.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

90
Q

The stomach is posterior to the gall bladder

Select one:
True
False

A

True

91
Q

The gall bladder makes bile

Select one:
True
False

A

False

92
Q

The pancreas gets some of it blood supply from the splenic artery

Select one:
True
False

A

True

93
Q

The pancreas consists of a head, neck and body

Select one:
True
False

A

The pancreas consists of a head, neck and body

False
its head, body and tail

94
Q

Hepatocytes are cuboidal cells

Select one:
True
False

A

True

95
Q

Kupffer cells are found in the gall bladder

Select one:
True
False

A

Kupffer cells are found in the gall bladder

Select one:
False
they are found in the liver

96
Q

Vitamin D is stored in the liver

Select one:
True
False

A

True

97
Q

The common hepatic duct is formed by the right and left hepatic duct and the cystic duct.

Select one:
True
False

A

The common hepatic duct is formed by the right and left hepatic duct and the cystic duct.

Select one:
False
its just the right and left hepatic duct

98
Q

The pancreas is both an exocrine and endocrine gland

Select one:
True
False

A

True

99
Q

The Islets of Langerhans produce insulin

Select one:
True
False

A

True

100
Q

The ischium forms part of the acetabulum

Select one:
True
False

A

True

101
Q

The obturator foramen is found in the

a.
Ischium bone

b.
Pubic bone

c.
Ilium bone

A

b.

Pubic bone

102
Q

When comparing the female bony pelvis to the male, which of the following are true

a.
The female pelvis has a wider pubic arch

b.
The female pelvis has less prominent ischial spines

c.
The female pelvis has a longer sacrum

d.
The female pelvis has larger obturator foramen

e.
a and b only

f.
All of the above

A

e.

a and b only

103
Q

The sacroiliac joints are

a.
synovial saddle joints

b.
Plane joints

c.
Synovial plane joints

A

c.

Synovial plane joints

104
Q

Where the pubic bones join, a synovial symphysis is created

Select one:
True
False

A

False

its a cartilaginous symphysis

105
Q

The ischium can also be called the ala

Select one:
True
False

A

False

its is the ilium

106
Q

When x-raying a lateral femur, the femoral condyles must be

a.
equidistant from each other

b.
superimposed

c.
equidistant from the table top

A

superimposed

107
Q

A patient comes for an x-ray of their pelvis following an accident. There left hip is painful. What projections would you do?
a.
AP pelvis only

b.
AP hips and turned lateral left hip

c.
AP hips and horizontal beam lateral left hip

d.
AP pelvis and horizontal beam lateral left hip

e.
AP pelvis and turned lateral left hip

A

d.

AP pelvis and horizontal beam lateral left hip

108
Q

When positioning a patient for AP Pelvis, their ASIS must be superimposed

Select one:
True
False

A

False

109
Q

When undertaking an AP projection of the pelvis, internally rotating the patients legs, brings the greater trochanter closer to the Image Receptor
Select one:
True
False

A

False

No, it brings it further away, but into profile, so we can see it better

110
Q

For an AP projection of the pelvis, I would centre over the symphysis pubis, in the midline

Select one:
True
False

A

For an AP projection of the pelvis, I would centre over the symphysis pubis, in the midline

Select one:
False
its 5cm above the symphysis pubis

111
Q

The centring point for an AP projection of the pelvis is
a.
on the symphysis pubis

b.
5cm above the symphysis pubis in the mid line

c.
on the symphysis pubis in the midline

d.
in the middle of the image receptor

e.
5 cm above the symphysis pubis

A

b.

5cm above the symphysis pubis in the mid line

112
Q

You need to undertake an AP projection of a left hip - which AED chamber do you select?
a.
the right hand one

b.
the middle one

c.
All 3

d.
the left hand one

A

b.

the middle one

113
Q

Which projection best demonstrates a SUFE?
a.
A turned lateral of the affected side

b.
An AP both hips

c.
A turned lateral of the unaffected side

d.
A frog lateral

A

d.

A frog lateral

114
Q

When x-raying sacroiliac joints ad the patient is lying prone, you need to angle the x-ray tube cranially

Select one:
True
False

A

False

115
Q

Lumbar vertebrae have

a.
heart shaped bodies

b.
kidney shaped bodies

c.
circular shaped bodies

d.
oval shaped bodies

A

b.

kidney shaped bodies

116
Q

Facet joints are an example of a

a.
synovial plane joint

b.
synovial condylar joint

c.
synovial saddle joint

d.
synovial hinge joint

A

synovial plane joint

117
Q

C1 is also know as the atlas

Select one:
True
False

A

True

118
Q

Bifid spinous processes are only found in the thoracic region

Select one:
True
False

A

False

119
Q

The odontoid peg is flattened on its posterior surface because…
a.
it articulates with the transverse ligament

b.
it articulates with the atlas

c.
it articulates with the skull

d.
it articulates with the coronal ligament

A

it articulates with the transverse ligament

120
Q

Costal articular facets are found
a.
on the transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae

b.
on the spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae

c.
on the transverse processes of thoracic vertebrae

d.
on the spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae

A

on the transverse processes of thoracic vertebrae

121
Q

The spinous processes on thoracic vertebrae are described as

a.
short and straight

b.
long and sloping

c.
short and sloping

d.
long and straight

A

b.

long and sloping

122
Q

Cervical vertebrae have….
a.
round bodies and triangular vertebral foramen

b.
heart shaped bodies and triangular vertebral foramen

c.
oval bodies and round vertebral foramen

d.
oval bodies and triangular vertebral foramen

A

oval bodies and triangular vertebral foramen

123
Q

The C1 - Occiput joint is an example of
a.
a synovial plane joint

b.
a synovial pivot joint

c.
a synovial condylar joint

d.
a synovial saddle joint

A

a synovial condylar joint

124
Q

The anatomical relations of the vagina are

a.
bladder, rectum, ovary and cervix

b.
bladder, rectum, anus and small bowel

c.
bladder, rectum, anus and cervix

d.
bladder, rectum, ureter and cervix

A

bladder, rectum, anus and cervix

125
Q

The uterus is divided into
a.
fundus, cervix and neck

b.
neck, body and cervix

c.
fundus, body and cervix

d.
fundus, body and neck

A

c.

fundus, body and cervix

126
Q

The Pouch of Douglas sits
a.
anterior to the uterus

b.
inferior to the uterus

c.
posterior to the uterus

d.
superior to the uterus

A

posterior to the uterus

127
Q

The inner layer of the uterus is called the myometrium

Select one:
True
False

A

False

128
Q

The seminiferous tubules and made up of
a.
columnated epithelial cells

b.
germinal epithelial cells

c.
cilliated epithelial cells

d.
stirated epithelial cell

A

germinal epithelial cells

129
Q

The testicular artery arises off the aorta…
a.
just before the aorta divides in the pelvis

b.
just above the renal arteries

c.
just below the inferior mesenteric artery

d.
just below the renal arteries

A

d.

just below the renal arteries

130
Q

The ejaculatory duct is formed from…
a.
the deferent duct and the seminal vesicle duct

b.
the deferent duct and the prostrate duct

c.
the efferent duct and the seminal vesicle duct

d.
the prostrate duct and the seminal vesicle duct

A

a.

the deferent duct and the seminal vesicle duct

131
Q

The finger like projections at the end of the fallopian tubes are called
a.
villa

b.
fimbra

c.
fimbriae

d.
villi

A

c.

fimbriae

132
Q

The ovum moves in to the uterus by
a.
peristalsis

b.
ciliary movement

c.
ciliary movement and peristalsis

A

c.

ciliary movement and peristalsis

133
Q

The cortex of an ovary is covered in fimbriae

Select one:
True
False

A

False

134
Q

A maturing follicle is called a
a.
Graafian follicle

b.
Primary follicle

c.
Germinal follicle

d.
Luteal follicle

A

a.

Graafian follicle

135
Q

Each half of the scrotum contains
a.
1 testis, 1 deferent duct and 1 spermatic cord

b.
1 testis, 1 epididymis and 1 spermatic cord

c.
1 testis, 1 afferent duct and 1 spermatic cord

d.
1 testis, 1 epididymis and 1 deferent duct

A

b.

1 testis, 1 epididymis and 1 spermatic cord

136
Q

The testes consists of 3 layers of tissue. The tunica vaginalis, the tunica albuginea and the tunica intima
Select one:
True
False

A

False

137
Q

The seminiferous tubules join together to form the
a.
testes

b.
seminal vesicle

c.
epididymis

d.
spermatic cord

A

c.

epididymis

138
Q

The penis consists of 3 cylindrical masses of erectile tissue, 2 of which are called the corpora cavernosa

Select one:
True
False

A

True

139
Q

Which one of the following is NOT an anatomical relation of the Right Kidney?
a.
Duodenum

b.
Jejunum

c.
Liver

d.
Right Adrenal Gland

A

b.

Jejunum

140
Q

The closed end of a nephron is called
a.
The glomerulus

b.
the convoluted tubule

c.
the glomerular capsule

A

c.

the glomerular capsule

141
Q

The pointed end of a renal pyramid is called the papilla

Select one:
True
False

A

True

142
Q

The ureters are a retroperitoneal structure

Select one:
True
False

A

True

143
Q

The ureters are continuous with
a.
The Loop of Henle

b.
The renal pelvis

c.
The renal cortex

d.
The renal medulla

A

b.

The renal pelvis

144
Q

The bladder has 3 openings, together they are called
a.
The tri cysts

b.
The triangle

c.
The trigone

d.
The tri foramen

A

c.

The trigone

145
Q

Rugae can be found in
a.
The stomach

b.
The urinary bladder

c.
The small intestine

d.
a and b

e.
a, b and c

A

d.
a and b

a.
The stomach

b.
The urinary bladder

146
Q

The kidneys secrete erythropoietin

Select one:
True
False

A

True

147
Q

In the kidneys, the efferent arteriole has a smaller diameter because….
a.
It allows the cells to move out easier

b.
its small structure, so there is not much room

c.
it stops the red blood cells from leaving

d.
It increases the pressure to drive filtration

A

d.

It increases the pressure to drive filtration

148
Q

The glomerular filtration rate for an adult is
a.
125l/min

b.
125ml/min

c.
125mm/min

d.
125cl/min

A

b.

125ml/min

149
Q

Selective reabsorption takes place in
a.
Distal convoluted tubule

b.
Proximal convoluted tubule

c.
renal pelvis

d.
Loop of Henle

A

b.

Proximal convoluted tubule

150
Q

Which of the following are selectively reabsorbed, within the kidney, as part of the production of urine
a.
water

b.
electrolytes

c.
amino acids

d.
all of the above

A

d.

all of the above

151
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide increases the absorption of sodium
Select one:
True
False

A

False

152
Q

In what order do the following processes occur within the kidney
a.
filtration, tubular reabsorption, selective secretion

b.
tubular secretion, filtration, selective reabsorption

c.
selective reabsorption, tubular secretion, filtration

d.
filtration, selective reabsorption, tubular secretion

A

d.

filtration, selective reabsorption, tubular secretion

153
Q

The hormones regulating blood calcium levels are

Select one:
a.
parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

b.
glycogen and parathyroid hormone.

c.
oestrogen and progesterone

d.
insulin and glucagon.

A

a.

parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

154
Q

Which of the following organs is NOT part of the endocrine system:
a.
Kidney

b.
Thyroid Gland

c.
Spleen

d.
Pituitary Gland

e.
Pancreas

A

Spleen

155
Q 
Match the following hormones to the organs where they are produced:
Organs
Pancreas
Thymus
Pineal Gland
Adrenal Gland
Hormones
Insulin
Thymopoietin
Aldosterone
Melatonin
A

The correct answer is:
Pancreas → Insulin,

Thymus → Thymopoietin,

Pineal Gland → Melatonin,

Adrenal Gland → Aldosterone

156
Q

Hashimoto’s disease is caused by:

a.
Hyperparathyroidism

b.
Hypothyroidism

c.
Hyperthyroidism

d.
Hypnothyroidism

A

Hypothyroidism

157
Q

Glucagon function

Select one:
a.
decreases the conversion of glycogen into glucose.

b.
accelerates the conversion of glycogen into glucose.

c.
slows down glucose formation from lactic acid.

d.
speeds up protein synthesis within cells.

A

b.

accelerates the conversion of glycogen into glucose.

158
Q

The gland which can be classified as an endocrine and an exocrine gland is the

Select one:
a.
pituitary.

b.
thyroid.

c.
pancreas.

d.
thymus.

A

c.

pancreas.

159
Q

Hormones of the exocrine system are delivered directly into the blood steam.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

160
Q

The parathyroid is reponsible for:
a.
Increasing cortisol levels

b.
The regulation of hormone secretion within the endocrine system

c.
Helping regulate blood glucose levels

d.
Helping regulate blood calcium levels

A

d.

Helping regulate blood calcium levels

161
Q

Gastrin and cholocystokinin are examples of exocrine hormones.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

162
Q

Glucogon and Insulin are produced in the pancreas.

What is the name of the specialist cells?

A

Islets of Langerhans

Radiography Year 1 Introduction to Diagnostic Imaging Practice RAD4044 (26 decks)

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