mobility Flashcards

1
Q

helps blood calcium levels to promote calcium absorption from GI tract.

A

Calcitriol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

major hormone regulation for calcium

A

parathyroid and calcitonin hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

are the bones widening, narrowing, irregular, is there a fracture?

A

X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

usually assess for soft tissue in the bones, the ligaments, the tendons, tumors, extent of fractures

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

assess for any torn muscles, ligaments, cartilage, herniated discs, as well as any pelvic conditions

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

IV contrast injected into joint cavity to visualize the joint structure. if tear is present contrast leaks out of joint

A

arthrography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

if any fluid in joint they’ll aspirate it

A

arthrocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

: bone mineralization. For women and men that have osteoporosis
predicts fracture risk

A

bone densitometry (DEXA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

contraindicated for patients taking anticoagulants and skin infections. tests for muscles and nerves

A

electromyography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

increased if fracture is present. increased with osetomalacia or paget disease

A

alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which 3 lab studies used for bone metabolism

A

calcitonin, vit d, PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

increased in muscle damage from trauma. cross fit. being in hospital too long

A

Creatine kinase (CK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

increased in muscle damage

A

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rate of bone turnover lab

A

serum osteocalcin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

increased with bone destruction (parathyroid dysfunction, metastatic bone tumors, multiple myeloma)

A

urine calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

usually aggravated by activity

A

low back pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are some meds used for lower back pain?

A

NSAIDS, muscle relaxants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by blocking COX 1 and COX-2 receptor sites
-example: ibuprofen
-anti-inflammatory

A

NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

NSAIDS SE

A

headache, dizziness, somnolence, fatigue, rash, nausea, dyspepsia, bleeding, constipation, bone marrow suppression, MI, CVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Helps CNS to interfere with the reflexes causing muscle spasms
-baclofen

A

Skeletal muscle relaxants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

skeletal muscle relaxants SE

A

transient drowsiness, dizziness, weakness, fatigue, constipation, headache, insomnia, hypotension, nausea, urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

non-inflammatory, degenerative joint disease
-cartilage in the joints starts to break down and become narrow
-can get osteophytes which are bone spurs

A

OSTEOARTHRITIS (OA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Primary OA

A

idiopathic, it just happens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SECONDARY OA

A

there was a previous injury or inflammatory disease or joint destruction like rheumatoid arthritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

most modifiable risk factor for OA

A

obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

manifestations of OA

A

joint pain
stiffness
functional impairment
enlarged joints (bouchard’s and Heberden’s node)
decreased ROM
Crepitus
Joint effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how is OA usually diagnosed

A

X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

initial analgesic for OA

A

Acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

treatment for moderate to severe OA

A

Arthroplasty where they do surgery to replace a damaged joint with an artificial one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

-inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins
-Tylenol
-SE: rash and liver toxicity, dont exceed 4g/day

A

Acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

metabolic bone disease characterized by decrease in bone density and strength
-increased risk of bone fractures
-becomes porous, brittle, fragile

A

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

primary osteoporosis

A

affects women after menopause bcs of decrease in estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

secondary osteoporosis

A

is from either meds or disease that affect bone metabolism like if a patient is taking corticosteroids for a long time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

risk factors of osteoporosis

A

-osteopenia (start having low bone mineral density) (precursor)
-small framed female
-meds like corticosteroids
-hormonal imbalances
-nutritional factors
-malabsorption disorders
-autoimmune disorders
-immobility
-alcohol and tobacco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the first sign of osteoporosis

A

fractures like compression fractures, hip, and wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

diagnosis for osteoporosis

A

DEXA which measures bone density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

management of osteoporosis

A

-diet rich in calcium and vitamin D
-exercise
-stop alcohol and tobacco
-meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

-used for osteoporosis
-slows the normal and abnormal bone resorption w/o inhibiting bone formation and mineralization
-alendronate (fosamax)
-po daily or monthly
-taken on empty stomach with full glass of water and remain upright for 30 min

A

Biphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Biphosphonates SE

A

abdominal pain, constipation, nausea, diarrhea, increased or recurrent bone pain, esophageal erosion

40
Q

-for osteoporosis
-increases bone mineral density and modulates effects of estrogen at specific receptor sites
-raloxifene (evista)
-PO once a day

A

estrogen agonist/ antagonist

41
Q

estrogen agonist/antagonist SE

A

VTE, hot flashes, skin rash, n/v, vaginal bleeding, depression, lightheadedness, stroke, PE, high triglycerides, hepatic impairment

42
Q

-for osteoporosis
-monoclonal antibody that increases bone mineral density and reduces porosity of cortical bone
-denosumab (prolia)
-SQ every 6 months
-DONT JUST STOP

A

rankl inhibitors

43
Q

-metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of the bone
-due to deficiency in vitamin D
-pain, tenderness, bowing of legs, pathologic fractures
-Causes: GI disorders, liver and kidney disease, hyperparathyroidism, malnutrition

A

osteomalacia

44
Q

diagnosis for osteomalacia

A

h and p
x-ray
labs: low calcium phosphorus levels, high alkaline phosphate
bone biospy

45
Q

-for osteomalacia
-a vit d compound that regulates the absorption of calcium and phosphate from the small intestine
-po daily
-se: weakness, headache, nausea, vomiting, dry mouth, constipation, muscle pain, bone pain
-adverse effect: metallic taste

A

calcitriol (rocaltrol)

46
Q

medical management for osteomalacia

A

calcitriol, vitamin D and calcium supplementation, sunlight

47
Q

-osteitis deformans: chronic bone disorder. rapid bone turnover leading to pathological fractures.
-proliferation of osteoclasts followed by bone replacement
-usually affects ppl greater than 50, commonly men
-cause is unknown but can be genetic

A

paget disease

48
Q

clinical manifestations of pagets

A

-skeletal deformity. skull may be thickened, hats may not fit.
-legs may be bowed
-misalignment of hips, knees, ankle, and spine is usually bent forward and rigid
-tenderness and warmth due to increased vascularity

49
Q

labs for pagets would show

A

elevated alkaline phosphate

50
Q

x rays for pagets would show

A

demineralization and bone overgrowth

51
Q

bone scans for pagets would show

A

the extent of disease

52
Q

medical management for pagets

A

-NSAIDS for pain
-Biphosphates to stabilize the rapid bone turnover
-walking aids
-show lifts for gait instability or misalignment
-obese patients should lose weight
-increase vit D and calcium

53
Q

-infection of the bone
-usually caused by MRSA
-results in inflammation, necrosis, and formation of a new bone

A

osteomyelitis

54
Q

hematogenous osteomyelitis

A

bloodborne spread from another site of infection. So they could have an infection in the kidneys and then it goes to the bone.

55
Q

contiguous-focus osteomyelitis

A

direct bone contamination. so from like a trauma or a joint replacement

56
Q

osteomyelitis with vascular insufficiency

A

diabetes, PVD

57
Q

risk factors for osteomyelitis

A

-older adults
-poor nutrition
-obesity
-chronic illness (diabetes, RA)
-impaired immune systems
-long term corticosteroid or immunosuppressive therapy
-IV drug users

58
Q

hematogenous osteomyelitis clinical manifestations

A

-sudden onset of s/s of sepsis
-fever, chills, tachycardia, malaise
-pain, swelling, tenderness

59
Q

contiguous focus osteomyelitis clinical manifestations

A

-no s/s of sepsis
-area swollen, warm, painful and tender to touch

60
Q

vascular insufficiency osteomyelitis clinical manifestations

A

non healing ulcer over infected bone

61
Q

how can a fracture lead to organ damage?

A

rib fracture can puncture a lung. skull fracture can lead to brain damage

62
Q

complete fracture

A

all the way through

63
Q

partial fracture

A

only a portion of the bone is fractured and the other side sometimes bends, use that in a green stick fracture which is very common in children because their bone is still developing.

64
Q

comminuted

A

more than 2 bone fragments

65
Q

bone fragment that pulls away from the tendon

66
Q

closed or simple fracture

A

doesn’t cause disruption in skin

67
Q

open or compound fracture

A

bone comes through the skin. at risk for infection. seen in vehicle accidents

68
Q

intra-articular fracture

A

fracture that extends into the joint

69
Q

nondisplaced fracture

A

when the bone breaks but remains in alignment

70
Q

displaced fracture

A

when the bone breaks into separate pieces and they no longer align

71
Q

pathological fracture

A

occurs in an area of diseased bone. example is someone with osteoporosis

72
Q

spiral fracture

A

occurs during twisting. sports injuries. seen in child abuse

73
Q

what does reduction mean for management of fractures?

A

to place the bone back in alignment

74
Q

closed reduction (external)

A

if we have a break thats nondisplaced and properly aligned we could put a cast on it, a splint, or put them in traction

75
Q

open reduction

A

would be a surgery where they place pins or screws or plates to realign the fracture like ORIF surgery

76
Q

fat embolism syndrome (complication of fractures)

A

usually at the time of the fracture there’s fat globules that can get released into circulation and they kind of act as a thrombus so they can lead to the occlusion fo some small blood vessels.

77
Q

delayed union

A

fracture that doesn’t heal in the normal anticipated time frame.

78
Q

nonunion

A

incomplete healing so the ends of that fracture don’t line up correctly and doesn’t heal properly because those ends don’t unite

79
Q

malunion

A

fracture that heals in a malaligned or deformed position. Sometimes u can see a bump where that fracture hasn’t properly aligned but its healed so its partially healed but theyre not aligned.

80
Q

heterotopic ossification

A

benign bone growth. Growth that happens in the soft tissue which is an area we wouldn’t expect.

81
Q

a fracture that is open so the bone breaks and pokes through the skin.

A

compound fracture

82
Q

initial treatment for compound fracture

A

make sure its not bleeding and then cover it with a sterile dressing to prevent infection.

83
Q

treatment for compound fracture

A

tetanus vaccine, IV antibiotics, bone grafting, vacuum assisted closure, wound irrigation and debridement

84
Q

potential complications of compound fracture

A

-osteomyelitis
-tetanus
-gas gangrene very lethal infection

85
Q

complications of casts, splints, braces

A

acute compartment syndrom: increased pressure in a confined space which confines blood flow.
-pressure injuries
-disuse syndrome: deterioration of a body system as a result of musculoskeletal inactivity. Educate on isometric and ROM exercises.

86
Q

-painful, results from increased pressure in those compartments. Can be due to bleeding. Can lead to a decrease on the compartment size which is cutting off circulation. Can lead to permanent muscle and nerve damage
-manifestations: the five Ps
-deep throbbing pain, not relived by meds, intensifies with ROM. Pain that Is disproportionate to the injury.

A

compartment syndrome

87
Q

treatment for compartment syndrome

A

univalve or bivalve cast, fasciotomy

88
Q

5 Ps

A

-pain
-pallor
-pulselessness
-paresthesias
-paralysis

89
Q

stable pelvic fracture

A

usually only one break in pelvic ring and the alignment of pelvis is maintained

90
Q

unstable pelvic fracture

A

2 or more breaks in pelvic ring and bones are displaced and misaligned which can lead to rotational instability

91
Q

95% are due to fall

A

hip fracture

92
Q

extracapsular hip fracture

A

trochanteric, intertrochanteric, subtrochanteric

93
Q

intracapsular hip fracture

A

femoral head and neck

94
Q

extracapsular manifestations

A

extremity will be shortened, externally rotated, muscle spasms, ecchymosis

95
Q

intracapsular manifestations

A

-may or may not be shortened, adducted, may or may not be externally rotated

96
Q

intial treatment for hip fracture

A

traction and then orif