mla paper 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Acute dystonia secondary to antipsychotics is usually managed with

A

PROCYCLIDINE

anticholingerics

block acetylcholine
–> decrease muscle stiffness, swating and production of saliva

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2
Q

placental abruption risk factors

A

ABRUPTION:
A for Abruption previously;
B for Blood pressure (i.e. hypertension or pre-eclampsia);
R for Ruptured membranes, either premature or prolonged;
U for Uterine injury (i.e. trauma to the abdomen);
P for Polyhydramnios;
T for Twins or multiple gestation;
I for Infection in the uterus, especially chorioamnionitis;
O for Older age (i.e. aged over 35 years old);
N for Narcotic use (i.e. cocaine and amphetamines, as well as smoking)

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3
Q

Factor V Leiden is an inherited condition which…

A

results in Factor V being resistant to degradation by activated Protein C; this predisposes affected individuals to development of clots.

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4
Q

Thrombopropylaxis in pregnant women

A

High risk women need antenatal and post natal prophylaxis (6 weeks)

LWMH!

Avoid
–> warfarin
–> DOAC

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5
Q

Which class of drug have the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency warned may be associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism in elderly patients?

A

Antipsychotics in the elderly

clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine, and quetiapine

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6
Q

URTI symptoms + amoxicillin → rash ?

A

glandular fever

Epstein barr

diagnosed via monospot test

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7
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 bipolar affective disorder

A

Type 1 - MANIA

Type 2 - hypomania

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8
Q

The pap smear shows

A

HERPES simplex virus

  • multinucleation
  • margination of the chromatin
  • molding of the nuclei
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9
Q

Symptomatic bradycardia is treated with

A

atropine

If no response after titration up to 3 milligrams then TRANSUCTANEOUS PACING

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10
Q

THIS IS characterised by an acute, isolated, spontaneous, and prolonged episode of vertigo with gradual recovery over 2-6 weeks, as well as tinnitus and hearing loss

A

LABYRINTHITIS

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11
Q

THIS typically presents with gradual onset progressive symptoms of unilateral sensorineural hearing loss which may be associated with tinnitus and/or vertigo.

A

VESTIUBULAR SCHWANNOMA

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12
Q

This is a typical history of what:

  • vertigo triggered by change in head position (e.g. rolling over in bed or gazing upwards)
  • may be associated with nausea
  • each episode typically lasts 10-20 seconds
A

BPPV

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13
Q

Aplastic vs sequestraton crisis

A

Aplastic crisis has reduced reticulocytes, whereas sequestration crisis has increased reticulocytes

Sequestration crisis
- blood pools in organs due to sickling occuring

Aplastic
- bone marrow suppression due to parvovirus infction
- rise in WBC as well as decrease in reticulocytes as RBC production lessened

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14
Q

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia -

A

middle cerebral artery

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15
Q
A
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16
Q

You suspect a diagnosis of Bell’s Palsy. What finding would you expect if you asked the patient to raise her left eyebrow and why?

A

Inability to raise left eyebrow as Bell’s palsy due to a lower motor neuron lesion

Stroke spares the face

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17
Q

microcytosis is disproportionately low for the haemoglobin level. This combined with a raised HbA2 points to a diagnosis of

A

beta-thalassaemia trait

Major would present with anaemia, jaundice, failure to thrive, extramedullary erythropoiesis from early childhood.

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18
Q

The classical history of vestibular schwannoma includes a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus and an absent corneal reflex. Features can be predicted by the affected cranial nerves:

A
  • cranial nerve VIII: vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, unilateral tinnitus
  • cranial nerve V: absent corneal reflex
  • cranial nerve VII: facial palsy
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19
Q

PHQ score of less than 15 indicates

A

Less severe depression

NICE treatments: may involve guided self help

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20
Q

Gliptins (DPP-4 inhibitors) work by

A

reducing the peripheral breakdown of incretins such as GLP-1

Other diabetic medications
1. metformin: increases peripheral insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis
2. Sulfonylureas augment pancreatic insulin secretion
3. GLP mimetics (exenatide) augment pancreatic insulin secreiton, suppress glucagon release, slow gastric emptying and promote satiety

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21
Q

gene mutations are associated with hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma

A

MSH2/MLH1

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22
Q

Post partum and contraception:

A
  1. EC not required if UPSI w/i 21 days of birth

Aftre 21 days
–> progesterone only EC (levonelle or ellaOne) in breast feding and non breast feeding

Do not insert Cu-IUD before 28 days due to risk of uterine perforation

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23
Q

BISHOP SCORE

A

Score < 5 –> labour unlikely to start without induction

VAGINAL PGE2 indicated: for cervical ripening and labour induction

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24
Q

Addison’s patient with intercurrent illness →

A

double the glucocorticoids, keep fludrocortisone dose the same

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25
Q

……………. is the treatment of choice for all patients with a displaced hip fracture

A

Hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement

Since the blood supply is threatened in intracapsular fractures, as a general rule:
* Intracapsular femoral fracture - hemiarthroplasty
* extracapsular femoral fracture - dynamic hip screw

A hemiarthroplasty is favoured over a total hip replacement in this situation as the patient is:
* frail, with a background of chronic health problems
* no history of hip osteoarthritis

26
Q

If a 2-level DVT Wells score is ≥ 2 points then

A

arrange a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan within 4 hours

27
Q

Surgery types:

A

Transverse colectomy - removal of transverse colon

Left hemicholectomy - removal or entire left hemicolon

Anterior resection - removal of rectum (may need temporary stoma to allow the join in the rectum to heal)

Hartmann’s procedure - sigmoid, upper rectum are removed and an end colostomy

28
Q

Raised transferrin saturation, raised ferritin, low TIBC

A

characteristic iron study profile in haemochromatosis

29
Q

first line treatment in otitis externa

A

Topical gentamicin + hydrocortisone drops

30
Q

Widened QRS or arrhythmia in tricyclic overdose -

A

give IV bicarbonate
- helps reverse the metabolic acidosis

31
Q

Vision worse going down stairs? Think

A

4th nerve palsy

32
Q

To confirm ovulation: Take the serum progesterone level WHEN

A

7 days prior to the expected next period

33
Q

Missed pill rules

A

Missed COCP (protects for 7 consecutive days unless 2 or more missed)
- If 1 missed (any time in cycle): take it and continue as normal
- If 2 or more missed: take it and use condoms for 7 days
- If 2 or more missed in week 1 and she has had sex this week or previous pill-free interval: + emergency contraception
- If 2 or more missed in week 3: start next pack as soon as she finishes current pack

Missed POP
- Traditional (micronor, noriday, nogeston, femulen): if > 3 hours late then action required
- Cerazette (desogestrel): if > 12 hours late then action required
- Action: Take the missed pill as soon as possible (take just one if >1 missed) and the next at the usual time. Use condoms for 48 hours

34
Q

presents with flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly and deranged LFTs

A

Hepatitis A
–> flu-like symptoms
–> RUQ pain
–> tender hepatomegaly
–> raised bilirubin
–> raised ALT/AST
–> normal or slightly raised ALP

Others
1. Acute cholecystitis
–> Triad (RUQ pain, fever, jaundice)

  1. Autoimmune hepatitis
    –> fever, jaundice (more likely in females)
  2. Pancreatic cancer
    –> painless jaundice
    –> palpable gallbladder
    –> dark urine
    –> pale stools
    –> anorexia
    –> weight loss
    –> epigastric pain
35
Q

Confusion, ataxia, nystagmus/ophthalmoplegia→

A

Wernickes encephalopathy

Give IV B/C

If untreated leads to Korsakoff’s

36
Q

Type of tests you do for allergies

T1 hypersensitivity (immediate reaction) = Skin Pr1ck
T4 hypersensitivity (delayed reaction) = Skin P4tch

A

T1 hypersensitivity (immediate reaction) = Skin Pr1ck
T4 hypersensitivity (delayed reaction) = Skin P4tch

37
Q

adult bradycardia mx

A

The following are risk factors for asystole. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing:
* complete heart block with broad complex QRS
* recent asystole
* Mobitz type II AV block
* ventricular pause > 3 seconds

38
Q

According to UK guidelines, patients who are found to be positive for Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) should be offered a decolonisation regimen that includes

A

nasal mupirocin and chlorhexidine wash for the skin.

39
Q

Widened QRS or arrhythmia in tricyclic overdose - GIVE

A

give IV bicarbonate

40
Q

Diagnosis + Mx

Multiple tear drop papules on trunk

A

Guttate psoriasis

Tx: reassurance + topical treatment if lesions are symptomatic

Mx
–> most spontaneously resolve w/i 2-3 months
–> topical agents
–> UVB phototherapy
–> tonsillectomy

41
Q

A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ophthalmologist due to complaining of ‘blurry vision’. His mother has noticed he often bumps into things on the left side of him whilst walking.

On examination, right eye fundoscopy is normal. Fundoscopy of the left eye is shown below:

A

Optic nerve tumour
–> papilloedema
–> small haemorrahges surrounding optic disc

42
Q

THIS is used to treat torsades de pointes

A

IV magnesium sulfate

Magnesium sulfate is the first-line therapy and is used to stabilise the cardiac membrane.

tdp can be precipitated by hypothermia

43
Q

acute interstitial nephritis triad

A

Eosinophilia, Rash, Fever

44
Q

otitis externa management

A

neomycin w/ dexamethasone ear spray

45
Q

is a psychiatric condition where psychological distress is expressed through physical symptoms.

A

Conversion disorder

46
Q

31 female

pc: unilateral painful eye , previous UTI 3 weeks prior.

Eye is water, mild photophobia. PEARL. no reduced visual acuity

A

SCLERITIS
- inflammation of slcera
- associated w/ sarcoidosis and SLE

47
Q

A 54-year-old man presents with sudden onset visual loss. A systematic enquiry was otherwise unremarkable. On examination, you note that he has a loss of vision in the right upper quadrant of the visual field in both eyes.

Where is the lesion?

A

PITS for quadrant loss - parietal =inferior; temporal = superior

Opposite lobe

inferior optic radiations in left temporal lobe

48
Q

first-line medication for primary biliary cholangitis

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

49
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

Which baseline investigation is most appropriate?

A

MRI brain w/ contrast

50
Q

Type of drugs causing torsades de pointes

A

MACROLIDES

51
Q

treatment for a unstable patient in VT

A

displaying adverse signs (systolic BP <90, syncope, myocardial ischaemia and heart failure)

immediate synchronised cardioversion

IV amiodarone is only indicated in VT if the patients are not displaying any adverse features

52
Q

REVISION CARD

CRASH and burn on a Kawasaki:
- Conjunctival injection
- Rash (polymorphous
Ždesquamating)
- Adenopathy (cervical)
- Strawberry tongue (oral mucositis)
- Hand- foot changes (edema, erythema)

  • Burn = Fever
A

CRASH and burn on a Kawasaki:
- Conjunctival injection
- Rash (polymorphous
Ždesquamating)
- Adenopathy (cervical)
- Strawberry tongue (oral mucositis)
- Hand- foot changes (edema, erythema)

  • Burn = Fever
53
Q

BREAST CANCER SCREENING

A

Breast cancer screening is offered to all women aged 50-70 years (mammogram every 3 years)

54
Q

given to reverse an overdose of heparin

A

IV protamine sulfate

55
Q

Digoxin toxicity

A

Yellow vision, bradycardia, nausea and vomiting are symptoms suggestive of digoxin toxicity.

Thiazides may cause precipitation of digoxin toxicity

56
Q

If a secondary pneumothorax > 2cm and/or the patient is short of breath then patient should be treated with

A

chest drain (not aspiration) as first-line

Most commonly associated conditions with secondary pneumothorax are:
- COPD
- Cystic fibrosis
- lung cancer
- pneumonia

57
Q

Rosacea: first-line for patients mild papules and/or pustules

A

topical ivermectin

58
Q

Acute closed-angle glaucoma presents with a fixed dilated pupil with conjunctival injection

A

Acute closed-angle glaucoma presents with a fixed dilated pupil with conjunctival injection

59
Q

Oral codeine to morphine

A

divide by 10

60
Q

Otitis externa in diabetics: treat with

A

ciprofloxacin to cover Pseudomonas