Mixed Multi Choice Questions

Question 1

You are caring for bill, a 50 year old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis
Which of the following symptoms would you anticipate observing in bill
A) Elevated white blood cell count, ankle oedema and right groin pain
B) Left upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting
C) Hypoglycaemia, hypertension, and hypochondrial pain
D) Epigastric pain, pyrexia, and elevated white blood cell count

Answer 1

B) Left upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting

Question 2

Pain control is an important nursing goal. Which of the following medications would be the drug of choice
A) Pethidine
B) Cimetidine
C) Morphine
D) Codeine

Answer 2

C) Morphine

Question 3

You monitor bills vital signs frequently, observing for the signs of shock. Shock is extremely difficult to manage in pancreatitis primarily because of the
A) Frequency and severity of gastrointestinal haemorrhage
B) Vasodilating effects of kinin peptides
C) Tendency towards congestive heart failure
D) Frequent incidence of acute tubular necrosis

Answer 3

A) Frequency and severity of gastrointestinal haemorrhage

Question 4

While helping bill change position in bed, you note bill has muscle twitching in his bands and forearms. These symptoms are significant because clients who suffer from pancreatitis are at risk of
A) Hypermagnisemia
B) Hypoglycaemia
C) Hypokalaemia
D) Hyponatraemia

Answer 4

C) Hypokalaemia

Question 5

Bill does not drink alcohol because of his religious beliefs. When the physician persists in asking him about his alcohol intake, bill becomes annoyed. You explain the reasoning behind the questioning by telling bill that
A) There is a strong link between alcohol use and pancreatitis
B) Alcohol intake can interfere with some of the tests used to diagnose pancreatitis
C) Alcoholism is a major health problem and all hospitalised clients are asked about
their alcohol intake
D) The physician must obtain the pertinent facts, and religious beliefs cannot be considered

Answer 5

C) Alcoholism is a major health problem and all hospitalised clients are asked about
their alcohol intake

Question 6

The primary reason that a herpes simplex infection is a serious concern to a client with HIV infection is that herpes simplex
A) Is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS) defining illness
B) Is curable only after 1 year of antiviral therapy
C) Can lead to cervical cancer
D) Causes severe electrolyte imbalances

Answer 6

A) Is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS) defining illness

Question 7

An 18 year old female college student is seen at the university health centre. She undergoes a pelvic examination and is diagnosed with gonorrhoea
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be best when the client says that she is nervous about the upcoming pelvic examination
A) Can you tell me more about how you‟re feeling
B) You’re not alone. Most women feel uncomfortable about this examination
C) Do not worry about Dr smith. He‟s a specialist in female problems
D) We’ll do everything we can to avoid embarrassing you

Answer 7

A) Can you tell me more about how you‟re feeling

Question 8

Gonorrhoea in women
A) Is often marked by symptoms of dysuria or vaginal bleeding
B) Does not lead to serious complications
C) Can be treated but not cured
D) May not cause symptoms until complications occur

Answer 8

D) May not cause symptoms until complications occur

Question 9

A 24 year old female client, who is on her honeymoon, comes to an ambulatory care clinic in moderate distress with a probable diagnosis of acute cystitis
Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect the client to report during the assessment
A) Fever and chills
B) Frequency and burning on urination
C) Suprapubic pain and nausea
D) Dark, concentrated urine

Answer 9

B) Frequency and burning on urination

Question 10

The physician tells the client that the infection has likely been precipitated by sexual intercourse and that an antibiotic will be prescribed. The client becomes upset, and tearfully asks the nurse if this means she should abstain from intercourse for the rest of her honeymoon. What advice should the nurse offer her
A) Avoid intercourse until you’ve completed the antibiotic therapy and then limit intercourse to once a week
B) Limit intercourse to once a day in the early morning after your bladder has rested
C) As long as you’re comfortable you can have intercourse as often as you wish; but
be sure to urinate within 15 minutes after intercourse
D) You and your husband can enjoy intercourse as often as you wish. Just make sure he wears a condom and uses a spermicide

Answer 10

C) As long as you’re comfortable you can have intercourse as often as you wish; but
be sure to urinate within 15 minutes after intercourse

Question 11

Winston, a 22 year old man, is brought to the emergency room with an apparent head injury after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious on arrival and exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure. His fiancée and his older sister accompany him
On Winston’s arrival in the emergency room, which of the following considerations should receive the highest priority
A) Establishing an airway
B) Replacing blood losses
C) stopping bleeding from open wounds
D) Determining whether he has a neck fracture

Answer 11

A) Establishing an airway

Question 12

As Winston’s condition worsens, his rising intracranial pressure would be indicated by
A) Rising blood pressure and falling pulse rate
B) Rising pulse rate and falling blood pressure
C) Rising blood pressure and rising pulse rate
D) Falling pulse rate and falling blood pressure

Answer 12

A) Rising blood pressure and falling pulse rate

Question 13

which of the following respiratory signs would indicate increasing intracranial pressure in the brain stem
A) Slow, irregular respirations
B) Rapid, shallow respirations
C) Asymmetric chest expansion
D) Nasal flaring

Answer 13

B) Rapid, shallow respirations

Question 14

During the past few months, Elizabeth, a 56 year old woman has felt brief twinges of chest pain while working, in her garden and has had frequent episodes of indigestion. She comes to the hospital after experiencing severe anterior chest pain while raking leaves. Her evaluation confirms a diagnosis of stable angina pectoris. Elizabeth states ‘I really thought I was having a heart attack. How can you tell the difference?’ Which response by the nurse would provide the client with the most accurate information about the difference between the pain of angina and that of myocardial infarction.
A) The pain associated with a heart attack is much more severe
B) The pain associated with a heart attack radiates into the jaw and down the left arm
C) It is impossible to differentiate angina pain from that of a heart attack without an
ECG
D) The pain of angina is usually relieved by resting or lying down

Answer 14

D) The pain of angina is usually relieved by resting or lying down

Question 15

As an initial step in treating elizabeths angina, the physician prescribes nitro-glycerine tablets, 0.3 mg given sublingual. This drugs principal effects are produced by
A) Antispasmodic effects on the pericardium
B) Stimulation of a- and 13- receptor sites
C) Vasodilation of peripheral vasculature
D) Improved conductivity in the myocardium

Answer 15

C) Vasodilation of peripheral vasculature

Question 16

The nurse teaches Elizabeth that common expected side effects of nitro-glycerine include
A) Headache, hypotension, and dizziness
B) Hypertension, flushing and forgetfulness
C) Hypotension, diplopia and shortness of breath
D) Stomach cramps, constipation and urinary frequency

Answer 16

A) Headache, hypotension, and dizziness

Question 17

Josie, a 38 year old woman is admitted to the emergency room after being found unconscious at the wheel of her car in the hospital car park. Josie is comatosed and does not respond to stimuli. A drug overdose is suspected
Which of the following assessment findings would lead the nurse to suspect that the coma is a result of a toxic drug overdose
A) Hypertension
B) Hyperpyrexia
C) Dilated pupils
D) Facial asymmetry

Answer 17

C) Dilated pupils

Question 18

The nursing goal for performing passive range of motion exercises for an unconscious client such as josie would be to
A) Preserve muscle mass
B) Prevent bone demineralisation
C) Increase muscle tone
D) Maintain joint mobility

Answer 18

D) Maintain joint mobility

Question 19

When assessing josies respiratory status, which of the following symptoms may be an early indicator of hypoxia
A) Cyanosis
B) Decreased respirations
C) Restlessness
D) Hypotension

Answer 19

C) Restlessness

Question 20

According to Eriksons theory of emotional development, infants will develop a sense of trust when
A) They can identify their mother and father
B) They feel a sense of belonging, accepted as part of the family
C) They can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met
D) Nutritional and hygiene needs are provided on a daily basis

Answer 20

C) They can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met

Question 21

Reduction of complications of rheumatic fever can be accomplished through which of the following interventions
A) Administration of penicillin to children with strep throat or impetigo
B) Beginning speech therapy to reserve damage after antibiotics are completed
C) Pushing children with chorea to perform activities requiring fine motor movement to strengthen muscles
D) Withholding salicylates to prevent joint haemorrhage

Answer 21

A) Administration of penicillin to children with strep throat or impetigo

Question 22

According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development that generally characterises pre school children is the
A) Pre-operational stage
B) Sensorimotorstage
C) Oral stage
D) Psychosocial stage

Answer 22

A) Pre-operational stage

Question 23

A child who weighs 20 kgs is prescribed 300 mg of paracetamol. The stock supply is 120 mg in 5 mls. The volume to be administered is
A) 1.25mls
B) 125mls
C) 125mgs
D) 12.5mls

Answer 23

D) 12.5mls

Question 24

To straighten an infant’s ear canal to examine it, you would pull the pinna
A) Down and back
B) Down and forward
C) Up and back
D) Up and forward

Answer 24

A) Down and back

Question 25

Bronchiolitis is a common __________ infection, which peaks in incidence in children aged __________. Symptoms usually peak around day __________
A) Viral, less than two years of age, three to five
B) Viral, less than six months, ten
C) Bacterial, less than two years, three to five
D) Bacterial, less than six months, three to five

Answer 25

A) Viral, less than two years of age, three to five

Question 26

Which of the following would first alert the nurse to suspect that a child with severe gastroenteritis who has been receiving intravenous therapy for the past several hours may be developing circulatory overload
A) A drop in blood pressure
B) Change to slow, deep respirations
C) Auscultation of moist crackles
D) Marked increase in urine output

Answer 26

C) Auscultation of moist crackles

Question 27

The causative organism for rheumatic fever is
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus bacteria
C) Syncytial virus
D) Group A streptococcal bacteria

Answer 27

D) Group A streptococcal bacteria

Question 28

The most serious complication of rheumatic fever is
A) Endocarditis
B) Pneumonia
C) Arthritis
D) Meningitis

Answer 28

A) Endocarditis

Question 29

After instructing a mother about normal reflexes of term neonates, the nurse determines that the mother understands the instructions when she describes the tonic neck reflex as occurring when the neonate does which of the following
A) Steps briskly when held upright near a firm, hard surface
B) Pulls both arms and does not move the chin beyond the point of the elbows
C) Turns head to the left, extends left extremities, and flexes right extremities
D) Extends and abducts the arms and legs with the toes fanning open

Answer 29

C) Turns head to the left, extends left extremities, and flexes right extremities

Question 30

Which of the following actions would the nurse do first
A) Check the infants heart rate
B) Weight the infant
C) Assess the infants oxygen saturation
D) Obtain more information from the father

Answer 30

C) Assess the infants oxygen saturation

Question 31

Which of the following would be an important assessment finding for an 8 month old infant admitted with severe diarrhoea
A) Absent bowel sounds
B) Pale yellow urine
C) Normal skin elasticity
D) Depressed anterior fontanel

Answer 31

D) Depressed anterior fontanel

Question 32

Persons with an acute psychotic illness have most difficulty in
A) Meeting dependency needs
B) Maintaining grooming and personal hygiene
C) Distinguishing between reality and unreality
D) Displaying personal feelings

Answer 32

C) Distinguishing between reality and unreality

Question 33

A client who is subject to a community treatment order section 29 of the mental health act (1992) must
A) Accept prescribed medication and attend any specified treatment center
B) Report on a weekly basis to a community mental health centre
C) Return to hospital after a period of three months for a psychiatric assessment
D) Name a primary caregiver who will accept responsibility for the clients care and
supervision

Answer 33

A) Accept prescribed medication and attend any specified treatment center

Question 34

Forensic psychiatry is the area of mental health care which is concerned with individuals who
A) Have been committed to hospital because they would not voluntarily accept
treatment
B) Are not considered to be capable of caring for themselves in a non custodial
environment
C) Have been charged with an offence to undergo a psychiatric examination or treatment
D) Are mentally ill and considered to be a danger to themselves or to the public

Answer 34

C) Have been charged with an offence to undergo a psychiatric examination or treatment

Question 35

A side effect resulting from long term use of antipsychotic medication is tardive dyskinesia. Features of tardive dyskinesia include
A) Involuntary lip smacking and tongue movements
B) Dry mouth and blurred vision
C) Muscular rigidity and shuffling gait
D) Nausea and vomiting

Answer 35

A) Involuntary lip smacking and tongue movements

Question 36

The drug most commonly used in the long term treatment of bi polar disorder is a) Diazepam
A) Lithium carbonate
B) Clozapine
C) SodiumAmytal

Answer 36

A) Lithium carbonate

Question 37

During the primary assessment of a trauma victim, the nurse determines that the patient has a patent airway. The next assessment the nurse makes includes
A) The level of consciousness
B) Observation for external bleeding
C) The status of the patients respiration
D) The rate and character of carotid or femoral pulses

Answer 37

C) The status of the patients respiration

Question 38

A positive Mantoux test indicates
A) The client has active tuberculosis
B) The client has been exposed to mycobacterium
C) The client will never have tuberculosis
D) The client has been infected with mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 38

B) The client has been exposed to mycobacterium

Question 39

A mother tells the nurse that one of her children has chicken pox and asks what she should do to care for that child. When teaching the mother, which of the following would be most important to prevent
A) Acid base imbalance
B) Malnutrition
C) Skin infection
D) Respiratory infection

Answer 39

C) Skin infection

Question 40

One litre of intravenous fluid is to be given over 4 hours. The giving set delivers 60 drops per ml. how many drops per minute should be given
A) 150
B) 250
C) 300
D) 160

Answer 40

B) 250

Question 41

According to the privacy act 1993, when collecting health information from a client
the nurse must
A) Ensure the client is aware that health information is being collected
B) Tell the client why health information is being collected
C) Inform the client about their rights of access and correction
D) All of the above

Answer 41

D) All of the above

Question 42

The nurse is teaching a 19 year old client and the client‟s family about what to expect with high dose chemotherapy and the effects of neutropenia. What should the nurse teach as the most reliable early indicator of infection in a neutropenic client
A) Fever
B) Chills
C) Tachycardia
D) Dyspnoea

Answer 42

A) Fever

Question 43

A woman diagnosed with marginal placenta praevia gave birth vaginally 15 minutes ago. She is at greatest risk for
A) Haemorrhage
B) Infection
C) Urinary retention
D) Thrombophlebitis

Answer 43

A) Haemorrhage

Question 44

On assessment the nurse suspects that James is developing compartment syndrome because he complains of
A) Severe pain, motor compromise and a ‘pins and needles’ sensation
B) A radiating pain and loss of two point discrimination
C) Swelling, muscle atrophy and intermittent parasthesia
D) Dull aching, spasms and lack of fine co ordination

Answer 44

A) Severe pain, motor compromise and a ‘pins and needles’ sensation

Question 45

Type 2 diabetics
A) Need insulin to maintain homeostasis
B) May develop ketoacidosis easily
C) May go undetected for years
D) Are usually very slim and malnourished

Answer 45

C) May go undetected for years

Question 46

Ways to minimise precipitating effects of angina are
A) Avoid over exertion
B) Reduce stress
C) Avoid overeating
D) All above

Answer 46

D) All above

Question 47

Changes in vital signs with increasing intracranial pressure would include
A) Hypotension and tachycardia
B) Narrowing pulse pressure and tachypnea
C) Hypotension and a pulse deficit
D) Widening pulse pressure and bradycardia

Answer 47

D) Widening pulse pressure and bradycardia

Question 48

The action of ACE inhibitors (angiotensin converting enzyme) is
A) Increased urinary output, therefore decreased blood pressure
B) Relax blood vessels, therefore decreased vascular resistance
C) Strengthens cardiac contraction, therefore increase cardiac output
D) Relax cardiac muscle therefore decrease heart rate

Answer 48

B) Relax blood vessels, therefore decreased vascular resistance

Question 49

The nurse gets the arterial blood gases report and it shows that a person has hypercapnia. This means that
A) There is an increased blood carbon dioxide
B) The blood oxygen level is reduced
C) Carbon dioxide has been lost
D) There is respiratory alkalosis

Answer 49

A) There is an increased blood carbon dioxide