Missed Flashcards

1
Q

Abatement of public nuisance

A

an exercise of police power whereby gov does not have to offer property owner just compensation before taking property so long as owner has proper notice and time to be heard

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2
Q

Not public purposes, private gain

A

increasing revenue, economic development, increasing jobs,

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3
Q

Who determines just compensation

A

Ct appoints condemnatio jurors who determine issue of just compensation in accordance w procedures prescribed by condemning authority,…

Must be sworn and determine the issue of just compensation at a hearing set for it

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4
Q

When is Fair market value determined? lost profits?

A

fair mrkt value is determined AT TIME OF TAKING and can include lost profits if determined to a reasonable certainty of the NET INCOME for up to 3yrs prior to the valuation date

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5
Q

Lost profits must result from

A

inability to relocate the biz in a reasonable way and may not be duplicated in the compensation otherwise awarded

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6
Q

What must Local gov do before they abate a public nuisance?

A

They give owner proper notice and time to be heard

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7
Q

Demurrer script

A

Demurrer is filed to assert that a pleading oes not state a cause of action which the relief demanded can be granted. A demurrer can also be used to seek dismissal of an action based on lack of subject matter jurisdiction if the pleading reveals such lack. A demurrer must be in Writing and generally filed before or at the same time as other responsive pleadings. Once an answer has been filed, a demurrer cannot be filed unless the court permits withdrawal of the answer

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8
Q

When a party is misjoined, it is also true that

A

There is no legal claim against them. Thus a demurrer can be used

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9
Q

General warranty deed

A

Deed guaranteeing that seller has right to transfer title in fee simple, it is clear from defects, and will defend buyer against claims that may interfere w buyer’s rights

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10
Q

Deed is enforceable if

A

Sufficiently describes property, parties, is signed by transferor and delivered to and accepted by transferee. Delivery occurs where transferor intends to divest himself of all interest in the property and conveys such interest upon transferee. Acceptance is presumed upon delivery

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11
Q

Declaratory J script

A

Declaratory judgement is an action designed to permit one to have a judicial determination of his rights and or responsibilities BEFORE HE HAS SUFFERED AN INJURY or DONE A WRONG TO ANOTHER. It involves disputes at the crossroads of controversy meaning there must be more than a disagreement. Must not be used when there are alternative remedies available.

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12
Q

Unlawful detainer script

A

Action used to determine who has lawful possession of real propert. Often used when an individual wrongful possessed certain real property or was at one point in lawful possession but no longer has a legal right to possess. Determined possession not title

SOL is 3 years from entry

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13
Q

Bill to Quiet Title

A

An equitable action for Ct to determine who has title to property. Bill to quiet title is not used to determine who has possession of property but inferentially determines possession by determining who has title. When a law remedy is available , equitable actions are not proper remedy.

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14
Q

Ejectment script

A

Action used t determine who has right to title over certain real property. In deciding who has lawful right, successful party has right based on strength of their title not other party’s lack. Inferentially resolves who has possession by resolving who has title

SOL is 15 yrs

must be brought in CC

P may seek a writ of eviction from CC seeking sheriff to give back possession

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15
Q

Recrimination is a defense to

A

All grounds of fault divorce so is condonation

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16
Q

Cruelty

A

Acts that place spouse in serious physical harm but can include physical cruelty, mental cruelty or a combo of both. Cts usually find where there are successive acts of cruelty unless single act puts spouse at serious risk of serious bodily harm or death

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17
Q

Condonation is defeated where

A

Offending party repeats the same behavior after victim resumes cohabitation

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18
Q

In determining whether spouse is entitled to spousal support, CT’s will consider

A

Parties relative degree of fault, education, financial status, age and mental condition, length of marriage and other party’s ability to support

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19
Q

Ct may distribute marital property so long as

A

Ct has jx to dissolve marriage based on fault or no fault grounds.. doesn’t matter if spouse did not contribute to purchasing property so long as such property isn’t seperate property

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20
Q

Property and settlement agreement script

A

Must be in writing, signed by parties and entered into final divorce decree. As such, amendments must also be in writing, signed and incorporated into divorce decree by Ct making parties liable for violating it as if it was act order.

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21
Q

Third party custody over child must prove

A

3rd party has standing bc he has Legitimate interest. Then Clear and convincing evidence that it is in best interest then prove one of five factors to rebut primacy or parent child relationship , such as

1) abdnonment
2) lack of fitness to be parent
3) voluntary relinquishment
4) special facts/circumstances to take child away from parent

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22
Q

Waiting period for Cruelty

A

Divorce may be granted to the innocent party 1 year from the cruelty. No need to remain in cohabitation for that year.

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23
Q

What is the standard for Victim to prove cruelty?

A

Preponderance

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24
Q

How to form a corp

A

file articles of incorp with STate corp commission and pay registration fee. Articlues must include, name of corp, designation that it is a corp, number of authorized shares, and registered agent and office

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25
Q

How to form a Limited Liability Corp

A

file articles of organization w State corp commission and pay fee…. Articles must include name of llc, which must indicate that entity is an llc; registered agent and office and principal office of the LLC

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26
Q

How to form a general partnership

A

no filing…parties must simply agree to creata business for profit as cowowners

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27
Q

How to form a limited partnership

A

file CERTIFICATE of limited partnership w SCC and pay required fee

Certificate of LP must include name of LP, designation that it is an LP; registered agent and office; principal office of the LP; and the name and address of each partner.

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28
Q

How is GP converted to an LP

A

by approval of all partners and filing certificate of LP

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29
Q

Limited partners are not liable for debts unless

A

they engage in control of biz and 3rd party does not know or have reason to know that they are an LP

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30
Q

Liability of members in a Limited liability company

A

members enjoy limited liability and are not personally liable for debts unless they fail to treat LLC as a separate entity and misuse the limited liability form to perpetrate a fraud or injustice

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31
Q

How are profits and losses distributed in a Corp

A

SHs are issues shares of stock based on their % of ownership interest in the corp… Directors may issue dividends to the SHs based on number of shares they hold. Corp SHs do not bear losses directly, however, they value of their shares could be affected by losses

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32
Q

How are Profits and losses distributed in a limited liability company

A

according to each member’s contributions to the company

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33
Q

How are profits and losses distributed in General Partnership

A

partners share profits equally and losses in the same way as they share profits

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34
Q

How are profits and losses distributed in limited Partnership

A

allocated according to value of each partner’s contributions to the partnership

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35
Q

Liability of one who acts on behalf of a corporation knowing the corp has not been incorporated yet

A

anyone who purports to act on behalf of a corp they knew was not yet formed is personally liable unless other party also knew there was no incorporation

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36
Q

Duty of Loyalty

A

directors owe a fiduciary duty of loyalty to the corporation…Including duty not to misappropriate or usurp a corp opportunity….In determining whether opportunity belonged to corp cts consider how director learned of opportunity and how similar opportunity is to the business of the corp

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37
Q

Death of partner in partnership causes that partner to be

A

dissociated from the partnership BUT DEATH DOESNT TRIGGERN DISSOLUTION OF PARTNERSHOP OR WINDING UP

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38
Q

What must partners do if partnership continues after death of a partner

A

buyout partner’s interest

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39
Q

Buyout price of partner’s interest is greater of

A

1) liquidation value

2) going concern value, on date of dissociation

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40
Q

Does a partner’s death discharge their liability for a partnership obligation incurred after dissociation

A

no

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41
Q

What are the 2 requirements for Dissociated partner to be liable to a 3rd party for business partnership entered after dissociation?

A

occurred within 1 yr of dissociation and 3rd party reasonably believed that dissociated partner was still a partner w/o notice of knowledge otherwise

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42
Q

What must partnership do after a dissociated partner’s interest is bought out by partnership

A

indemnify for all partnership obligations whether they occurred before or after partner’s dissociation

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43
Q

Who has priority when two creditors have a perfected security interest

A

one who either perfects first or files UCC financing statement

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44
Q

When does a purchase money security interest have priorrity when it is not the first to file or perfect

A

when PMSI is in inventory and a creditor, before handing over possession of the inventory to debtor, 1) sends a special written notice to other security interest holders and 2) take steps to assure its PMSI will be PERFECTED at the time debtor receives possession

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45
Q

Buyer in ordinary course of business has priority over

A

creditor’s w a security interest in property even when buyer knows of such interest….

Buyer in ordinary course is one who buys from merchant of the kind

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46
Q

Does a donee have priority over creditors w perfected interest?

A

no

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47
Q

Local Gov Meeting script

A

all meetings regarding the transaction of public business of any public body must be open to the public wherever held w a quorum of its city council members present with or without taking minutes of the meeting…

A public body includes an independent city…Meetings includes an informal assembly of i) as many as 3 members or ii) a quorum, if less than 3 of the constituent membership, wherever held, with or without minutes taken, whether or not votes are cast, of any public body. A public body includes an independent city.

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48
Q

Public bodies meeting requirements

A

must have all meetings open to the public unless a specific exemption for a closed meeting applies; give notice of the date, time and location of its meeting by posting on its website, posting area, and at office of the clerk or chief administrator; allow their meetings to be filmed and keep proper minutes of their meetings

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49
Q

locality may prevent travel on public right of way so long as its for

A

a public purpose and not unreasonable

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50
Q

Public place definition

A

area devoted to the use of public at large or by the municipality itself in carrying out its government functions (eg school building, public office building)

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51
Q

Municipality liability: open and obvious defects

A

open and obvious defects do not give rise to municipality liability

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51
Q

Local gov: Notice of defect

A

P must show more than that a defect on public property has come into being and caused P’s injuries. If defect has been present long enough, there may be constructive notice. When a defect is such that it might have developed recently and suddenly and evidence to the contrary is lacking, constructive notice may be inferred. Existence of a defect for one or two days does not constitute constructive notice as a matter of law.

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52
Q

Statutory immunity

A

counties, cities, and towns are immune from simple negligence in operation of beaches, pools, parks, playgrounds, skateboard facilities and rec facilities.

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53
Q

Best evidence rule re copies

A

Copies of original documents will be admitted so long as they are an authenticated biz record.

There must be evidence that copy was made in regular course of biz and that person proffering it was the custodian of record or there was a certificate that custodian had custody of the original

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54
Q

When can court take judicial notice

A

when certain matters are common knowledge or capable of determination by sources whose accuracy cannot be disputed. Cts may take judicial notice of governors or judicial signatures on official documents

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55
Q

Judges may take judicial notice of laws

A

judges may take judicial notice of laws of other states whether specifically pleaded or not and that in doing so ct may consult w appropriate document or publication

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56
Q

Voluminous record rule

A

Summaries may be admitted when contents of a voluminous writing cannot be adequately examined in court.

Summary must be made available to other parties for examination at reasonable time and place but party must object if they didnt receive it. Ct may order they be produced in ct

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57
Q

Work product doctrine: Identity of party interviewed

A

work product doctrine protects the idnetity of persons that opposing party’s lawyer or rep has interviewed

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58
Q

Difference in witness requirement for attested and holographic will

A

Attested will’s witnesses do not have to be disinterested but holographic will’s witnesses do

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59
Q

Where all the require me ts of adverse possession are met except that possessor actually had owner’s permission to possess and use the real propert, possessor is presumed to have

A

A revocable lice

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60
Q

In what ways may license to use real property be granted

A

Orally, in writing and freely revocable… Will defeat a claim of title by adverse possession bc possession was not adverse or hostile to owners rights

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61
Q

SOL for bringing claim to recover Personal property adversely possessed

A

5 years bc sol for claim in detinue is 5 years

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62
Q

Is tacking permitted w respect to adverse P of real or personal property?

A

Yes

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63
Q

Who may sue for damages occurring from misuses of common space of condo/apartment

A

Only unite owners’ association

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64
Q

Gross negligence: Are Cities and towns liable for gross negligence under statute or sovereign immunity?

A

Immunity based on statute

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65
Q

FOIA Sript

A

FOIA requires that public records be accessible to Al citizens of the commonwealth and representives of newspapers with circulation in the commonwealth. Public record is any document that pertains to the transaction of public business. In Virginia, the custodian of the record has 5 working days to respond to a valid FOIA request. If providing the records is not practically possible within this timeframe, the custodian can extend the response time by an additional 7 working days but most notify the requested of its reason for doing so in writing within the initial 5 day period

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66
Q

Cruelty standard of proof

A

Preponderance

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67
Q

Waiting periods for cruelty, adultery and desertion

A

Cruelty + desertion = 1 year

No waiting period for adultery

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68
Q

Adultery standard of proof

A

Clear and convincing evidence

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69
Q

Factors in dividing marital property

A

1) contributions of each party in acquiring the property

2) duration of the marriage

3) age and mental and physical condition of parties

4) how and when each specific item was acquired

5) debts and liabilities of each spouse

6

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70
Q

If providing the records is not practically possible within this timeframe, the custodian can extend the response time by an additional ___working days but must___

A

7 ___ mist notify the requester with its reason for doing so in writing within the initial 5 day period

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71
Q

Notice of meeting requirement. How long before meeting must notice be posted?

A

Every public body shall give notice of the time, date, location of the meeting on their public gov website, prominent newspaper publication, placing notice on office of clerk or chief administrator AT LEAST 3 WORKING DAYS Before meeting.

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72
Q

Recording minutes requirement

A

Minutes shall be in writing and shall include (a) the date, time, and location of the meeting; (b) the members of the public body recorded as present and absent; and (c) a summary of the discussion on matters proposed, deliberated, or decided, and a record of any votes taken.

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73
Q

Unlawful detainer SOL/ COURT

A

3 years

GDC Shares og jx with CC regardless of amount in controversy

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74
Q

What is a Distress Warrant? What is the SOL? what court?

A

Action by landlord to obtain certain personal property in satisfaction for debt owed/rent due… warrant seeks sheriff in jx to levy property in satisdaction

Sol is 5 years from when rent was due

GDC original exclusive jx regardless of amount

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75
Q

Fraudulent conveyence

A

A conveyance or transfer may be avoided for the benefit of any creditor unless the conveyence is made to a bona fide purchaser who pays fair consideration w/o notice or knowledge of the fraudulent intent of the grantor

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76
Q

Can a judicial lien creditor enforce a judgment against property held by tenants by the entirety?

A

not unless it has a lien against both tenants

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77
Q

Conveyance or transfer may be avoided for the benefit of any creditor unless

A

the conveyance is made to a bona fide purchaser who pays fair consideration w/o notice or knowledge of the fraudulent intent of the grantor

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78
Q

Degree of belief police need to stop vehicle

A

reasonable articulable suspicion that a law violation to effectuate stop

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79
Q

Degree of proof police need for a pretextual stop

A

probable cause when traffic law violated to investigate whether another law has been violated

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80
Q

Reasonable expectation of privacy in curtilge?

A

yes…

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81
Q

What is needed for terry stop

A

reasonable articulable suspicion that detainee is involved in illegal activity

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82
Q

Terry stop is a

A

temporary intrusion on D’s freedom of movement

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83
Q

What does officer need to frisk D at a stop and frisk

A

reasonable suspicion that suspect is involved in criminal activity and frisk is necessary for officer safety

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84
Q

Frisk of passenger compartment, police need… Where is search limited to?

A

reasonable belief that suspect is armed and dangerous and may gain immediate access to weapons… limited to places where weapon could be located

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85
Q

Automobile exception allows search of

A

any part of car (including compartments, containers, trunk) if probable cause exists that it contains contraband/evidence of a crime

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86
Q

Transactional Immunity

A

total immunity, fully protects a witness from future prosecution for crimes related to testimony

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87
Q

Use+ Derivative Use immunity

A

only precludes use of witness’s own testimony from a subsequent prosecution

government cannot use information gained from their compelled testimony to build a case against them, but can still prosecute if they have independent evidence not stemming from the witness’s statements

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88
Q

Lineups cant be

A

impermissibly suggestive as to raise a substantial likelihood of misidentification

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89
Q

In custody definition

A

reasonable person would not feel they are free to leave

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90
Q

Interrogation

A

questions likely to elicit an incriminating response …voluntary statements are not protected

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91
Q

confessions are involuntary only if

A

coerced by police (totality of circumstances)

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92
Q

Blockberger double jeopardy test

A

double jeopardy doesnt apply where each offense has an element that the other does not

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93
Q

test for whether jury’s veridct was excessive

A

whether it shocks the conscious

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94
Q

agreement to form a partnership does not have to be in writin so long as

A

all essential elements of the partnership are discussed

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95
Q

difference between counterclaim and cross claim

A

counterclaim is against P…cross claim is against another D

Crossclaim must arise out of STO

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96
Q

P ratifies K entered into by his agent when

A

P knows the material terms of the K or is aware of his lack of knowledge of the specific terms

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97
Q

Can employer seek indemnification from employee when employer is found liable under respondeant superior?

A

Yes

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98
Q

Agent acts within apparent authority when

A

3rd party reasonably believes that agent is authorized based on manifestations of P

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99
Q

Bailment requires that bailee

A

Know of bailed property’s existence, and consent to Bailment

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100
Q

When employer is found liable for his employee’s torts under doctrine of respondeant superior, employer will have a claim for

A

Indemnification against employee

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101
Q

Respondeat superior

A

Employer is liable for torts of his employee that are committed within the scope of employment

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102
Q

What is it called when employee slightly deviates

A

Detour

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103
Q

Actual authority

A

Express or implied based on P’s communications with the A and A reasonable believed he is authorized

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104
Q

Agent acts with apparent authority where

A

3rd party reasonably believed based on manifestations by P that A is authorized

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105
Q

To ratify P must

A

Know the material terms of the K or be aware of his knowledge

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106
Q

Can p avoid ratification by relying on his ignorance of the K terms where he was deliberately ignorant of such terms

A

No

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107
Q

Silence may constitute ratification where

A

Person would be expected to speak

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108
Q

Business judgment rule

A

A rebuttable presumption that D acted properly and in good faith in the exercise of business judgment

109
Q

Business judgment rule is usually overcome by a showing of

A

Bad faith, self dealing, fraud

110
Q

Self dealing

A

D who engages in a conflict of interest transaction at expense of his own corp violates duty of loyalty

111
Q

When is it acceptable for BD to usurp corp opportunity

A

First offer opportunity to C or approved by BD or SH

112
Q

Conflicts of interests re duty of loyalty can be fine if

A

D discloses all material facts and BD approved the transaction or fair to Corp;

SHs were aware of the material facts and approved the transaction, or the transaction was fair to the Corp

113
Q

Conflicts of interests re duty of loyalty can be fine if

A

D discloses all material facts and BD approved the transaction or fair to Corp;

SHs were aware of the material facts and approved the transaction, or the transaction was fair to the Corp

114
Q

Director’s duty of care

A

Reasonable diligence and prudence to advance interests of the corp

115
Q

Director’s duty of care: reliance protection

A

D can rely on info and opinions of officers, employees, attorneys, accountants or other experts or committees if D reasonably believes them to be reliable and competent t

116
Q

Can D use their absence from a meeting or dissent on record as a defense to an alleged breach of duty of care to C?

117
Q

Can Directors make voting agreements?

A

No, each must make independent judgment

118
Q

Can D be convicted of a higher offense than he was convicted of at first trial?

119
Q

Implied actual authority

A

Agent’s authority to Perform acts based on their reasonable understanding of principal’s instruction… necessary to carry out purpose of the org

120
Q

Is a single act sufficient to establish min contacts?

121
Q

Is a single act sufficient to establish transacting business in commonwealth?

A

Yea, Va is a single act state

122
Q

What burden does P have to prove implied warranties?

A

Breach and that breach was proximate cause of loss

123
Q

court direct that the accused be tried in one trial for all offenses if

A

1) Justice does not require separate trials and

A) based on STO

2) two or more acts that constitute parts of a common scheme or plan

124
Q

Director D not liable for breach if act was undertaken in

A

good faith, which is a subjective standard

125
Q

Property and settlement agreement: Arrearages will be assessed where

A

when payor has not paid support according to property and settlement agreement

126
Q

A collateral agreement is

A

An agreement made in connection w the sale of the property that does not effect title to the property and does not conflict w terms of the deed

127
Q

Difference between cross claim in state court and cross claim in Fed court

A

State court must arise out of sto

128
Q

Incidental damages

A

Commercially reasonable expenses as a result of breach

129
Q

Expectation damages

A

Damages naturally arises from breach

130
Q

Consequential damages

A

Damages not reasonably foreseeable from breach so long as not too speculative… such as lost opportunity for interviews

Can’t disclaim consequential damages for personal injuries

131
Q

Reliance damages

A

Foreseeable expenses that non breaching party incurred in reasonable reliance on the promise that the other party would perform

132
Q

What must BD do upon dissolution of a closely held corp

A

Must pay off creditor claims before disbursing assets to SH

133
Q

What must BD do upon dissolution of a closely held corp

A

Must pay off creditor claims before disbursing assets to SH

134
Q

Shareholders must wait until demand is denied or til 90 days to file suit unless they can show

A

Irreparable harm to corp

135
Q

What must SH allege if their demand is denied before they can file suit

A

Must allege that demand was not properly rejected by a disinterested decision maker

136
Q

Constructive possession occurs where

A

Accused does not actually have the drug on their person

137
Q

Elements of constructive possession

A

1) Knowledge of the drugs presence based on statements or ability to assert Dominion,

2) intent to control the disposition or use the drugs

138
Q

Special warranty deed

A

guarantees that the property had no outstanding liens or claims during their ownership

The seller does not guarantee the condition of the title before they owned the property

The seller is liable for any title issues that arise during their ownership perio

139
Q

Ct can alter terms of custody agreement upon showing of

A

Material change in circumstances + best interest of child

140
Q

Exception to writing requirement for marital agreements

A

1) oral desperation ageeemrnts memorialized in ct order endorsed by counsel or

2) a record made by a Ct reporter at a deposition or elsewhere and personally affirmed by the parties on the record

141
Q

Motion for a new trial is the proper post trial motion to raise

A

Errors that occurred during trial and effected a party’s substantial rights

142
Q

Powers gov typically is granted by charter

A

1) enact ordinances

2) tax

3) sue/be sued

4) enter into Ks

5) acquire, hold, dispose of REVENUE AND REAL/PERSONAL PROPERTY

6) acquire, hold and dispose of personal and real property

7) condemn real property through eminent domain.

143
Q

Variances may only be granted when landowner applies to BZA showing that

A

1) strict enforcement of ordinance would result in undue hardship not shared by other landowners

2) granting of a variance would not be substantially detrimental to other property

146
Q

Va statute of repose

A

5 yr statute of limitations for injuries arising from unsafe conditions of an improvement to real property or contribution

148
Q

SOL for property damage

150
Q

Wills: burden of proving capacity

A

Preponderance

151
Q

Material change in circumstances warranting spousal support

A

Significant hardship +
1) somethin that was not reasonably in parties contemplation when creating agreement

2) non occurrence of an event anticipated by the court in entering the award through no fault of party seeking change

152
Q

property and settlement agreement must provide reasonable disclosure of

A

the assets, income and liabilities of the parties of all parties

153
Q

fraud may constitute grounds for annulment if

A

fraud goes to the essence of the marriage

154
Q

Difference between no fault separate and apart for a year and desertion

A

desertion: both parties aren’t in agreeance on ending the marriage

155
Q

Spouse prove they are entitled to separate property where

A

personal efforts contributed to increase in value or increase in value was due to marital property

156
Q

When does separate property constitute marital property?

A

When increase in value of marital property is due to personal contributions of either spouse or contributions of marital property

157
Q

To be properly authorized, a municipal Contract must be

A

voted on at a properly called meeting open to the public where proper notice was provided to constituent body… vote recorded

158
Q

Factors in determining whether gov employee is covered by gov’s sovereign immunity

A

1) nature of function
2) gov’s interest and involvement in function
3) gov’s degree of control and discretion exercised over employee
4) Use of discretion in performing the function

159
Q

Does an individual have to file notice of suit for claim against city’s employee?

160
Q

Technically gov functions

A

1) repair of stop lights

2) removal of snow

3) removal of trees

4) garbage removal

161
Q

Examples of proprietary functions

A

1) maintenance of rec facilities

2) maintenance of streets

3) provision of utilities

4) operation of housing authorities

162
Q

Lawyer must not undertake representation of another person where that representation might be materially limited by

A

their representation of a client, former client, or perspective client

163
Q

Lawyer’s duty against professional misconduct prohibits Conduct which involves

A

dishonesty, fraud, deceit or misrepresentation which reflects adversely on the lawyer’s fitness to practice law

164
Q

General intent

A

someone who intends to perform an act but does not necessarily intend its consequence

165
Q

Specific intent

A

intend the consequences of the act

166
Q

2nd degree murder

A

malice(intent to kill or inflict serious bodily injury) but no premeditation, deliberation

167
Q

Number of preemptory challenges

A

4 in felony 3 in misdemeanor

168
Q

seller of a residence has a duty to disclose

A

known material defects to property that are known and non obvious,,,,

substantial effect value, or habituality of residence, or desirability of buyer

169
Q

Does the doctrine of merger apply to closing statements?

A

No… closing statement reflecting parties K and placing dollar value on the K is not merged with final deed

170
Q

Persons may be joined as defendants in same (civil) case if

A

1) any relief can be granted against them jointly, severally, or in the alternative arising out of the same transaction or occurrence; or

2) Common question of law or fact common to all defendants

171
Q

Blockberger test

A

Gov can only prosecute D for two crimes arising from STO where each crime contains elements that the other does not

172
Q

Reasonable expectation of privacy: gov can’t enter area w/o a warrant where the individual has displayed

A

a subjective expectation of privacy or an area that Society that recognizes that expectation as reasonable.

173
Q

Gross negligence

A

Disregard for prudence amounting to a complete neglect of safety for another..

Courts have emphasized the importance of deliberate conduct

174
Q

Are cities liable for gross negligence re open and obvious defects?

175
Q

Shareholders can make agreements concerning / how do they do this?

A

Corporate Governance, Distributions and Relationships among shareholders must be in articles or by laws and signed

176
Q

What kind of liability do shareholders have when they are in a professional corp but hold themselves out as partners

A

Partnership liability, jointly and severally liable for debts

177
Q

Judicial dissolution of a corp can occur where

A

1) oppressive of illegal conduct by controlling SHs

2) corporate waste

3) deadlock in management of corp

178
Q

A constructive trust is created by

A

Operation of law to prevent unjust enrichment/ fraud

179
Q

Burden of proving constructive trust

A

Clear and convincing evidence

180
Q

Can donor reserve right to possess a gift?

A

Yes so long as they had present intent to transfer title

Formal delivery is not necessary where the acts of donor manifest an intent that as to him the transaction is complete

Essence of delivery is to surrender dominion and control

181
Q

Officers may seize items not described in a search warrant if

A

1) lawful fight of access

2) item is in plain view and immediately identifiable as incriminating in nature

182
Q

In dealing on behalf of a client w a person not represented by counsel, lawyer shall not state or imply

A

They are disinterested

183
Q

When lawyer knows or has reason to know that person they are communicating w does not understand lawyer’s role in matter, lawyer must

A

Make reasonable efforts to correct the misunderstanding

184
Q

Lawyer shall not fail to disclose a fact where disclosure is necessary to

A

Avoid assisting in Criminal or fraudulent act by client

185
Q

If lawyer knows of false statement by client, lawyer must

A

Communicate a client and advise him of lawyer’s duty of candor to tribunal and seek client’s cooperation w respect to withdrawal or correction of false statements

186
Q

Lawyer may reveal information re client’s fraud when such info

A

clearly established that client had in course of rep perpetrated fraud upon a 3rd party related to subject matter of rep… if that fails lawyer must withdraw

187
Q

Lawyer should discuss substance of plea or settlement offer w client unless

A

Client previously made clear that proposal would be unacceptable

188
Q

Legal certainty test

A

Amount in controversy will be satisfied unless Ct can say with a legal certainty that the P can’t recover in excess of $75,000

189
Q

Venue is proper in fed court where

A

1) All D’s reside if they reside in same state

2) jurisdiction. Where substantial series of events giving rise to cause of action occurred

190
Q

Does an agreement to loan or extend credit over $25,000 have to satisfy SOF

191
Q

Part performance exception to SOF requires that the contract be

A

i) certain and definite

ii) P performed pursuant to agreement

iii) failure to enforce would amount to fraud on P

192
Q

Must a real estate brokerage K satisfy SOF

193
Q

Must executor’s promise to pay a debt of estate w own money satisfy sof?

194
Q

ambiguities are resolved against

A

party who drafted k…Va adheres to plain meaning rule of k

195
Q

Can you amend a UCC K without consideration

A

yes, just need good faith

196
Q

Punitive damages are not to be awarded unless (2 things)

A

i) compensatory damages are also awarded

ii) wilful, independent tort

197
Q

Specific P may be awarded where there is no adequate remedy at law and

A

k terms are sufficent and definite

198
Q

Non compete clauses are not favored; not allowed for low wage employees; P must show reasonablness by

A

i) no greater than necessary to protect legit business interest

ii) not unduly harsh or oppressive

iii) not against public policy

199
Q

When can a P in federal court aggregate damages of claims against two or more D’s

A

When D’s negligence jointly contributed to a single injury such that they are jointly liable

200
Q

If D has filed a demurrer, motion to dismiss, plea in bar, motion for bill of particulars, then they have how many days to file their answer?

A

21 days after Ct has ruled on the pre answer motion

201
Q

Bigamous marriage

A

Void marriage w no legal effect where party is already married bc person has committed the crime of bigamy

202
Q

Mechanic’s lien must be filed within

A

90 days of last day of the month labor was performed

203
Q

Deed of trust: trustee may first apply any proceeds from sale of property after a buyer defaults to

A

Expenses incurred in executing trust including reasonable commission to trustee

204
Q

Doctrine of merger only applies to subject matter covered by

A

The deed, not provisions collateral to passage of title

205
Q

Seller of real property has no duty to disclose ___ defects

A

Obvious, readily observable

206
Q

How long does the warranty of a dwelling’s fitness extend for? What is the SOL for bringing a claim for warranty of dwelling’s fitness?

A

Warranty extends for 1 year and SOL is 2 years from date defect is discovered

207
Q

Does VA recognize a Director’s duty to SHs in closely held corps

208
Q

BJR protects director when he makes a good faith decision that

A

He reasonably believed to be in best interest of the corp

209
Q

A court will uphold the decisions of a director under the BJR so long as decision was made

A

I) in good faith,

Ii) with reasonable care

iii) under reasonable belief that director is acting in best interest of the corp

210
Q

To rebut BJR, shareholder p gas burden of proving that

A

Directors in reaching the challenged decision. Breached a fiduciary duty

211
Q

Judge should only report lawyer’s misconduct to VA state bar where it

A

when it raises a substantial question as to lawyer’s honest, trustworthiness, fitness to practice law

212
Q

Can a judge impose sanctions on their own motion?

A

yes, need not wait for motion of other party

213
Q

Judge’s options for contempt

A

i) Jail up to 10 days

ii) fine up to $250

iii) banning lawyer from ct room where jury hasnt been impaneled

214
Q

Person may marry after turning 18 or after being declared

A

an emancipated minor

215
Q

is professional goodwill subject to equitable distribution upon divorce

216
Q

Voluntary intoxication is only a defense to

A

Negate specific intent of first degree murder

217
Q

Under FOIA, votes must be taken

A

in person where constituent members are physically present unless:

i) governor has declared state of emergency or

ii) quorum of members are present but one needs to conduct electronically

219
Q

Gov act that results in flooding can constitute a taking supporting an inverse condemnation claim where damage to property was caused by

A

gov’s failure to design, operate, or maintain drainage projects

220
Q

Extortion occurs where a defendant

A

Obtains something wrongfully by threats or putting a person in fear.

221
Q

3 ways to dissolve a Partnership

A

Agreement of partners, bankruptcy, judicial dissolution

222
Q

Judicial dissolution of partnership

A

CC in locality where partnership is located may dissolve upon application by or for a partner

After winding down is complete, Ct shall advise SCC, which will enter an order of dissolution

223
Q

Steps to dissolve a Corporation

A

1) file article of dissolution w SCC

2) pay off debts to creditors/sell property (“liquidate its assets”)

3) after paying creditor claims, remaining funds are distributed to SHs according to their ownership interest

224
Q

Partnership may be dissolved where

A

1) partnership was set for a specific time that has passed

2) one of partners has died in past 90 days

3) all partners agree to end

225
Q

What crime occurs where someone Obtains something wrongfully by threats or putting a person in fear.

226
Q

Doctrine of mutual mistake allows ct to grant relief where

A

there has been an innocent omission or insertion of a material stipulation contrary to the intent of both parties

227
Q

Kidnapping occurs where a defendant

A

Seizes, transports, moves another w/o their consent by force, threatened force w intent to deprive them of their liberty

228
Q

Doctrine of merger only applies to the subject matter of the deed, not

A

provisions collateral to the passage of title

229
Q

Is transferor of deed liable for judgment lien on property?

A

not unless lien has been enforced

230
Q

If contributory is not plead in answer or pre answer motion, it is

A

waived unless P’s own evidence shows contributory negligence

231
Q

Motion to reopen… if judgemnt has not been entered/order entered, is party allowed to move to reopen case?

232
Q

Nonwoing spouse has burden of proving that any contributions or personal efforts were made and that there was an increase in

A

value of the property

233
Q

Burden switches to nonowing spouse to prove that increase in value was not caused by

A

marital property or personal efforts of spouse

234
Q

ct determines child support by pointing to the

A

Virginia child support guidlines,,, must provide conslusions of law in support of their award and explanations resolving any factual disputes

235
Q

UCC applies to leases other than

A

finance leases

236
Q

When may a party depose a witness

A

where they are unavailable, meaning 100 miles from site of trial, dead, unable to attend via age, illness, infirmaty or prison and or party could not procure witness’s presence by subpoena

237
Q

Embezzlement occurs where a defendant

A

wrongfully takes money or valuable property from another where that defendant was entrusted with possession over the property.

238
Q

When lawyer knows a client expects assistance not permitted by RPC or law, lawyer must

A

consult w client regarding relevant limitations on lawyer’s conduct

239
Q

Proprietary functions involev

A

private gain… routine ministerial functions that involve no discretion …

240
Q

Exceptions to FOIA access of public records include

A

i) reports prepared specifically for litigation

ii) report relates to a matter subject of a closed meeting

iii) disclosure would jeopardize public safety

iv) record constitutes a trade secret

241
Q

Exceptions to requirement of filing notice of claim against gov

A

constructive notice or claimant under disability

242
Q

If jury’s verdict is excessive court may

A

move for a new trial or allow P to accept a reduced judgment called a remititur

243
Q

Director who votes in favor of or assents to an unlawful distribution is liable for

A

the amount in excess of the lawful amount

Director is liable to corp and creditors

244
Q

Class A preferred venue

A

1) suspension/disbarment

2) actions involving land

3) marriage

4) wills

5) injunction

6) attatchemnet

7) partition

8) ejectment

9) distress

10) writ of mandamus, prohibition, cert

11) writ of pro warranto

245
Q

Writ of Quo warranto

A

A writ of quo warranto may be issued and prosecuted in the name of the Commonwealth for

1) person acting in profession w/o license to do so

2) Person who usurps public office

3) against a domestic corp

246
Q

Parol evidence prescribes that

A

evidence of an agreement or terms to an agreement made before k was fully integrated are inadmissble unless to show, fraud, duress,mutual mistake, course of dealing, usage of trade, course of dealing

247
Q

If contract appears to be partially integrated, court may allow

A

consistent, additional terms to supplement the written contract unless those terms contradict the written contract.

248
Q

Where the parties are merchants, additional terms included in acceptance are deemed

A

included in the final sale of K unless they materially alter the agreement; offer expressly limits terms of acception; or objection is given within reasonable time of receipt

249
Q

If acceptance includes a term that materially alters agreement, that term

A

is knocked out of K

250
Q

Conduct by both parties which recognizes the existence of a contract is sufficient to establish

A

a K for the sale although the writing does not establish such

251
Q

In cases where parties conduct indicates acceptance where their conduct doesnt show such, terms of the K consist of

A

terms parties agree to and UCC gap fillers

252
Q

Public body may conduct a closed meeting to discuss

A

i) interviews of prospective candidates for employment;

ii) acquisition of real property for a public purpose or of the disposition of publicly held real property; and

iii) Consultation with legal counsel and briefings by staff members or consultants pertaining to actual or probable litigation.

253
Q

Are insulting language directed toward a court and misbehavior of an officer of the court (lawyer) grounds for contempt?

254
Q

Class B preferred venue

A

1) where D resides, if not an individual where they have principal office have their PPB, registered office, or registered agent

2) location of fact witnesses, other evidence, plaintiffs, where D regularly conducts substantial business activity provided this all has a practical nexus to the forum

3) for partition of PP, where the personal property is located

255
Q

Brandishing firearm

A

Pointing, holding the weapon

In a way that reasonably causes fear in another person

256
Q

SOL for gdc judgments not recorded in CC vs recorded

A

10 not recorded / 20 recorded

257
Q

SOL for Challenge to the admission of a will to probate

258
Q

Sol for parent’s recovery for curing costs incurred by minor for Pi

259
Q

SOL for enforcing a deed of trust, mortgage, or lien WITH fixed maturity date

260
Q

Sol for enforcing mortgage, deed of trust, or lien WITHOUT fixed maturity date

261
Q

SOL for sexual abuse of minor or incapacitated individual

262
Q

BD can act without a meeting of the board if

A

All bd expressly consent in writing

263
Q

When is capacity of testator determined

A

At time of willl

264
Q

If one lawyer in a firm has a conflict to where they can’t rep a client, no one in firm can rep

A

Imputed conflict

265
Q

Attorney w information re preosrctive client must be

A

Screened from the matter and notice must be given to prospective client

266
Q

Pleadings must be signed by

A

Pro se litigant or local counsel if not signed by attorney licensed to practice law in Va, it is a nullify

267
Q

Waiver of real estate warranties must

A

On its face state warranties being waived and be accompanied by language that property is sold as is set fort in capital letters and 2 points bigger

268
Q

Is evidence of subsequent remedial measures admissible

269
Q

In discovery, any matter relevant to the subject matter may be discoverable so long as it is

A

Not privileged

270
Q

Right to Arbitration must be raised in the answer or it is

271
Q

In a proceeding for judicial dissolution, the corp and its shareholders may elect to purchase shares of other shareholders for

A

Their fair mrkt value

272
Q

Does sovereign immunity go to subject matter jurisdiction?

A

Yes … so if pled but denied then appellate Ct may rule on it and in favor