Criminal Law/ Criminal Procedure Flashcards

1
Q

Every unlawful homicide in Virginia is presumed to be

A

Second degree murder

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2
Q

Involuntary intoxication is a defense as long as IT

A

serves to negate an element of general and specific intent crimes.

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3
Q

If a person “carnally knows” (which includes sexual intercourse) a child 13 years or older but under 15, he is

A

Guilty of class 4 felony

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4
Q

If the child consents to sexual intercourse and the accused is a minor, the crime is

A

reduced to a Class 6 felony if the consenting child is three or more years younger than the accused, or a Class 4 misdemeanor if the consenting child is less than three years the accused’s junior.

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5
Q

Murder by poison is statutorily defined as

A

1st degree murder

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6
Q

Conspiracy is completed when

A

Agreement is made to commit a felony, no overt act requirement

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7
Q

Is withdrawal a defense to conspiracy if conspirator alerts police?

A

No

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8
Q

What standard allows police officers to briefly detain and question someone

A

Reasonable articulable suspicion that criminal activity is afoot

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9
Q

What standard allows police officers to briefly detain and question someone

A

Reasonable articulable suspicion that criminal activity is afoot

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10
Q

Police may conduct a frisk if they have

A

Reasonable articulable suspicion that you are armed and dangerous and are committing or are about to commit a crime

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11
Q

Frisk is limited to a pat down of

A

person’s clothing

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12
Q

Police may search entire passenger compartment, unlock any containers in passenger compartment and frisk that person if they have

A

Reasonable suspicion that person may gain immediate access to weapon

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13
Q

Does probable cause to search a vehicle give police probable cause to search a passenger?

A

No, absent probably cause/reasonable suspicion to believe that person is armed and dangerous

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14
Q

Conspiracy elements

A

two or more individuals agree to commit a crime…No overt act requirement in VA…completed when agreement is formed.

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15
Q

Attempt

A

where a D intends to commit a crime, takes a substantial step towards its commission but fails to complete it

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16
Q

Robbery

A

taking and carrying away of another’s PP by force or threatened violence w intent to permanently deprive

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17
Q

conspirators are liable for finished crime of co conspirator if

A

crime was foreseeable even if he was not present

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18
Q

Attempt: Abandonment defense

A

abandonment is not a defense to attempt

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19
Q

Abduction occurs where

A

D by force or intimidation, seizes, takes, transports or detains another w intent to deprive them of their liberty

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20
Q

Accessory after the fact

A

person who knows a felony has been committed and thereby aids or assists a principal in the first degree or accessory before the fact avoid or escape prosecution

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21
Q

Principal in the first degree

A

perpetrator of the actus reus of the crime

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22
Q

Principal in the second degree

A

someone who is present at the commission of the crime, shares the principal in the 1st degree’s intent that the crime be committed and aids abets, encourages, assists or advises a P in the 1st degree in commission of the crime

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23
Q

Is concealing a felon after felony’s commission sufficient to warrant a conviction as a P in the second degree?

A

No, accessory after the fact

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24
Q

Accessory before the fact

A

someone who aids, abets, assists or advises the P in the 1st degree before the commission of a felony

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25
Q

Motion to Separate Witnesses

A

court is required to exclude the witnesses from the courtroom when not testifying except the complaining witness who may remain if it would not impair the conduct of a fair trial

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26
Q

When must motion to exclude evidence be raised?

A

in writing and filed 7 days before trial

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27
Q

An attempt to supress particular items of evidence, such as witness statements of ID or items of physical evidence must be made via

A

motion to suppress,,,,not motion to strike

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28
Q

Can a D raise suppression issues on a m2s?

A

no

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29
Q

Do you need an eye witness to observe firearm for Use of Firearm charge?

A

NO…not required to have eye witness observe the firearm or for firearm to be admitted into evidence….Can be established by circumstantial evidence

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30
Q

CLass 1 felony is punishable by

A

lfife imprisonment unless convicted party was under 18 or determined mentally retarded, in which case punishment is life and fine of no more than $100k

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31
Q

Class 2 felony is punishable by

A

life or not less than 20 yrs imprisonment and a fine of no more than 100k

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32
Q

Class 3 felony is punishable by

A

not less than 5 yrs and not more than 20 yrs imprisonment and a fine of no more than $100k

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33
Q

Class 4 felony is punishable by

A

not less than 2 yrs and not more than 10 yrs imprisonment and a fine no more than 100k

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34
Q

Class 5 felony is punishable by

A

not less than 1 yr and not more than 10 yrs imprisonment or in discretion of jury or judge not more than 12 months in jail and or fine up to $2,500

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35
Q

class 6 felony is punishable by

A

not less than 1 yr and not more than 5 yrears or in discretion of jury or judge not more than 12 months in jail and or a fine of not more than $2,500

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36
Q

Class 1 misdemeanor is punishable by

A

confinement in jail for not more than 12 months and or a fine not more than $2,500

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37
Q

Class 2 misdemeanor is punishable by

A

confinement in jail for not more than 6 months and or a fine of not more than $1,000

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38
Q

class 3 misdemeanor is punishable by

A

fine of not more than $500

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39
Q

Class 4 misdemeanor is punishable by

A

fine of not more than $250

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40
Q

Principal in 1st degree

A

person whose acts or omissions are the actus reus of the crime…the perpetrator….

Can be a principal in 1st degree if he arranges to have committed criminal act through innocent agent

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41
Q

Principal in 2nd Degree

A

person present at comission of crime and shares the principal in 1st degree’s intent that crime be committed or aids, abets, encourages, assists, or advises a principal in 1st degree in commission of crime …

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42
Q

Can P in 2nd degree be convicted and punished to same degree as P in 1st?

A

yes

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43
Q

Difference between P in 2nd degree and accessory before the fact

A

Accessory before the fact is not present during commission of the crime.

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44
Q

Accessory before the fact’s assistance may be in the form of

A

verbal encouragement, financial assiatnce, or physical assistance….

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45
Q

Accessory after the fact

A

Person who knows a felony has been committed and thereby aids or assists a P in the 1st degree or accessory before the fact AVOID OR ESCAPE PROSECUTION

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46
Q

Is accessory before the fact subject to punishment of crime P in 1st degree committed

A

yes

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47
Q

is accessory AFTER the fact subject to punishment that P in 1st degree committed

A

no1

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48
Q

Before an accessory may be convicted, it must be proven that Principal has

A

committed a criminal offense

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49
Q

Withdrawal of accessory

A

Person who aids or encourages the commission of a felony may before completion withdraw such aid and encouragement and not be criminally liable as long as withdrawal is evidenced by acts or words showing other crime participants that he opposes the conduct.

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50
Q

If the crime is completed after withdrawal, there must be an independent cause to

A

absolve the withdrawing party from criminal liability

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51
Q

Insanity in VA, d must prove

A

he was insane at time of the offense under either M’Naughten test or irresistible impulse test

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52
Q

M’Naghten test

A

because of his mental disease, he did not know that the nature and quality of the act or the wrongfulness of the act

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53
Q

Irresistible impulse test, D is not guilty if he

A

is able to understand the nature of his act is wrong but his mind has become so impaired by disease that he is TOTALLY DEPRIVED OF THE MENTAL POWER TO CONTROL/RESTRAIN HIS ACT

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54
Q

How to raise insanity defense

A

D must raise insanity defense and give notice to the Commonwealth’s attorney of his intention to put sanity in issue and present expert testimony at least 60 days before trial

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55
Q

Is voluntary intoxication a defense?

A

not unless D was so intoxicated that he was incapable of deliberation and premeditation per first degree murder

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56
Q

Involuntray intoxication is a defense so long as

A

intoxication serves to negate an element of general and specific intent crimes…

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57
Q

For intoxication To be considered involuntary, D must have

A

unwillingly and unconsciously ingested the intoxicant

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58
Q

Child under age of 7

A

cannot be convicted of a crime

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59
Q

CHild between 7 and 14

A

rebuttably presumed incable of committing a crime.

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60
Q

Child at least 14

A

can be tried as an adult

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61
Q

To rise to level of 1st dgree, Comm must show

A

malice or premediation exists and if shown, burden of producing mitigating evidene shifts to D

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62
Q

Aggravated murder

A

willful, deliberate and premediated killing of
1) any person in commission of an abduction committed w the intent to extort money
2) person for hire
3) person by a prisoner confined in a state or local correction facility
4) person in commission of robbery, attempted robbery, act of terrorism,
5) commission of or subsequent to rape, attempted rape, forcible sodomy
6) law enforcement officer
7) more than one person as part of same transaction
8) witness in a criminal case
9) person under age 14 by someone over 21
10) pregnant woman by person who has intet to involuntary terminate the pregnancy
11) person by another from order of a person engaged in a criminal enterprise

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63
Q

Murder by poison, lying in wait, imprisonment, starving is

A

1st dgree

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64
Q

Transferred intent murder

A

if one person intends to kill another but a 3rd person is killed instead, intent is transferred to 3rd person….does not matter that killing of 3rd person was unitintentional

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65
Q

Felony murder

A

murder in 1st degree defined as murder committed in commission or attempted commission of arson, rape, forcible sodomy, inanimate or animate object sexual penetration, robbery, burglary, or abduction

May be accidental

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66
Q

malice

A

intent to kill or intent to inflict serious bodily harm in which death results

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67
Q

murder in second degree

A

killing with malice but no premeditation or deliberation

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68
Q

Felony homicide

A

Murder in 2nd degree and constitutes a killing of another accidentally or contrary to parties’ intent, while commiting a felony not enumerated in aggravated murder statute or felony murder

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69
Q

Prison time for killing a pregrnant woman w/ premeditation by one who has intent to terminate pregancy

A

at least 10 no more than 40

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70
Q

What class of felony is person who kills fetus guilty of

A

class 2 felony

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71
Q

Voluntary manslaughter

A

killing occurring in heat of passion or sudden mutual combat…

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72
Q

Adequate provocation: words

A

Words alone are not adequate provocation

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73
Q

Involuntary manslaughter

A

accidental, unintentional killing of another that occurs during D’s perpetration of an unlawful act that is not a felony or of a lawful act committed w criminal negligence

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74
Q

Involuntary manslaughter: DUI

A

person who unintentionally kills another as a result of driving a motor vehicle while under influence of alcohol drugs or other intoxicant commits involuntary mansalughter

if shows reckless disregard for human life he may be guilty of aggravated invol manslaughter

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75
Q

Involuntary manslaughter: Causation

A

must be a casual connection btwn unlawful act and death for involuntary manslaughter to apply

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76
Q

Larceny

A

taking of another’s pp by trespass w inten to permanently deprive person of property…

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77
Q

Grand larceny

A

i) larceny from another’s perosn of money or thing valued greater than $5

ii) simple larceny not from another’s person of goods and chattels w value of $1,000 or more

iii) simple larceny not from another’s person of a firearm, regardless of value

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78
Q

Petit larceny: felony or misdemeanor

A

misdemeanor…

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79
Q

Petit larceny

A

i) larceny from person of another of money or thing less than $5

ii) simple larceny not from person of another of goods and chattels of value less than $1,000

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80
Q

Organized retail theft

A

when one conspires or acts in concert w another person to commit larceny f retail merchandise w a value exceeding $5k aggregated over 90 day period w intent to sell stolen merchandise fro profit and either

i) receives or possesses any stolen retail merchandise while knowing or having reasonable grounds to believe the property was unlawfully obtained; or

ii) conspires or acts in concert w two or more other persons as an organizer, supervisor, financier, leader or manager to effectuate the transfer or sale of stolen retail merchandise for profit

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81
Q

Embezzlement

A

fraudulent use, concealment disposing of, or embexzzling of any commercial paper or tangible or intangible property that was

i) received from another person or for one’s employer
ii) received by virtue of one’s office or employmeny; or
iii) entrusted to one by another

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82
Q

False pretenses

A

when one obtains money, or any property subject to larceny by false pretense and w intent to defraud. Both title and possession must pass

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83
Q

Robbery

A

taking, w intent to steal, of the personal property of another, from his person or in his presence, against his will, by violence or intimidation

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84
Q

Extortion

A

taking property by threat of injury to character, person, or property of another

ii) accusing another of any offense

iii) threatening to report another as being illegaly present in the US

iv) knowingly destroying, concealing, removing, confiscating, withholding or threatening to withhold another’s passport or identification document

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85
Q

burglary

A

breaking and entering the dwelling home of another at night w intent to commit a felony or larceny therin

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86
Q

Burglary is a class 3 felony unless

A

person is armed w a deadly weapon in which case punishment is elevated to class 2 felony

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87
Q

Statutory burglarly

A

one enters at night without breaking or in daytime breaks and enters or enters and conceals himself in a dwelling or adjoining occupied outhouse or any building permanently affixed to realty, ship, vessel, river craft, railroad car, or motor vehicle used as a dwelling w intent to commmit murder, rape, robbery or arson or a misdemeanor except assault and B

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88
Q

Arson

A

malicious burning or use of an explosive device to destroy a dwelling house or other building where people usually dwell or lodge

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89
Q

Is an outhouse a dwelling?

A

Not unless it is adjoined to a dwelling, under same roof unless person lodges there at night

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90
Q

Knowingly or intentionally possessing a prohibited object or substance is unlawful if

A

D exercises control over such object or substance

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91
Q

Possession offense: Is D required to be aware that possession of object is illegal

A

no

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92
Q

Possession of controlled subject: dominion and control must be present long enough for D to

A

Cease such dominion and control

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93
Q

Two types of possessio

A

actual and constructive

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94
Q

COnstructive possession may be proven by

A

acts, declarations, or conduct of the accused from which a fair inference may be drawn that he knew if its existence at place where it was found….

not merely that he should have known of its existence

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95
Q

Accomodation defense to possession

A

D may establish that he gave, distributed, or possed a controlled substance only as an accommodation to another individual w/o intent to profit thereby from any consideration received or expected nor to induce the recipient or intended recipient of the controlled substance to use or become addicted to or dependent upon the substance….

BY PREPONDERANCE

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96
Q

Does accommodation defense absolve D of crime

A

no but may lessen penalty

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97
Q

Receipt of stolen goods

A

if person buys or receives from another person or aids in concealing any stolen goods w knowleedge that property is stolen he may be proceeded against for larceny even if Principal is not convicted

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98
Q

Simple assault and battery: felony or misdemeanor

A

misdemeanor but can be elevated to a felony based on status of the victim

99
Q

Battery

A

unlawful application of force to another person that causes bodily harm or offensive touching to that person

100
Q

Assault

A

an attempt to commit battery or intentionally placing another in apprehension of an immediate offensive touching

101
Q

hate crime

A

if d intentionally selects victim of an a&b then it is elevated to class 6 felony

102
Q

School employees: battery

A

If person commits a battery against a person he knows or has reason to know is a full-time or part-time employee of any public or private elementary or secondary school engaged in the performance of her duties, he commits a Class 1 misdemeanor punishable by a 15-day jail sentence with a two-day mandatory minimum.

If a firearm or weapon is used, the person must serve a six-month mandatory minimum sentence.

103
Q

A&B on Family or household member: what kind of felony/misdemeanor

A

class 1 misdemeanor…elevated to class 6 felony if previously convicted of 2 similar offenses

104
Q

A& B on Judge or law enforcement officer

A

class 6 felony 6 month manditory mim

105
Q

A&B on healthcare provider

A

class 1 misdemeanor, 15 day jail sentence 2 day mandatory mim

106
Q

Malicious wounding

A

maliciously shoots, stabs, cuts, wounds, or injures another w intent to main, disfigure, diable or kill him/..class 3 felony

107
Q

aggravated malicious W occurs where

A

v is severely injured and suffers permanent and significant physical impairment or is pregant

108
Q

Reckless endangerment

A

person w intent to injure another, intentionally throws an object capable of causing injury from a balcony, rooftop or a place high than 1 story

109
Q

Use or display of firearm

A

person uses, attempts to use, or displays a firearm in a threatening manner while committing or attempting to commit inherently dangerous felony he commits a seperate offense

110
Q

Attempt to posion

A

person administers or attempts to administer poison or a destructive substance with the intent to kill or injure another, he commits a felony

111
Q

Adulteration of food

A

person adulterates or causes to be adulterated any food, drink, prescription, over-the-counter medicine, cosmetic, or other substance with the intent to kill or injure another who ingests, inhales, or uses such substance, she commits a felony

112
Q

Hazing

A

person who causes bodily injury by recklessly or intentionally endangering the health and safety of a student at any school or upon any gang member or person seeking to become a member of any gang, club, or organization commits hazing

113
Q

Kidnapping/abduction

A

i) Person by force, intimidation deception seizes, takes, transports detains or secrets another w intent to deprive the other person of his personal liberty

/subjects him to forced labor

114
Q

Carjacking

A

intentionally seizing control of a motor vehicle w intent to deprive another of possession or control of the vehicle by means of assault or putting person in fear of serious bodily harm or by threat or presennting a firearm

115
Q

Strangulation

A

person who impedes blood circulation of another by knowingly, intentionally, and umlawfully applying presure to neck of such person causing wound/injury

116
Q

Rape

A

when one has sexual intercourse w another or causes person to enagage in sexual intercourse w another, against their will, by force, threat or intimidation; ii) through use of complaining witness’s mental incapacity; or iii) with child under age of 13

117
Q

Rape Shield Statute: only way evidence re complaining witness’s prior sexual conduct is inadmissible at trial is

A

I) designed to explain the presence of semen, pregancny, disease or physical injury

ii) show absence of force, threat, or intimidation provided contact occurred within a time period reasonably proximate to the charged offense

ii) rebut evidence of prior sexual conduct introduced by teh commonwealth

118
Q

Statutory rape

A

D carnally knowsa child is 13 or 14 is guilty of class 4 felony

someone who has sex with child aged 15, 16, or 17 guilty of class1 misdemeanor

119
Q

If child consents to sexual intercourse and accused is a minor crime is reduced to

A

class 6 if consenting child is 3 or more yrs the accused’s junior; or

a class 4 if consenting child is less than 3 yrs the accused’s junior

120
Q

Taking iNdecent liberties w a child

A

exposing genitalia or sexual propositions to child under 15

121
Q

Bigamy

A

marriage to another person while still married to

122
Q

Forgery

A

criminal offense to use, utter, or forge a public record, coin , note or bill…also criminal offense to use or posess any forged instruments or possess forged bank notes or coins knowing the same to be forged or w intent to employ them as true

123
Q

Perjury

A

person who under a lawfully administered oath wilfully swears falsely to a matter… person who induces another to commit perjury is guilty of perjury…person who commits perjury cant hold public office

124
Q

Bribery

A

gift, offer or promise to public officer or candidate for public office w intent to influence his actions

125
Q

Obstructing justice

A

knowingly obstructing judicial officer, juror, CA, witness in performance of their duties…misdemeanor

126
Q

False reports

A

knwoingly giving false report about commission of a crime to law enforcement officers w intent to mislead or interfere w law enforcement operations

127
Q

Resisting Lawful arrest

A

intetionally preventing or attempting to prevent a law enforcement officer from lawfully arresting them

128
Q

Solicitation

A

a command/attempt to persuade another to commit a felony…..

enhanced if solicitor is over 18 and person solicited is under 18

129
Q

Conspiracy to Commit a felony

A

he agrees w another to commit a felony

130
Q

Conspiracy: overt act

A

Va does not require an overt act be performed to complete a considpiracy…

131
Q

Conspiracy: Withdrawal

A

Withdrawal cannot be a defense bc conspiracy completed once agreement was formed

132
Q

co-conspirators can be convicted of crimes other co conspirators committed if

A

crime is reasonably foreseeable and natural consequence of conspiracy

133
Q

Conspiracy: Can d be tried and convicted of substantive offense and conspiracy charge at trial?

A

yes but person who has already been convicted of substantive defense cannot later be convicted of that same offense later at trial for conspiracy

134
Q

Attempt

A

intent to commit a crriminal act w an ineffectual overt act taken towards commission of intended crime

135
Q

Attempt: ineffectual overt must be more than

A

preperatory

136
Q

Attempt: merger

A

if principal crime is successfully completed, attempt merges into completed crime..

Factually impossibility is not a defense

137
Q

Self defense

A

affirmative defense in Virginia that may be raised when a person reasonably apprehends bodily harm by another and exercises reasonable force to repel the assault.

138
Q

A person may only use deadly force to defend themselves when

A

there are reasonable grounds to believe that the user of deadly force was in imminent danger of great bodily harm or death at time deadly force was used

139
Q

Can deadly force be used to defend against an intruder in one’s home

A

yes but fear alone is not enough to justify

140
Q

There is never an obligation to retreat before employing force unless

A

D is at fault or otherwise provoked the aggressor

141
Q

When can aggressor use self defense

A

if he abandons the original attack by retreating to the extent he can safely do so and making known his desire for peace by word or act.

142
Q

Can use force to defend property when

A

when no time to seek assistance from law enforcement, may take reasonable steps to protect property but not use deadly force

143
Q

To use force to defend property, defender must

A

reasonably belive that real property is in immediate danger of unlawful trespass or PP is in immediate danger of being carried away and that the use of force is necessary to prevent either

144
Q

Duress defense

A

D violates law bc of 3rd party’s unlawful threat that causes D to reasonably believe that the only way to avoid death or serious bodily injury to himself or another is to violate the law

145
Q

Cannot use duress to justify

A

killing of innocent person

146
Q

Entrapment

A

conception and planning of an offense by a law enforcement officer, and his procurement of its commission by a D who would not otherwise have committed that offense except for the trickery, perusasion or fraud of the officer….D cannot have predisposition to commit the cirme.

147
Q

Criminal prosecutions must be held in

A

county or city where offense was committed

148
Q

If the offense was committed within the Commonwealth but the city or county cannot be readily determined, venue is proper where

A

D resides, or if D is not a resident of the Commonwealth, where D was apprehended or in which any related offense was committed

149
Q

Venue: Homicide where location of killining is unknown

A

where body/remains were discovered

150
Q

Venue: injury in one county/death in another

A

can be prosecuted in either

151
Q

Venue for larceny, embezzlement, forgery

A

in cnt/city where offense was committed or where D took stolen property to or where d was legally obligated to deliver the property

152
Q

Computer crime venue

A

I) where any act in futherance occurred,

ii) owner has his PPB,

iii) d had control or possession of any proceeds,

iv) computer or network was accessed,

v) D resides or where computer was located

153
Q

Where is venue proper for conspiracy

A

in any cnty/city where conspiracy was entered or any act in furtherance

154
Q

Venue where crime is committed on a boundary

155
Q

When can venue be raised

A

before verdict is rendered in jury trial or before finding of guilt in bench

156
Q

Burden of proof for establishing venue

A

strong presumption

157
Q

Warrantless arrest

A

officers have authority to arrest when D commits crime in their presence or they have probable cause to believe a crime has been committed

158
Q

WHo may issue warrants

A

judge, magistrate or other authority having jurisdiction to issue criminal warrants as long as such officer is satisfied from a complaint and affidavit that there is reasonable and probable cause to issue the warrant.

159
Q

Who may issue warrant sought to search a licensed attorney’d office for evidence of a crime committed by client

A

only CC judge

160
Q

Search warrant may be issued for the search of

A

specified places, things or persons

161
Q

Search warrant affidavit must:

A

describe the person, place or thing to be searched

2) persons or things to be searched for

3) briefly allege the material facts costituting probable cause

4) allege the crime or identity of person being arrested

5) allege the object, thing, or person searched for co

162
Q

Warrant must be directed to

A

i) sheriff, sergeant or any law enforcement officer of the county, city or town where place to be searched is located

163
Q

Search w/o a warrant

A

Gov officer may not search any place, thing or person w/o properly issued warrant

164
Q

Vehicle Checkpoints permissible?

A

traffic checkpoints are generally permissible but police are prohibited from establishing checkpoints where motorvehciles are only vehicles stoppped

165
Q

Stopping/searching/seizing based on odor of marijuana

A

police may not stop/search/seize solely based on odor of weed…evidence obtained in violation of this rule is inadmissible

166
Q

What are things police cannot conduct a traffic stop for?

A

i) defective and unsafe equipment (Va Code Ann. § 46.2-1003);

ii) Without all brake lights or a high mount stop light (Va Code Ann. §§ 46.2-1014, -1014.1);

iii) With certain sun-shading materials and tinting films (Va Code Ann. § 46.2-1052);

iv) Without any working headlights between sunset and sunrise (Va Code Ann. § 46.2-1030);

v) With registration and inspection stickers that have been expired for less than four months (Va Code Ann. §§ 46.2-646, -1157); and

vii) With certain objects suspended in the vehicle

no evidence obtained based on such stops is admissible

167
Q

after arrest by warrant, An arresting officer must bring the arrested party without unnecessary delay before a

A

a judicial officer who must immediately conduct a bail hearing, and either admit the accused to bail or commit him to jail

168
Q

person who is held in custody pending trial or hearing, must be admitted bail by a judicial officer unless there is probable cause to believe that

A

(i) he will not appear for trial or other judicial proceedings or (ii) his liberty will constitute an unreasonable danger to himself, family or household members, or the public.

169
Q

in felony cases, the accused is entitled to have a preliminary hearing to determine

A

whether there are reasonable grounds to believe he committed the offense and no indictment may be returned against him unless the accused waives this right in writing

170
Q

Prelim: If the judge finds that there is sufficient cause for charging the accused but does not have jurisdiction to try the accused, judge must

A

certify the case to the appropriate court and commit the accused to jail or grant him bail

171
Q

All pleadings filed by an attorney assure that it is

A

filed in good faith and not for delay

172
Q

Grand juries function to

A

i) consider the indictment bills prepared by the Commonwealth attorney to DETERMINE IF PROBABLE CAUSE and return the indictment and ii) INVESTIGATE AND REPORT any condition that involves or promotes criminal activity in the community

173
Q

How many members must be in Grand jury

A

at least 5 no more than 7 ppl over 18 yrs old and resident of Va for more than 1 yr and of county holding grand jury proceeding for 6 months

174
Q

After grand jurors are sworn in, the judge must

A

give a charge instructing the grand jury to advice the ct after their consideration of the bills of indictyment as to whether to impanel a special grand jury to further investigate criminal activty

175
Q

How many grand jurors are necessary to concur in making or finding an indictment or presentment

A

at least 4

176
Q

A special grand jury may be impaneled by a circuit court upon

A

motion by CC or recommendatio of a minority of members of regular grand jury or upon request of COmmonwealth attorney to investigate and report any condition tending to promote or involve criminal activity

177
Q

Special Grand jury MUST be impaneled by a CC upon

A

recommendation of a majority of regular grand jurors if ct finds probable cause to believe crime has been committed that needs further investigation

178
Q

How many members must be in special grand jury

A

no less than 7 no more than 11

179
Q

Special grand jury subpoena power

A

may subpoena witnesses to testify and produce papers, records, documents, or other tangible things…

180
Q

Ct reporter in special grand jury proceedings

A

court reporter must be provided to record and transcribe all oral testimony taken. but cant b

record of proceedings may not be used in a subsequent proceeding unless a witness is charged w perjury

181
Q

Criminal charges are filed by

A

indictment, presentment or information

182
Q

Indictment is a

A

written accusation of crime, prepared by attorney for the Commonwealth and returned a true bill upon the oath or affirmation of a legally impaneled grand jury

183
Q

Presentment

A

a written accusation of crime prepared and returned by a grand jury from their own knowledge or observation, w/o any bill of indictment laid before them

184
Q

Presentment

A

a written accusation of crime prepared and returned by a grand jury from their own knowledge or observation., w/o any bill of indictment laid before them

185
Q

indictment or information must contain a plain, concise and definite written statement that includes

A

i) the accused’s name,

ii) the charged crime,

iii) the county or city where the alleged offense occurred and

iv) the DATE that the d allegedly committed the offense.

186
Q

f the judge rejects the plea agreement, he must

A

immediately recuse himself from any further proceedings on the matter unless parties agree otherwise

187
Q

Conditional guilty plea reserves right on appeal to

A

review an adverse determination of a specified pretrial motion

188
Q

Plea of guilty or nolo contendre may be withdrawn before sentencing if

A

defendant shows that the motion is made in good faith and proffers evidence of a reasonable basis for contesting guilt.

189
Q

Plea of guity of nolo contendre may be withdrawn after sentencing only to

A

correct manifest injustice

190
Q

Two or more offenses may be charged in separate counts of the same indictment or information as long as the charges are based on

A

STO or on two or more acts or transactions that are connected or parts of a common scheme or plan

191
Q

Two or more defendants may be charged in the same indictment or information as long as

A

they are charged w participating in contemporaneous and related acts or in a series of acts constituting an offense

192
Q

Speedy trial: if D is held in custody

A

5 months from date of probable cause determination

193
Q

Speedy trial: if out of custody

A

9 months from date of probable cause determination

194
Q

Speedy trial: if an appeal has been perfected from a misdemeanor or traffic infraction conviction and D has been continuously held in custody

A

5 months from conviction date

195
Q

Speedy trial: If an appeal has not been perfected from a misdemeanor or traffic infraction conviction and the defendant has been continuously held in custody

A

9 months from conviction date

196
Q

If D waived preliminary hearing, 5 and 9 month periods start on

A

date an indictment or presentment was found against D

197
Q

If an indictment or presentment has been found, but an arrest has not been made, the five- and nine-month periods run from

A

arrest date

198
Q

The speedy trial periods do not apply if the failure to try the accused was caused by:

A

i) accused’s insanity or confinement in a hospital for care and observation;

ii) Commonwealth’s witnesses being enticed or kept away or are sick/injured

iii) granting a separate trial by one indicted jointly for a felony

iv) granting of an accused’s continuance motion or by concurring with or failing to object to Commonwealth’s continuance motion

v) accused’s failure to appear
vi) natural disaster, act of god

199
Q

Motions to suppress must be made

A

in writing and notice given to opposing counsel not later than seven days before a circuit court trial and cannot be appealed unless there is a final judgment on merits

200
Q

How many days before trial must D give Comm notice to raise insanity defense

201
Q

If the parties fail to comply with the discovery rules or court orders, the court may impose

A

sanctions, order compliance or grant a continuance to allow for more time for compliance

202
Q

Is someone accused of a misdemeanor in GDC entitled to a jury?

A

no but entitled to bench trial…Accused tried in GDC may however appeal decision and receive a jury trial in CC

203
Q

The defendant may waive his right to a jury trial upon the advice of his counsel, as long as

A

Comm attny and judge agree and ct determines before trial that waiver was made voluntarily and intelligently …D waives his right if pleas guilty

204
Q

person is disqualified from serviving as a juror if he is

A

adjudicated incapacitated, convicted of treason, convicted of a felony or otherwise under legal disability

205
Q

Persons who may request disqualification from jury service

A

I) ppl over 70;

II) those responsible for children 16 or younger or other impaired person who requires continuous care during normal court hours;

iii) breastfeeding mother;

Iv) anyone whos spouse is summoned to serve on same panel;

V) anyuone who is only person performing essential business that would cause the enterprise to close if the person served as a juror

206
Q

Jury/panel size for felonies

A

at least 12 jurors chosen from a panel no fewer than 20

207
Q

jury/panel size for misdemeanor

A

7 from a panel of no fewer than 13

208
Q

of preemptory challenges in felony matters

209
Q

of preemptory challenges for misdemeanor juries

210
Q

How many preemptory challenges if two or more Ds are tried together

211
Q

When a jury returns a verdict, veridtc must be

A

unanimous, signed by foreperson, returned by jury in open ct

212
Q

If two or more defendants are jointly tried, the jury may return a verdict as to

A

those it can unanimously agree on

213
Q

The defendant may be found not guilty of a charged offense but guilty of an offense or attempt to commit any offense that is

A

substantially charged or necessarily included in the charged offense

214
Q

Can d be found ng of a felony but guilty as an accessory?

215
Q

If the defendant is acquitted of a felony offense, can he later be prosecuted for an attempt to commit or as an accessory to such felony?

216
Q

If there are several counts in an indictment and one or more of the counts is faulty, the defendant must

A

I) object or

ii) move the ct to instruct the jury to reject the faulty counts before a verdict is rendered …

if he does neither and a guilty verdict is rendered, judgment will be entered against the D if any count is good unless the court can plainly see that the verdict could not have been found on the good count

217
Q

motion to set aside the verdict may be based either on

A

the sufficiency of the evidence or upon error committed during trial…must be filed no later than 21 days after final order

218
Q

If a defendant is charged with a misdemeanor and fails to appear, can the case be tried?

A

yes before a judge but not jury

219
Q

At any trial, the victim may remain in the courtroom and must not be excluded unless

A

ct determines that presence of V would impede the conduct of a fair trial

If v is a minor, ct may allow adult chosen by minor to be present in ct

220
Q

Motion to strike should be granted if

A

evidence is insufficent as a matter of law to sustain a conviction

221
Q

To preserve the question of sufficiency of the evidence for appeal, in a jury trial, D must

A

make a motion to strike at conclusion of all evidence or make a motion to set aside verdict

221
Q

Can D be charged of same offense he was acquitted of?

222
Q

Can D be tried for same offense if jury is hung?

223
Q

Can D be tried for same offense if jury returns hung

224
Q

If ct dismisses the charges, dismissal will not bar subsequent prosecution of the charge unless

A

jeopardy attached at the earlier proceeding or the case was dismissed w prejudice

225
Q

If the same act is in violation of two or more statutes, ordinances, or combination of both, conviction under one statute or ordinance is a

A

bar to prosecution under the others

226
Q

how many days b4 trial must D request sentencing by juror

A

30 days before

227
Q

If the court deviates from the discretionary sentencing guidelines, it must

A

file written explanation for its departure

228
Q

A district court conviction for a non-felonious offense may be appealed as of right to the circuit court within

A

10 days of conviction even if conviction was based on guilty plea and new trial is held de novo

229
Q

A CC conviction for a crime may be appealed as of

A

right to VA Ct of APP

230
Q

Notice of appeal must be filed within

A

30 days of entry of final order

231
Q

Standard of Review on appeal: When a party challenges a conviction as being contrary to the evidence, the conviction cannot be set aside unless

A

it is plainly wrong or without evidence

232
Q

When a party challenges a conviction on the basis that evidence was improperly admitted at trial, the court will consider all the evidence and determine whether the evidence is

A

sufficient to sustain a conviction..viewed in light most favorable to the commonwealth

233
Q

If the reviewing court determines that evidence was improperly admitted and the error was not harmless, case will be

A

remanded for new trial

234
Q

Actual possession

A

Having physical custody or control

235
Q

Constructive possession

A

Knowledge
- d has knowledge Drugs were present

Intent
- D intends possess

Control
-ability to assert dominion and control

236
Q

Is Mere knowledge that crime will result enough for an accessory before the fact conviction?

237
Q

General intent

A

when someone intends to perform an act, but doesn’t intend the consequences of that act

238
Q

Difference between felony murder and aggravated murder

A

Aggravated is willful, deliberate and intentional, premeditated

239
Q

Police may conduct an inventory search so long as purpose is not to

A

gather incriminating evidence against the owner and inventory search is conducted pursuant to standardized procedures

240
Q

Only _ is required for statutory burglary when it is committed at NIGHT, not breaking

241
Q

In determing whether to deny motion for joint trial, ct considers whether

A

moving party would be prejudiced by the joint trial… ie whether charges are similar