Miscellaneous Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

Name the types of Fluoroquinolones
3 most common
3 others

A
Ciprofolxacin* (Cipro)
Levofloxacin* (Levaquin)
Moxifloxacin* (Avelox)
Gemifloxacin (Factive)
Norfloxacin (Noroxin)
Oflaxacin (Floxin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Are FQ bacterocidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bacterocidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the Distribution of FQs?

Elimination of FQs?

A

Good tissue distribution
Good distribution into fluids except CNS

All undergo renal elimination except moxifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MOA of FQs?

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV necessary for replication of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What FQs would cover Aerobic gram negative bacteria?

A

All fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What FQs would cover Pseudomonas Aeruginosa?

2

A

ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What FQs would cover Gram positive including Streptococcus spp, (Streptococcus pneumonia)-ear, upper, and lower resp infection
3

A

Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin and gemfloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What FQs would cover Anaerobic

bacteria?

A

Moxifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clinical uses for FQs?

5

A
  1. Urinary tract (DOC)- cipro
  2. Sexually transmitted
  3. GI infections
  4. Traveler’s diarrhea
  5. Osteomyelitis- good penetration into the bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Drug of choice for UTIs?

A

cipro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What FQs (3) are classified as Respiratory FQs and why are they used for this?

A

FQ’s that have activity against Gm+ organisms including Streptococcus.

Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin and gemifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the BBW on FQs?

What demographics is this increased in?3

A

Fluoroquinolones, including LEVAQUIN®, are associated with an increased risk of tendinitis and tendon rupture in all ages

60 years of age, in patients taking corticosteroid drugs, and in patients with kidney, heart or lung transplants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SE of FQs?

8

A
Nausea
Diarrhea
Dizziness
Confusion
Tendon rupture
QT prolongation- higher risk to go to  vtach/death
Tendonitis
Peripheral neuropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the common drug interactions for cipro?

4

A
CYP4501A2
Theophylline, 
warfarin,
tizanidine, 
propranolol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs all decrease absorption in FQs?

5

A

Antacids, sucralfate, magnesium, calcium, iron all decrease the absorption of FQs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In which meds do you have to adjust the dose on for FQs with renal considerations?

What other dosing should you be careful about (pts with what?)

A

Adjust dose for renal failure patients unless using moxifloxacin

Caution when using in patients with history of ventricular arrhythmias secondary to QT prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dosage forms of FQs?

A

Can be given oral or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

FQs contain the only oral agents against what?

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In what demographics is it contraindicated in?

Why?

A

Not for use in pregnancy or in children
Pregnancy & lactation = exposure to infant
Pediatrics = arthropathy and osteochondrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the drug in the sulfonamides class that we talked about?

A

Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim (SMX-TMP) (Bactrim DS, Septra)

21
Q

Describe the distribution of Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim (SMX-TMP) (Bactrim DS, Septra)?

What about elimination?

A

Distribution to body tissues, CSF, pleural fluid, synovial fluid

Eliminated through liver and kidneys

22
Q

What is the MOA for sulfonimides?

Describe the mechanism in SMX and TMP?

A

Folic acid synthesis inhibitors

Bacteria need to produce folic acid to survive:

SMX inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

TMP inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

23
Q

Clinical uses for sulfas?

5

A
  1. Urinary tract infections
  2. PCP or P. jiroveci pneumonia!!!!
  3. Toxoplasmosis
  4. Gram positive and negative infections
  5. MRSA!!!
24
Q

Most common side effects with sulfas are?
3

Ones that we need to watch out for???
2

A

rash, fever and GI symptoms.

Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Hemolytic anemia if underlying G6PD deficiency

25
Q

Describe the MOA of stevens/johnsons syndrome?

2

A
  1. Cell death causes the dermis and epidermis to separate

2. Hypersensitivity reaction of skin and mucous membranes

26
Q

Describe the drug interactions with Sulfas?

5

A
Up to 70% protein bound.  Displaces other drugs
Potentiates the effects of:
Warfarin
Phenytoin
Hypoglycemic agents
Methotrexate
Beta-blockers
27
Q

What are sulfas metabolized by?
Where are they excreted?
If CrCl is 15-30 what shouldwe do? What about below 15?

A

liver
kidney

Reduce dose by 50%
Stop use

28
Q

Sulfa doasge forms?

What is it most commonly used for?

Pregnancy category?

A

For oral use only

UTIs

C

29
Q

Do sulfas cover MRSA?

A

yes.

MRSA. cellulitis skin infections

30
Q

What are Nitrofurantion (Macrobid) used for?

Dosage forms?

A

Only for treatment and prevention of uncomplicated urinary tract infections
PO

31
Q

How would you describe the absorption of Nitrofurantion (Macrobid) and clearance?

A

Rapidly absorbed and only in the serum for about 30 minutes.

Cleared renally and is concentrated in the urine
Inadequate drug levels in the bladder if the creatinine clearance is abnormal

32
Q

At what CrCl level is Nitrofurantion (Macrobid) contraindicated in?

A
33
Q

What do we think the MOA of Nitrofurantion (Macrobid) is?

A

Thought to disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis through inhibition of bacterial enzymes

34
Q

Nitrofurantion (Macrobid) is Effective against common organisms that cause UTIs.
What are they?
5

A
E. Coli
Citrobacter
Staph saprophyticus
Enterococcus faecalis
Eneterococcus faecium
35
Q

Most common side effects of Nitrofurantion (Macrobid)?

Whats the one we have to watch for/ the most dangerous?

A

Nausea and vomiting

Pulmonary reactions (toxicity)

  • Pulmonary infiltrates,
  • pneumonitis,
  • pulmonary fibrosis
36
Q

How to the pulmonary reactions manifest in pts with Nitrofurantion (Macrobid)?

How fast is this usually discovered and how do we fix it?

A

usually manifested by sudden, severe dyspnea, chills, chest pain, fever, and cough

consolidation or pleural effusion

Usually evident within the first week of treatment and reversible when drug discontinued
Resolution often is dramatic

37
Q

Drug interactions of Nitrofurantion (Macrobid)?

A

none

38
Q

Nitrofurantion (Macrobid)
Pregnancy cat?
Except…

Lactation?

A

B
contraindicated at term (38-42) due to the possibility of causing hemolytic anemia in the newborn due to immature erythrocytes

Dont use

39
Q

Due to concerns for pulmonary toxicity who do we not use Nitrofurantion (Macrobid) in?
2

A

Avoid use in older adults

Avoid using for long term suppression of infection

40
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

treats what kind of infections?

A

Anti-Anerobic

41
Q

Describe the metabolism of Metronidazole (Flagyl)?

Absorption?

Distribution?

A

Metabolized by the liver
Adjust dose with a history of liver failure

Absorbed well PO

Good tissue penetration in most locations

42
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl) MOA?

A

Inhibitor of bacterial protein synthesis.

-Causes DNA strand breakage therefore inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

43
Q

Spectrum of activity for Metronidazole (Flagyl) MOA?

Treatment of choice for:
4

A

Good activity against gram positive and negative anaerobes
Helicobacter pylori
Trichomonas vaginalis

Anerobic infections

Bacterial vaginosis

Trichomoniasis

C. difficile diarrhea

44
Q

What dosage forms does Metronidazole (Flagyl) come in?

4

A

Oral
IV
Topical (roseacea)
Intravaginal

45
Q

BBW for Metronidazole (Flagyl) ?

A

carcinogenic in mice and rats (see PRECAUTIONS). Unnecessary use of the drug should be avoided.

46
Q

Most common side effects of Metronidazole (Flagyl)?
3

Ones we should look out for/more dangerous?
3

A

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and metallic taste

Seizures (high doses)
Peripheral neuropathy (prolonged courses)
Pancreatitis
47
Q

Drug interactions for Metronidazole (Flagyl)?

2

A

Enhances anticoagulant effect of warfarin

Alcohol!!!!!
Flushing, palpitations, nausea, vomiting

Inhibitor of CYP34A so potential for many drug interactions

48
Q

What drugs would increase the metabolism of metronidazole which decreases the serum concentration and may lead to treatment failure?
3

A

Phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin