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MH-60R H2P > Miscellaneous > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Head Check

A

Blade lock pins- engaged
Pitch lock pins- retracted
Gust lock- disengaged

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2
Q

Note: A head check shall be completed any time ______.

A

the BLADEFOLD switch is moved from the off position

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3
Q

Note: When performing CHIP IBIT, 28 Vdc is interruped. WCAs and master caution lights will not correctly respond for _______.

A

approximately 40 seconds

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4
Q

Successful RADALT test indicated by:

A

RAD ALT tone (5 plus or minus 1), indicator reading 100 plus or minus 10 for approx. 5 seconds, and yellow tape illuminated up to DH setting or 100 feet, whichever is lower.

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5
Q

Successful Comm/Nav test indicated by:

A

BRG 1 needle swinging 180 degrees (plus or minus 3) for 5 seconds, DME indicated of 0.0 nm (plus or minus .5nm), NAV needle centering within half a dot, and T0(180)/ FROM (000) indication.

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6
Q

With the collective in the full up position and the cyclic at the forward left corner of its movement envelope, a ratcheting may be felt through the cyclic and airframe and heard in the cockpit as the cyclic is moved to the right. This normal ratcheting of the ___________________ will only occur at the specific flight control orientation and movement listed above.

A

uniball bearing on the star guide assembly

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7
Q

While holding the collective in the full up position and teh tail rotor pedals neutral, the cyclic shall be moved in a square pattern. Any ____________ may be indicative of an extended pitch lock

A

restriction of the full range of motion

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8
Q

Ratcheting or binding with the flight controls at any other position than the collective full up and cyclic at the forward left corner indicates___________

A

an unassociated control problem or deterioration of the Teflon coating on the uniball bearing.

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9
Q

AFCS Ground Check. What are you looking for each step

A

SAS 1 pushbutton- on for 10 seconds, then off. SAS fao; advisory lights and AFCS DEGRADED caution should not appear during self test.

SAS 1 pushbutton- on then off. NO movement should occur in the rotor blades. Minimal movement in flight controls is acceptable. Repeat step for SAS 2

TRIM- on then off. Minimal movement in flight controls is acceptable. Check trim in all axes.

AUTOPILOT- SAS 1, SAS 2, TRIM on

Autopilot PBS- on then off. No movement should occur in flight controls.

Autopilot PBS- move controls through full range of motion. Check for restrictions, control feedback, and chatter.

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10
Q

Helicopters shall not be flown if the stabilator fails any check involving___________

A

manual operation, position indications, or warnings.

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11
Q

If stab auto mode fails to engage, _____________ may align the stab actuators and allow stab auto mode to engage.

A

slewing the stabilator full up then full down with ac power

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12
Q

Np shaft rub occurs due to ___________. When the rotor brake is released, ______________ causing compressor blades to impact the casing.

A

asymmetric heating of the Np shaft by a hot engine, the Np shaft impacts the Ng shaft

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13
Q

Why do we “position and hold flight controls” for engine start?

A

There is a caution that says: Loss of the collective boost servo will cause the collective to move rapidly from the down position to midposition and may cause the helicopter to become airborne.

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14
Q

Is colder oil more or less viscous?

A

It is more viscous. Starting the engine in cold temperatures may cause an OIL FILTER BYPASS caution due to the pressure differential.

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15
Q

Starting or securing the main generators sumultaneously may result in ____________ that causes the generators to trip off line.

A

the Generator Control Units detecting a fault condition

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16
Q

Failure of an engine to automatically relight when both OVSP TEST A AND B are pressed simultaneously is possible. The engine should be restarted using normal procedures and the check should be performed again. If the engine automatically relights on the second attempt, the engine is acceptable. If the engine fails the test twice consecutively, __________.

A

maintenance action is required

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17
Q

Warning: resetting a popped ____________ in flight may initiate an engine overspeed signal and result in engine flameout.

A

NO. 1 and/or NO. 2 ENG OVSP

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18
Q

Note: When pressing OVSP TEST A and B simultaneously, do not press and hold buttons continuously, as this may result in __________.

A

a sub-idle relight and engine overtemperature.

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19
Q

Note: upon selecting C-Pwer, a rapid change in TGT may be indicative of _______

A

an engine control system malfunction

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20
Q

HYD Leak Test Indications

A

1 RSVR LOW, #2 RSVR LOW, BACK UP RSVR LOW

BOOST SERVO OFF, SAS, AFCS DEGRADED

MASTER CAUTION!!! During this check it is normal for collective and tail rotor pedals to move slightly.

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21
Q

How is Np sensed? Torque?

A

Two Np sensors are located on the top of the exhaust frame.

The power turbine shaft is equipped with two pairs of teeth, which induce electrical pulses in the Np sensors. These teeth permit measurement of the torsion or twist of the shaft which is proportional to output torque, by producing a pulse of electrical current each time a shaft or reference tooth passes.

The sensors are identical and interchangeable, but serve different functions. The left signal provides Np signal to the EDECU. The right signal provides torque computation circuit and Np overspeed protection. The electrical signal, conditioned in the EDECU, provides a dc voltage proportional to torque for cockpit indication and use by various engine subsystems.

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22
Q

How is Ng sensed?

A

The alternator supplies an Ng signal to the vertical instruments in the cockpit

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23
Q

How is TGT sensed? What is the note?

A

The thermocouple harness consists of seven thermocouples for measuring TGT, The thermocouples are joined in parallel and provide ann average output that is provided to the EDECU. The TGT signal is biased -71 degrees C by the EDECU then relayed to the TGT vertical instruments.

Note: If the EDECU is not powered by either the alternator or airframe power through the ENG OVSP circuit breaker, the -71 degrees C bias will be absent and TGT will indicate 71 degrees higher than expected.

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24
Q

Primary and Secondary Missions of MH60R

A

Primary: Surface Warfare (SUW), Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW), Electronic Warfare (EW), Command and Control (CC), and Non-Combat Operations (NCO)

Secondary: Amphibious warfare (AMW, eg. Naval Surface Fire Support), Air Warfare (AW, eg. LSF), Health Services (HS, eg. MEDEVAC), Fleet Support Operations (FS-O, eg. SAR), Intelligence (INT, eg. ISR), Logistics (LOG, eg. VERTREP), and Naval Special Warfare (NSW)

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25
Q

LSF Escort Position

A

Bearing 240-250, 200-300 feet step up, 400 meter displacement

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26
Q

When do you get ENG SPEED LOW caution?

A

ENG SPEED LOW will display when Np is at or below 96% for greater than 2.0 seconds.

27
Q

How much does TGT increase when ENG anti-ice switch is turned on?

A

30-100 degrees C

28
Q

All stores jet sequence

A

Depression of the ALL STORE JETT pushbutton with weight off wheels jettisons the following:

  1. Sonobuoys.
  2. Left Inboard Station (released first).
  3. Right Inboard Station (released second).
  4. Left Outboard Station (released third).
  5. Right Outboard Station (released fourth).
29
Q

How long does the all stores jet sequence take?

A

It is completed within 7 seconds

30
Q

Vertrep power margin

A

NATOPS= 6% torque margin

SOP= 10% power margin shall exist between IRP and max power required when a load is lifted from the deck

31
Q

Qualified observer (NATOPS CH 5)

A

A qualified observer is an individual who has met all of the minimum aeromedical and survival requirements for indoctrination flights set forth in CNAF M-3710.7 and has been thoroughly briefed in accordance with Qualified Observer Brief in Chapter 6.

32
Q

Minimum crew requirements (NATOPS CH 5) ps don’t forget the note

A
  1. Non-tactical/familiarization flights — Two H2Ps or one HAC and a qualified observer.
  2. Functional checkflights — One FCP, one qualified observer, and one aircrewman or TFO crewmember.
  3. Orientation flights — One HAC, one qualified observer, and one aircrewman.
  4. Utility missions (passenger and cargo transport, ferry flights, etc.) — One HAC, one PQM, and one aircrewman.
  5. SAR missions — One HAC, one PQM, one MH-60R aircrewman, and one H-60 search and rescue aircrewman.
  6. SUW/ASW missions — One HAC, one ATO, and one Sensor Operator.

Note Squadron commanding officers are authorized to grant waivers of aircrew qualification requirements when the experience of the individual warrants such action.

33
Q

Min crew requirements for air capable ships

A

Day VMC flights shall include a minimum of two H2Ps and one helicopter aircrewman, or one HAC, one qualified observer, and one helicopter aircrewman. Night or IMC flights shall include a minimum of one HAC, one PQM, and one helicopter aircrewman.

34
Q

Min crew requirements for INST flights

A

In addition to the requirements set forth in CNAF M-3710.7, flightcrew for planned instrument flight shall consist of one HAC and one Designated Naval Aviator (DNA) or two H2Ps. Flights in which IMC conditions are simulated through visually restrictive devices shall include a qualified observer in the cabin area. All pilots must hold a valid instrument rating with the exception of the DNA who is receiving instrument refresher training, or if on an instrument checkflight.

35
Q

With the ECS on and the FLOW switch in NORM, maximum torque available is reduced by ___ percent per engine and fuel flow to each engine will increase by approximately ___ pounds per hour.

A

4, 8

36
Q

With the TEMP rotary switch in HOT and OAT below _____ maximum torque available is reduced by ___ percent per engine.

A

15 degrees C, 5

37
Q

With the FLOW switch in HIGH, maximum torque available is reduced by __ percent per engine and fuel flow increases approximately ___ pounds per hour per engine.

A

7, 45

38
Q

Recovery from LTE

A
  1. Altitude permitting, lowering the collective to reduce torque and assist in arresting right yaw; however, if a significant rate of descent is established, the additional power required to arrest the rate of descent may aggravate or reinitiate loss of tail rotor effectiveness.
  2. Using forward cyclic to increase airspeed and, if necessary, turning in the direction of rotation. This results in a reduction in tail rotor thrust required and produces a streamlining effect.
  3. At very low speeds or in a hover, applying full left pedal may arrest the right yaw. Understand that the control inputs may take several seconds/revolutions to take effect partially due to the effects of momentum and ambient conditions. Neutralizing the pedals, adding right pedal, or increasing collective will only accelerate the yaw rate.
39
Q

Types of LTE

A 
T/R AOA Reduction: 060-120
Weather Vaning: 120-240
T/R Vortex Ring State: 210-330
M/R Disc Vortex: 280-330
Loss of Translational Lift
40
Q

When is a translational lift-induced vibration felt?

A

Approximately 15 kts

41
Q

How fast do MR blade tips move?

A

725 feet per second or Mach 0.65

42
Q

When is the helo in ground effect?

A

A helicopter is said to be in “ground effect” when the rotor disk is within one rotor diameter of the ground.

The MH-60R is considered to be hovering in ground effect at radar altimeter altitudes at or below 45 feet.

43
Q

When does translational lift start and end?

A

As the airspeed reaches approximately 17 knots, a noticeable vibration will be felt as the aircraft encounters its own ground vortex. The ground vortex is rolled up under the aircraft as speed continues to increase and dissipates as the aircraft reaches approximately 30 knots.

44
Q

Stab programming benchmarks in Ch 10

A

STAB POS indication should begin moving up at approximately 30 KIAS.

STAB POS indication should be approximately 25° by 60 KIAS.

45
Q

When can you break NATOPS? Preface p57

A

No manual can address every situation completely or be a substitute for sound judgment.

46
Q

What do INS and GPS each provide?

A

INS: Attitude, heading, acceleration, velocity, position

GPS: Velocity, position, time

47
Q

What EGI is required for coupled approach and hover function?

A

Valid heading and velocity data from EGI 2 is required for coupled approach and hover function.

48
Q

Which alignment can you not do an automatic approach and hover coupler with?

A

A GC or SH alignment provides valid velocities to the AFCC. A DG alignment does not provide velocities to the AFCC. Without valid velocity inputs to the AFCC, hover coupler and auto approach are not available.

49
Q

The APU does not incorporate _________. An uncontained APU failure may result in injury to ground personnel and/or damage to flight critical components including the tail rotor drive shaft.

A

a compressor or turbine wheel containment device

50
Q

Why can we only carry 3 passengers with 5 seats?

A

Warning: In the event of a crash, the SO console seat poses a head strike hazard to passengers in both the port rear seat and center rear seat. If the port rear seat or center rear seat is occupied, the SO console seat shall be unoccupied and secured in the full forward position.

51
Q

The _______ shall be removed if RAST probe is installed. The RAST probe prevents_______ in the event of a crash.

A

center rear seat; proper stroking of the seat

52
Q

Starboard D

A

045-110 radials. 1-3NM. 300ft and below

53
Q

Port Delta

A

225-315 radials. 3-5NM

54
Q

Cabin PIU

A

The cabin PIU interfaces the MC with the pilot and copilot HCUs, nose bay MTS interlock switches, ACI, CMP, collective ASE switches and controls, and MTS power control. It is located on the SO station port side panel.

55
Q

LOB PIU

A

The left outboard (LOB) PIU interfaces the MC with SDC power controls, BRU-14, and torpedo interfaces for that station. It also interfaces the HCU release consent with the M299 missile launcher or the LAU-61 rocket pod. It is located in the LHEP.

56
Q

LIB PIU

A

The left inboard (LIB) PIU interfaces the MC with the SDC power controls, fuel switch, BRU-14, and torpedo interfaces for that station, and the sonobuoy launcher. It is located in the transition section, on the port side avionics shelf.

57
Q

RIB PIU

A

The right inboard (RIB) PIU interfaces the MC with the SDC power controls, fuel switch, BRU-14, and torpedo interfaces for that station, and ASE systems. It is located in the transition section, on the starboard side avionics shelf.

58
Q

ROB PIU

A

The right outboard (ROB) PIU interfaces the MC with SDC power controls, BRU-14, and torpedo interfaces for that station. It also interfaces the HCU release consent with the M299 missile launcher or the LAU-61 rocket pod. It is located in the RHEP.

59
Q

What is AVCS

A

The Active Vibration Control System (AVCS) attenuates the magnitude and reduces the duration of the peak vibratory loads produced by the main rotor at the main rotor blade passage vibration frequency. (4p vibes)

60
Q

How many feedback accelerometers are part of AVCS?

A

10

61
Q

How many force generators are part of AVCS

A

5

62
Q

When landing site is a combination of cross slope and up or down slope, use the ______ landing limit. Be prepared to execute a combination of control inputs to maintain stability.

A

Most restrictive

63
Q

What is required to conduct a one or two wheel landing?

A

Operational necessity

MH-60R H2P (21 decks)

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