CNAF Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

Actual Instrument Approach

A

When actual instrument conditions are encountered below 1,000 feet above the airport/flight deck elevation during an instrument approach

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2
Q

Actual Instrument Conditions

A

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight that do not permit visual reference to the horizon

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3
Q

Aerobatic Flight Maneuvers

A

An intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in aircraft attitude. Pitch/dive angles greater than 60 degrees, bank angles greater than 45 degrees, or accelerations greater than 2 G’s.

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4
Q

Aircraft Commander Time

A

The individual flight time during which an individual, designated as a qualified aircraft commander in the aircraft model being flown, is serving as pilot in command. Aircraft commander time is a measure of command experience rather than of pilot experience.

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5
Q

Aircraft Model

A

The basic mission symbol and design number (P-3, H-60 etc.)

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6
Q

Aircraft Series

A

The specific version of aircraft within the same model (H-60R)

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7
Q

Aircraft Type

A

The broadest classification of aircraft as to physical characteristics (i.e. fixed wing, rotary wing, or tilt-rotor)

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8
Q

Aircrew

A

A collective term that applies to all categories of personnel in a flight status either as crew or noncrewmember. Aircrew are military personnel on competent flight orders or civilian personnel whose duties require frequent and regular participation in aerial flights to perform inflight functions.

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9
Q

Advisory Control

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit in which the pilot receives directions and recommendations. Aircraft commanders are not relieved of responsibility for their own safety and navigation.

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10
Q

Close Control

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit, whereby the pilot receives orders affecting aircraft movements. The pilot will not deviate from controller instructions unless given permission or unless circumstances require immediate action for the safety of flight. In either case, the pilot will inform the controller of the action taken. This type of control requires two-way communication and radar contact.

Pilot must be informed whenever the aircraft is not held on the radarscope for periods in excess of 1 mintue or five sweeps of the radar and, as a result, is being dead reckoned. Ultimate safety of the aircraft is the responsibility of the pilot.

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11
Q

Positive Control

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit, whereby the pilot receives orders affecting aircraft movements that transfer responsibility for the safe navigation of the aircraft to the unit issuing such orders. The ultimate safety of the aircraft is the responsibility of the pilot.

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12
Q

Controlling Custodian

A

The command exercising administrative control of assignment, employment, and logistic support of aircraft.

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13
Q

Crew Resource Management

A

The use of specifically defined behavioral skills as an integral part of every flight to improve mission effectiveness by minimizing crew preventable errors, maximizing crew coordination, and optimizing risk management.

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14
Q

Cross-Country Flight

A

A flight that either does not remain in the local flying area or remains in the local flying area and terminates at a facility other than an active military facility.

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15
Q

Designation

A

A one time occurrence and remains in effect until removed for cause.

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16
Q

Flight

A
  1. For operational purposes, a flight is one or more aircraft proceeding on a common mission
  2. (Fixed Wing)
  3. For helicopters, a flight begins when the aircraft lifts from a rest point or commences ground taxi and ends after airborne flight when the rotors are disengaged or the aircraft has been stationary for 5 minutes with rotors engaged.
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17
Q

Flight Clearance

A

A flight clearance provides temporary flight operating limits for an aviation system operating in a nonstandard configuration or to a nonstandard envelope, pending issuance of the technical directive or change to the NATOPS, NATIP, or tactical manuals. A flight clearance is a temporary airworthiness approval from COMMNAVAIRSYSCOM.

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18
Q

Flight Time

A

The elapsed time computed in accordance with the definition of flight. Flight time is logged in hours and tenths of hours and is creditable to the aircraft, personnel aboard, and equipment.

19
Q

Formation Flight

A

A flight of more than one aircraft operating by prior arrangement as a single aircraft with regard to altitude, navigation, and position reporting, and where separation between aircraft within the flights rests with pilots in that flight

20
Q

Hazard

A

A condition with potential to cause personal injury or death, property damage, or mission degradation

21
Q

Instrument Meteorological Conditions

A

IMC conditions exist anytime a visible horizon is not distinguishable

22
Q

Instrument Time

A

The portion of pilot time in either day or night under actual or simulated instrument conditions.

  1. Actual instrument time will be logged by both pilots in a dual/multipiloted aircraft during flight in actual instrument conditions
  2. Simulated instrument time shall be logged only by the pilot actually manipulating the controls
23
Q

Local Flying Area

A

That area in the vicinity of an air installation in which locally-based aircraft can operate during an average/typical sorties flight time. The local flying area shall not exceed 350 miles from an air installation and be designated as such in the Air Operations Manual by the Commanding Officer. In so far as practicable, local flying areas shall be bounded by prominent terrain features and/or air navigation aid radials/distances.

24
Q

Mission Commander Time

A

Flight time during which an individual, designated as a qualified mission commander in the aircraft model being flown, is serving as the mission commander. Mission commander time is a measure of command experience rather than flight experience.

25
Q

Multipiloted Aircraft

A

Any aircraft having two sets of controls and instruments and operated by two pilots, both of who meet the requirements of the NATOPS manual for that model aircraft.

26
Q

Night Time

A

The portion of pilot time during darkness
(i.e., between the official time of sunset and sunrise (on
the surface below the aircraft in flight), regardless of
whether visual or instrument conditions exist).

27
Q

Officer in Tactical Command

A

The senior officer present eligible to assume command, or the officer to whom he has delegated tactical command.

28
Q

Official Business

A

The necessity to contact personnel, units, or organizations for the purpose of conducting
transactions in the service of and in the interest of the
United States Government. This definition does not
authorize the use of official business only airfields, their
services, or other items attendant to itinerant operations when making en route stops while proceeding to an airfield at which official business is to be conducted. Official business only restrictions do not preclude the use of the facility as an alternate during instrument flight rule (IFR) conditions.

29
Q

Operational Necessity

A

A mission associated with war or peacetime operations in which the consequences of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of aircraft
and crew.

30
Q

Operational Risk Management

A

The process of dealing with the risk associated with military operations, which include risk assessment, risk decision making and implementation of effective risk controls.

31
Q

Orientation Flight

A

A continuous-flight in DOD aircraft performed within the local flying area and terminating at the point of origin intended to further the understanding of particular programs concerning the roles and missions of the Department of Defense.

32
Q

Passenger

A
An individual who is not part of the aircrew
traveling in an aircraft designed or normally configured
for passenger (non-aircrew) carrying capability on a
point-to-point flight.
33
Q

Pilot in Command

A

The pilot assigned responsibility for safe and orderly conduct of the flight

34
Q

Reporting Custodian

A

An organizational unit of the lowest echelon of command accepting responsibility (involving accountability to CNO) for aircraft as designated either by CNO or by the controlling custodian of the aircraft.

35
Q

Risk

A

An expression of possible loss in terms of severity

and probability.

36
Q

Simulated Instrument Approach

A

An instrument approach flown under simulated instrument conditions

37
Q

Simulated Instrument Conditions

A

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight are VMC, but the pilot vision is limited primarily to the interior of the aircraft.

38
Q

Visual Meteorological Conditions

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, cloud distance, and ceiling that are equal to or better than specified minimums

39
Q

Landing

A

A return to the surface; landings include touch and go (providing the landing gear touches the surface), bolter, forced, or crash.

40
Q

Oceanic

A

A situation where an aircraft has no radio communication and is greater than 250 nm from the nearest navaid.

41
Q

Qualified in model

A

A designation that indicates the minimum requirements for qualification in a specific crew position, as set forth in the appropriate NATOPS manual, have been attained. Such designations are a one-time occurrence (per unit/command tour) and remain in effect until removed for cause. Annual NATOPS evaluations should not be confused with or combined with these designations. If specific aircraft model NATOPS guidance is lacking, an individual shall be considered qualified in model for specific crew position when so designated by the reporting custodian.

42
Q

Single-piloted

A

Any aircraft that has only one set of flight controls or a tandem cockpit, or any aircraft that has two sets of flight controls and instruments and is being operated by only one pilot who meets the requirements of the NATOPS manual for that model aircraft.

43
Q

Stereo route

A

Routinely used route of flight established by users and ARTCC identified by a coded name. These routes simplify flight plan handling and communications.