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OCS > Miscellaneous > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the Five types of Incontinence

A
  1. Stress- Involuntary loss during exertion
  2. Urge- Loss with Urgency
  3. Mixed- Both Stress and Urge
  4. Overflow- Overfull bladder
  5. Reflex- Present with Neurologic Lesions
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2
Q

What is the Female Athlete Triad?

A
  • Eating Disorders
  • Ammenorhea
  • Osteoporosis
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3
Q

Define Independent and Dependent Variable

A
  • Independent Variable- The Variable manipulated by the researcher
  • Dependent Variable- The Variable Measured by the researcher
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4
Q

Define Measurement Validity

A
  • An indication of whether the measurement is an accurate representation of the phenomenon of interest
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5
Q

Describe a Between Subjects/ Completely Randomized design

A
  • A Single Independent Variable is used and assigns different groups of subjects to each level of that variable
  • Each individual subject is measured on only one level of the independent variable (Three Different Braces)
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6
Q

Describe a Within Subjects/ Repeated Measures Design

A
  • Uses a single independent variable and measures each subject under all levels of that variable
  • Each subject measured on all levels (Medication doses of 200, 400, 600 mg)
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7
Q

Describe a Factorial Design

A
  • Uses two or more independent variables
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8
Q

Describe as Completely Randomized Factorial Design

A
  • Uses Two or more independent variables and each subject is tested at only one level of each variable
  • If two variables and three levels each, would require 9 groups of subjects
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9
Q

Describe a Within Subjects Factorial Design

A
  • Measures each subject in all levels of all variables
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10
Q

Describe a Mixed Factorial Design

A
  • Measures at least one of the variables at only one level and at least one of the variables in all levels
  • Combination of between subjects and repeated measures
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11
Q

When is a correlation coefficient used?

A
  • To learn about the association between two variables

- (relationship between thigh girth and knee extensor force)

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12
Q

When is a Regression Analysis used?

A
  • When the question concerns prediction

- (If the pnt has 50-60 deg ROM the second day after surgery, how much longer will he remain in the hospital?)

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13
Q

When would you use a Chi Square, ANOVA, or t-test?

A
  • To question whether a treatment has an effect

- (Does Spinal traction reduce the symptoms of root compression?)

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14
Q

What is Sensitivity?

A
  • The proportion of patients with a disorder who also have a positive clinical test
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15
Q

What is Specificity?

A
  • The proportion of patients without the disorder who also have a negative clinical test
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16
Q

How do you calculate Positive Likelihood Ratios?

A
  • Sensitivity divided by 1 minus the Specificity
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17
Q

How do you Calculate Negative Likelihood Ratio?

A
  • 1- Sensitivity divided by the Specificity
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18
Q

What is Number Needed to Treat and how do you calculate it?

A
  • The number of people who need to be treated to affect a change in one person
  • One - Control Group divided by Experiment Group
  • Control Group and Experiment group are numbers of people per group who did not respond to the treatment
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19
Q

Briefly Describe the Convex-Concave rule

A
  • Convex on Concave - Opposite Directions

- Concave on Convex - Same Directions

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20
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A
  • Symmetric Arthritis of small joints in hand (except for DIPs)
  • Same in the Wrists, Feet, And Knees all with morning stiffness
  • Rheumatoid Factor may be present
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21
Q

What X Ray changes occur with Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A
  • Periarticular Osteopenia occurs first
  • Erosions may develop at joint margins
  • Loss of Joint Space, malalignment, and progressive Osteopenia
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22
Q

What are the most common hand deformities in RA?

A
  • Swan Neck
  • Boutoniere
  • Ulnar Deviation at MCPs
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23
Q

What are the types of Juvenile RA?

A
  • Pauciarticular- Involving < or equal to 4 joints- Most Common
  • Polyarticular- Similar in Nature to Adult RA
  • Systemic Onset- Fever, Arthritis, Rash, and other organ involvement
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24
Q

What are some common blood tests to diagnose RA?

A
  • Rheumatoid Factor (Sensitive)

- Anti CCP Ab- Anticyclic Citrullinated peptide Antibodies (Specific)

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25
Q

What areas of the spine are affected by RA?

A
  • The Synovium of the Odontoid Process and The Transverse Ligament that holds C2 to C1 via the Dens
  • RA can lead to Axis Joint Instability
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26
Q

What is a Darrach Procedure and when is it indicated?

A
  • Excision of the Distal Ulna
  • For relief of pain following distal RU disruption and/or RU arthritis
  • Typically used in the elderly with low physical demands
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27
Q

Describe Typical Lupus Arthtitis

A
  • Arthralgia without visible joint swelling
  • When inflammation present, typically involves small joints of hands
  • Arthritis is not erosive (unlike RA) although joint deformities may be seen
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28
Q

Name the Seronegative Arthropathies

A
  • Ankylosing Spondylitis
  • Reiter Syndrome
  • Psoriatic Arthritis
  • Arthritis associated with inflammatory Bowel Disease
  • These have an increased incidence of HLAB27 but negative in Rheumatoid Factor and Anti Nuclear Antibody
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29
Q

What is Reiter Syndrome?

A
  • A Seronegative arthropathy that is triggered by infection, typically Chlamydia, Shigella, or Yersinia
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30
Q

Name some typical findings of Ankylosing Spondylitis

A
  • Onset in late teens to 20s
  • Insidious in nature
  • Increase pain with rest
  • Decreased pain with Activity
  • +++Stiffness
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31
Q

What causes Gout and Pseudogout?

A
  • Gout- Uric Acid Crystals in Synovial Joints

- Pseudogout- Calcium Pyrophosphate

32
Q

What is a typical onset of Gout?

A
  • Begin with sudden onset of burning pain
  • Often Starts at Night
  • Joint appears red, Swollen, and hot to touch
  • Usually resolve within 7-10 days with RICE and NSAIDs
33
Q

How is definitive diagnosis of Gout or Psuedogout made?

A
  • Examination of joint fluid under Microscope
34
Q

What is differential Diagnosis of a single, red, hot joint?

A
  • Infection
  • Gout
  • PsuedoGout
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Seronegative Arthropathy
35
Q

What is Virchows Triad?

A
  • Classic pathogenesis for Deep Vein Thrombosis
  • Endothelial Damage
  • Alteration in Blood Flow
  • Hypercoagulability
36
Q

What are some symptoms of DVT?

A
  • Calf Pain
  • Swelling
  • Warmth
  • Low Grade Fever
  • Palpable Cord and Pain along the course of the involved nerve
37
Q

What is Homans Sign?

A
  • Calf Pain with Forced passive dorsiflexion

- uses to assess for DVT

38
Q

What are some common signs and symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism?

A
  • Pleuritic Chest Pain and Dyspnea
  • Tachycardia
  • Bulging Neck Veins
39
Q

At what levels is the International Normalized Ration (INR) usually kept in order to prevent DVT?

A
  • Between 2 and 3
40
Q

What is Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (RSD)?

A
  • Syndrome in which pain is out of proportion with injury and is characterized by Autonomic Dysregulation
41
Q

Describe the signs of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (RSD)

A
  • Burning Type Pain
  • Trophic Changes
  • Allodynia or pain with stimulus that does not normally cause pain
42
Q

What NMES settings should be used after Knee Surgery to help the quadriceps recover?

A
  • 2500 Hz alternating current
  • 75 bursts per second
  • 2 second ramp up and down
  • 10 second stimulation with 50 second rest
43
Q

Describe some settings of Ultrasound

A
  • Non Thermal- between .1 and .3 W/cm2
  • Thermal- Above .3 W/cm2
  • Deeper Penetration- 1MHz
  • Shallow Pentration- 3 MHz
44
Q

How do NSAIDs work?

A
  • Inhibit the Synthesis of Prostaglandins
  • Prostaglandin Biosynthesis is catalyzed within the cell by the COX enxyme
  • NSAIDs inhibit the COX Enzyme so no Prostaglandin can be produced
45
Q

What are PPV and NPV?

A
  • Positive Predictive Value- the percentage of persons with a positive test result who actually have the disesae
  • Negative Predictive Value- The percentage of people with a negative test result who do not have the disease
46
Q

What is Horner Syndrome?

A
  • An interruption of sympathetic nervous system innvervation to the head and face
47
Q

What are common signs and symptoms of Horner Syndrome?

A
  • Ptosis- Droopy Eyelid
  • Miosis- Constricted pupil
  • Anhidrosis- Absence of sweat production
  • All on the affected side of the face only
48
Q

What are some common tests used to diagnose Developmental Dysplasia of the hips in infants?

A
  • Ortolani Sign
  • Barlows Test
  • Galeazzi sign
49
Q

How is Developmental Dysplasia of the hips treated?

A
  • 1.5 years- usually need open surgical reduction
50
Q

What are some Brachial Plexus Palsies seen in infants?

A
  • Erb-Duchenne Palsy (C5-6) (Best Prognosis)
  • Klumpkes Palsy (C8-T1) (Worse Prognosis)
  • Complete Plexus Palsy (worst prognosis)
51
Q

What is Osteochondritis Dissecans and How is it Treated?

A
  • Necrotic Bone Lesion
  • Most common in knee in teenagers
  • Diagnosed with Radiology
  • Treatment is casting x 2-3 months, but if loose body present surgery is required
52
Q

What is Osgood Schlatters and How is it Treated?

A
  • Traction Apophysitis of the Tibial Tubercle in Skeletally immature patients
  • Treated with RICE, NSAIDs, Activity Modification and Stretching/Strengthening
  • Condition is self limiting and often resolves with skeletal maturity
53
Q

What is Sinding Larsen Johanssen Syndrome?

A
  • Traction Apophysitis of the Distal Patellar Pole
54
Q

What is Legg Calve Perthes and How is it Treated?

A
  • Idiopathic Avascular Necrosis of the Femoral Head
  • Often seen in 4-12 year olds, more in boys
  • Treated with ROM into Abduction, maintaining the involved portion of the femoral head in the acetabulum
  • Sometimes Surgical procedure is required (Salters Osteotomy, Femoral Osteotomy)
55
Q

What is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis and How is it Treated?

A
  • Displacement of the Capital Femoral Epiphysis
  • Often in obese boys, 10-16 years old
  • Limited Internal Rotation at Hip
  • Treatment usually require screw fixation
56
Q

What is Nursemaids Elbow?

A
  • Dislocation of the Radial Head from the Annular Ligament

- Reduction achieved with Supination

57
Q

What are most common locations for plantar ulcers in patients with diabetes?

A
  • First Metatarsal head
  • Fifth Metatarsal Head
  • Great Toe
58
Q

What is the Arcade of Frohse, and why is it clinically relevant?

A
  • It is a fibrous arch and part of the supinator muscle in the forearm
  • The radial nerve passes through this fibrous arch before becoming the Posterior Interosseous Branch
  • This is a site of nerve entrapment and will present clinically with finger drop (MP joints)
59
Q

What is Meralgia Parasthetica?

A
  • Compression of the Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve of the Thigh
  • Usually from tight clothing or heavy tool belt
60
Q

How does an Obturator Nerve Entrapment Present?

A
  • They are rare
  • Usually occur after traumatic event such as childbirth or pelvic trauma
  • Weakness of the Adductors and may or may not have sensation loss to medial thigh
61
Q

How does Saphenous Nerve Entrapment present?

A
  • Pain in the knee and usually without sensory loss to medial leg
  • Pain can be ellicited with palpation of entrapment site between the Sartorious and Gracilis
62
Q

What sites can the Fibular Nerve be entrapped?

A
  • Popliteal Space behind Knee
  • Fibular Head
  • Anterior Compartment (as Deep Fibular)
  • Lateral Compartment (as Superficial Fibular)
63
Q

What are Signs of Superficial Sensory Fibular Nerve Entrapment?

A
  • Occurs after the innervation of Fibularis Muscles, nerve is purely cutaneous
  • Loss of Sensation to Distal leg and Dorsum of the Foot
64
Q

How is Deep Fibular Nerve most often injured?

A
  • Anterior Compartment Syndrome

- Treated with Fasciotomy

65
Q

What is Anterior Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?

A
  • Entrapment of the Deep Fibular Nerve at the ankle as it passes deep to the inferior extensor retinaculum
  • Occurs in Skiers, Runners, etc who wear tight fitting boots/shoes
  • Sensation to 1st web space and Motor to EDB and EHB
66
Q

What is Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?

A
  • Compression of the Tibial Nerve as it passes through the Posterior Tarsal Tunnel
  • Pain, Parasthesias pattern consistent with one or both of the plantar nerves
67
Q

What are the contents of the Tarsal Tunnel?

A
  • Tibialis Posterior
  • Flexor Digitorum Longus
  • Flexor Hallucis Longus
  • Posterior Tibial Nerve, Artery, Vein
  • Tom Dick And Very Nervous Harry
68
Q

Describe Peripheral Neuropathy (Polyneuropathy)

A
  • Causes include Toxicity, Alcoholism, Nutritional Deficiencies and Systemic Infection or Disease
  • Stocking Glove pattern of sensory loss, often affects most distal nerves first (feet then hands)
69
Q

What are some common causes of Clubbing and Cyanosis?

A
  • Heart Failure

- Lung Failure

70
Q

What is Bells Palsy?

A
  • Idiopathic Unilateral Facial Nerve Paralysis
  • Hallmark Sign is paralysis that is of rapid onset and typically occurs overnight
  • Usually Self Limiting
71
Q

What are some factors that might precipitate Gout Flare Up?

A
  • Diet heavy in Meat and Seafood
  • Heavy Alcohol Consumption, especially beer
  • Aspirin Use
  • Use of Diuretics
  • High Blood Pressure
  • Chronic Kidney Disease
72
Q

What are some Symptoms of Hiatal Hernia?

A
  • Heartburn and Chest Pain
  • Often confused with Heart Attack
  • Can be diagnosed with barium swallow and x ray
73
Q

What is Best VO2 usage to mobilize fat vs carbohydrate?

A
  • < 30% VO2 Max uses mostly fat

- > 70% VO2 Max uses carbohydrate

74
Q

What are some visceral pain referrals of the cervical spine?

A
  • liver
  • pancreas
  • perforated duodenal ulcer
75
Q

What are some visceral pain referral sites of the thoracic spine?

A
  • gastroesophegeal reflux
  • cholecystitis
  • penetrating duodenal ulcer
76
Q

What are some visceral pain referrals sites of the Lumbosacral spine?

A
  • pancreatitis
  • rectal lesions
  • renal colic

OCS (13 decks)

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