Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

At a minimum, a CIP contains______________. (3)

A
  • Prioritized list of projects
  • cost estimates for each project
  • year-by-year funding sources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The first scheduled year of a CIP functions as the annual capital budget for the city or county.

True or False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The CIP process is always led by the chief administrator or a financial manager.

A

False. In some states, the local planning commission is explicitly responsible for preparing the CIP or reviewing the CIP for consistency with the local comprehensive plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

There are three common barriers to grayfield reuse or redevelopment

A
  • Physical obsolescence
  • Economic obsolescence
  • Regulatory obsolescence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

There are two relatively common zoning strategies to facilitate grayfield reuse or redevelopment

A
  • Special zoning districts often provide incentives and/or ease requirements like parking, providing density bonuses, or allowing developers to leave existing nonconformities unmodified.
  • “Dark store” or “ghost box” provisions for new development that remove barriers to adaptive reuse or redevelopment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Micro-fulfillment center (MFC)

A

Micro-fulfillment center (MFC) is a small-scale storage facility that is used by ecommerce businesses to store their inventory closer to the end consumer so they can reduce cost and transit times. These fulfillment centers are often highly automated, helping to improve operational efficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Group Home

A

A group home is a dwelling unit occupied as a single housekeeping unit by a small number of unrelated individuals. The primary purpose of the group home is to provide a family-like setting with ongoing supervision and support for persons unable to live independently in the community.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_______________ of 1988 prohibits a broad range of discriminatory housing practices. Most courts have interpreted ____ as a protection for housing occupied by groups of unrelated individuals with disabilities (including physical handicaps, mental illnesses, and drug addiction).

A

The Federal Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988 (FHAA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A ___________ is an analysis of existing housing supply and demand used to calculate the gap in current and future supply and demand for different housing types, and to recommend strategies to address housing needs.

A

Housing Needs Assessment (HNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Coordinating or consolidating reviews and public hearings, adopting objective district and use-specific standards, and providing user-friendly manuals to the public about the review process are recommended strategies to improve and streamline development review.

True or False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Audits typically delay development review, and should be limited to one time every three years.

True or False

A

False. Audits are used by number of planning and zoning departments to evaluate their review and permitting processes to identify obstacles to efficient, cost-effective, and user-friendly development review.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

____________ programs allow local governments to tap local private-sector development activity to fund and construct new affordable for-sale and rental housing units

A

Inclusionary housing programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Density Bonuses

A

Density bonuses is the most common of various incentives offered to improve inclusionary housing programs and encourage the production of affordable housing. Other incentives include modification of development standards, or fee waivers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Under no circumastances Affordable Housing requirements a negative impact on overall supply of housing and/or market rate prices.

A

False. In some cases, affordability requirements may lead to significant increases in the cost of development, potentially resulting in a reduction in the overall supply of housing, at least in the short run. Affordability requirements could also theoretically lead to increases in the prices of market-rate housing, as developers may increase prices or rents of the market-rate units o subsidize the cost of the below-market units.

However, studies show that these effects are uncommon, and that inclusionary housing generally has no impact on supply and no or modest impact on prices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name five (5) factors associated with successful Inclusionary Housing Programs?

A

1) They work best in strong housing markets.
2) Mandatory programs tend to work better than voluntary programs.
3) Successful programs include incentives that offset the cost to developers
4) Predictable programs with clear guidelines are most effective.
5) Successful programs have flexible compliance options.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Inclusionary Housing Programs are usually deployed in geographically targeted areas

True or False

A

False. Most ordinances apply to the entire jurisdiction. Some places with specific market conditions and needs target parts of the jurisdiction using planning area designations or economic and market metrics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Project Threshold Size (also known as “trigger”) is the minimum size of project that is covered by a typical Inclusionary Housing ordinance. 50 units is the most common trigger size, but it can vary widely and is sometimes different for rental and ownership types of projects.

True or False

A

False. 10 units is the most common trigger size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most inclusionary housing policies require between ___% and ___% of all units to be affordable.
A. 5% - 10%
B. 20% - 30%
C. 10% - 20%
D. 15% - 30%

A

C. Most inclusionary housing policies require between 10% and 20% of all units to be affordable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Density bonuses are typically given as ________ (2).

A

An increase in allowed dwelling units per acre (DU/A) or floor area ratio (FAR).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For practical and legal reasons, many places allow developers to pay fees in-lieu of building inclusionary units on-site.

True or False.

A

True. These in-lieu fees can be leveraged by local jurisdictions and nonprofit developers to build affordable housing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are two common critiques of Innovation Districts

A
  • Some argue that Innovation Districts displace non-college educated residents who aren’t qualified for innovation-sector jobs
  • Others view them as a marketing term with limited proven success
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Currently, ________of all states require at least some local governments to prepare comprehensive plans.

A

Two-thirds (66%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Approximately ___% of all states require zoning regulations to be consistent with the local comprehensive plan.

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Less than ___% of all states require local comprehensive plans to be consistent with regional or statewide plans, and less than ___% require consistency among the local comprehensive plan, regional or state plans, and the plans of neighboring jurisdictions.

A

1/3 or 33%, 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

While there is no official definition, many commentators consider any dwelling with ____ or less of floor area to be “micro housing.” Micro housing may be detached dwelling units on permanent foundations, chassis-mounted mobile homes, or efficiency apartments.

A

400 ft2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Smart Parking

A

Smart approach to parking that incorporates various techniques to help communities modify their parking requirements. For example -and depending on the context and surrounding uses-, existing parking minimums could be transformed into parking maximums, and minimums could be reduced by 30% to 50%.

27
Q

A “smart city” uses _______ and _________data to optimize citizen engagement, service delivery, and systems performance.

A

Information and Communication Technology (ICT), Internet of things (IoT)

28
Q

Social Impact Assessment (SIA)

A

Processes of analyzing, monitoring, and managing the intended and unintended social consequences, both positive and negative, of planned interventions. Public officials can require developers to complete a Social Impact Assessment (SIA) to improve understanding of the consequences of a project on the surrounding community.

29
Q

Providing language interpreters and/or childcare services could facilitate engagement from diverse stakeholders.

True or False

A

True

30
Q

TDR programs can only permit transfers within a single jurisdiction.

True or False

A

False. Some TDR programs permit transfers between jurisdictions. For example, a joint city-county program may designate unincorporated parts of the county as sending areas and one or more parts of the incorporated municipality as receiving areas.

31
Q

Zoning nonconformities are always unintended outcomes of a zoning changes

True or False

A

False. If the purpose of the new zoning designation is to foster dramatic land-use or development-pattern changes in these areas, the nonconformities are likely an intended outcome

32
Q

Subtle changes to the zoning district boundary could be one way of addressing unintended nonconformities.

True or False

A

True

33
Q

In ____________, natural features such as wetlands, watercourses, floodplains, and steep slopes are commonly protected from development, as well as woodlands, prime agricultural soils, and historic features. After these areas are identified and mapped, they are deducted from a site’s development potential, and the remaining areas can then be developed at a density permitted by the zoning ordinance.

A

Performance Zoning

34
Q

___________ proposes that communities predetermine the mechanisms of zoning change based on agreed-upon indicators or decision triggers.

A

Dynamic Zoning

35
Q

Allowing ADUs in single-family areas might help communities expand housing choices. Nonetheless, they may cause parking problems and could result in the decline of property values.

True or False

A

False. There is no evidence supporting fears of parking deficiencies and declining property values.

36
Q

_____________ are a distinguishing feature of the Performance Zoning model ordinance and consists of land containing a specified type and amount of planting.

A

Bufferyards

37
Q

Adequate Public Facilities Ordinance or Concurrency Management

A

Under the concurrency model, adequate public facilities must be in place when the impacts of the development occur, or the local government agency or developer must have made a financial commitment at the time of approval of the development so that the facilities are completed within two years of the impact of the development.

38
Q

The FIRST major regional shopping center to open in the United States was?

A

Northland Center, Michigan, 1954.

39
Q

Concurrency is a term attributable to which of the following states?

(A) Hawaii.
(B) California.
(C) Florida.
(D) Michigan.

A

(C) Florida.

40
Q

Cost-Effectiveness Analysis would be em-ployed in which of the following situations?
(A) Determining if an annexation would have a negative fiscal impact.
(B) Comparing the actual cost of implementing a program against the benefits to the commu-nity.
(C) Making a decision on whether or not to spend money to build a new senior center or to hire more police officers.
(D) Establishing monetary costs and

A

(C) Making a decision on whether or not to spend money to build a new senior center or to hire more police officers.

41
Q

In which of the following did the U.S. Supreme Court uphold a large-scale re-development program that took property by eminent do-main and resold the property to the private sector (1954)?
(A) Berman v. Parker.
(B) National Land & Investment Co. v. Kohn.
(C) Hadacheck v. Sebastian.
(D) Village of Belle Terre v. Boraas.

A

(A) Berman v. Parker.

42
Q

“One or more persons occupying a single dwelling unit, provided that all members are related by blood or marriage”, is the definition of which of the following?
(A) Household.
(B) Group Home.
(C) Single family residential unit.
(D) Family.

A

(D) Family.

43
Q

The Value of Planning

A

Social Benefits
* Planning** encourages consensus** on shared goals and priorities.
* Planning helps ensure that the **costs and benefits **of community growth and change are equitably distributed.
* Planning promotes public health

Economic Benefits
* Planning leads to better decisions about where and when to provide public infrastructure, facilities, and services.
* Planning sets the stage for job creation.
* Planning protects property values.

Environmental Benefits
* Planning leads to better decisions about how and when to use natural resources.
* Planning helps communities benefit from ecosystem services.
* Planning enhances community resilience to natural hazards and a changing climate.

44
Q

“Triple-bottomline”
lens of sustainability assessment.

A

Communities invest in planning because it has social, economic, and environmental benefits, and these multidimensional benefits of planning typically far outweigh the costs of inaction.

45
Q

Ecological footrprint of the US is estimated at ____ acres per person, compared to seven (7) acres per person in Costa Rica

A

20 acres per person

46
Q

Strategic Plans fall into two categories:

A
  1. Functional Plan: goes into more detail on a particular topic (e.g. a funtional park and recrration plan)
  2. Area Plan: focuses on a certai geographic location, sush as a neighborhood, a corridor, or a part of a county.
47
Q

US possesses about __% of the world’s supply of freshwater

A

8%

48
Q

Americans use about ______ galons of water everyday

A

400 billion

49
Q

Agricultural Irrigation accounts for more than _____ of all groundwater withdrawals

A

Two thirds (2/3)

50
Q

Community Water Systems

  • Large Systems: serve more than _____ people
  • Medium Systems: serve between ____ to _____ people
  • Small Systems: serve ____ or fewer.
A
  • More than 100,000 people
  • 3,301 to 100,000 people
  • 3,000 or fewer
51
Q

Each American uses an average of ____ gallons of water a day at home (USGS, Estimated Use of Water in the United States in 2015)

A

82 gallons of water a day

52
Q

The US per capita consumption of electricy is an average of ______ kWh per year.

A

12,000 kWh

53
Q

Food Policy Councils (FPC)

A

A food policy council (FPC) is a group of individuals that advises local and state governments on matters related to food policy. FPCs typically do not have the authority to pass laws, but they can be effective advocates for change within a local government.

The first FPC in the United States was established in Knoxville, Tennessee, in 1982. In the last decade, more than 35 FPCs at the local level have been created in the U.S.

54
Q

____ % of parking in the US is free

A

99%

55
Q

____ db (decibles) = noise disturbance

A

70 db (decibles)

56
Q

Whats another name for CERCLA?

A

The Superfund Bill

57
Q

EIS Approval Steps

A
  • Notice of Intent (NOI)
  • DRAFT EIS
  • FINAL EIS
  • Record of Desicion (ROD)
58
Q

C.A.F.E. Standars (1975)

A

The Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) standards are regulations in the United States, first enacted by the United States Congress in 1975, after the 1973–74 Arab Oil Embargo, to improve the average fuel economy of cars and light trucks (trucks, vans and sport utility vehicles) produced for sale in the United States.

59
Q

Pedestrian Shed Radius for TOD

A

1/2 Mile

60
Q

1748 Map of Rome, by ____________

A

Giambattista Nolli

61
Q

Oscar Newman

A

Wrotte Defensible Space in 1972

62
Q

Conservation Design

A

Conservation design (also known as open space zoning, cluster development or conservation zoning) refers to the practice of clustering or grouping new development on a specific area of land so that remaining portion of the land can be protected.

63
Q

Difference between Low Impact Development (LID) and Green Infrasctrure (GI)

A

LID aims to maintain pre-development hydrology conditions. While their strategies overlap, the focus of GI is on the design of the individual GI practices rather than a project or site scale approach. Thus it is possible to implement GI practices without achieving the goal of LID with respect to maintaining pre-development site hydrology.

LID can also be seen as a subset of practices/approaches within the green infrastructure. The difference between the two terms is really one of scale. LID refers to designing and implementing practices that can be employed at the site-level to control stormwater and strive to replicate the pre-development hydrology of the site. Green infrastructure generally refers to a broader, big-picture view of a community or watershed and focuses on a coordinated effort to employ these practices along with practices like land conservation.

64
Q

Push Analysis

A

A push analysis determines the sales capacity of a market area and if the introduction of a new business will generate additional customers.