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Pathology > Misc Questions pt. 4 > Flashcards

Misc Questions pt. 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which one is harder to contract? Hepatitis B or C?

A

Hepatitis C is harder to contract that B

  • Transmitted by blood & sex (not feco-oral)
  • Highest level of chronic disease
  • AKA NABA (non A non B)
  • Hep. A has no carrier state, but gives long life immunity
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2
Q

The best test to diagnose acute toxoplasmosis infection in a newborn is to look for …..

A

IgM (formed against the possible infection)

* IgG might be transferred from the mother

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3
Q

methenamine silver is used for ……

Perussian blue is used for demonstrating ….

A

staining of fungus

iron

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4
Q

Trichinosis is ……

A

parasitic disease, transmitted by ingesting raw meat (pork).

  • Causes pain, fever, myalgia, periorbital edema & conjunctival hemorrhage
  • There is also eosinophilia to the larvae
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5
Q

Inf. A & rotavirus both can show cause pandemcis via ……

A

gene shift

  • Virus capable of shift are segmented. HIV, Rubella & Measles virus are NOT segemented
  • HIV is capable of gene drift, not shift
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6
Q

Entamoeba histolytica is associated with …..

A

pulmonary abscesses as an extension of a liver abscess across the diaphragm

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7
Q

The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is …….

A

pneumococcus

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8
Q

Vagina of 5 yrs old girl is usually colonized by …..

A

Staph. aureus or epidermidis (prepuberty & postmenopausal)

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9
Q

A circumferential band of rash & vesivles on one side of the chest could be ……..

A

shingles

* While measles tend to be maculopapular rash on the head and neck

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10
Q

Quellung reaction is …..

A

the binding of antibodies to the capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, H. influenzae & Salmonella
* There is swelling of the capsule

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11
Q

Bacterial causes of hepatic abscesses include ……

A

E. coli, Klebsiella, Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Bacteroides, and Pseudomonas.

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12
Q

Compare the CSF findings after both bacterial & viral meningitis

A
  • Bacterial: Increased neutrophils, decreased glucose levels, increased proteins
  • Viral: Increased lymphocytes, normal glucose, increased proteins
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13
Q

Susceptibility to recurrent infection is caused by deficiency of …..

A

IgG antibodies

* Normally, these rise dramatically once the antigen is re-encountered

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14
Q

Epididymitis & orchitis with increased neutrophile count on biopsy suggests …….

A

c. trachomatis or t. pallidum infection

* Note that: M. tuberculosis caused granulomas in those areas

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15
Q

The characteristic lesion of impetigo is …..

A

large with golden crust

  • caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Erysipelas are caused by the same agents, however they are large erythematous patches (no crust)
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16
Q

Ethylene oxide is used for …….., while Ethyl alcohol & glutaraldehyde are used for …..

A

sterilization

high level disinfection (non sporicidal)

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17
Q

A known complication of bacterial endocarditis caused by S. aureus is …….

A

brain abscess

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18
Q

Emboli from endocarditis usually end in …..

A

brain, gut, heart, kidney

* Less common in the breast

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19
Q

Patients with UTI may caused by ….. may develop bacteremia & subsequent ARDS

A

E. Coli

20
Q

Inf. A virus can not be phagocytized. T/F??

A

False

The virus bound to antibody & complement can be phagocytized

21
Q

Pasteurella multocida is transmitted by …..

Toxoplasma gondii is transmitted by ….

A

cat bites

ingestion of food contaminated with cat feces

22
Q

Plague is caused by …….

Clinical features include …….

A

Yersinia pestis

* Fever, headache, bronchopneumonia, hemoptysis, meningitis, lymphadenopathy

23
Q

C. Trachomatis causes blindness in newborns due to ……..

A

corneal scarring

24
Q

……… is the major cause of diarrhea in children under 2 years.

A

Rotavirus

  • It causes non bloody watery diarrhea, vomiting
  • Tx is supportive
  • Transmission is feco oral
  • The usual cause of the same symptoms in children over 2 is Norwalk virus. Transmitted by food (i.e shellfish)
25
Q

Colorado tick fever is caused by ……

A

orbivirus

  • the only tick-borne viral disease in the US
  • There is weakness, headache behind eyes, photophobia, rash, sweating, vomiting
26
Q

Infective endocarditis is usually caused by …..

The HAECK group causes …..

A

S. aureus

  • HAECK is less frequent cause. (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Eikenella, Cardiobacterium, Kingella). These are normal oral flora
  • S. epidermidis causes endocarditis in patients with prosthetic valves
27
Q

AIDS + diarrhea + chronic abdominal pain + OOcysts in stool suggests …….

A

infection with Isospora belli or Cryptosporidium parvum

  • Entamoeba & Giardia both cause diarrhea, but not associated with AIDS
  • Microsporidia a protozoa causing diarrhea, but produces spores not cysts
28
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is treated with …..

A

macrolides or tetracyclines

* Not sensitive to penicillins, along with Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

29
Q

Streptococci do not have a cytochrome enzyme system because ………

A

they derive their energy from fermentation

30
Q

The only oral agent effective against Pseudomonas is ……

A

fluroquinolones (cipro)

* Also effective against G-ve rods

31
Q

What is the difference between Trimethoprim & sulfonamides?

A
  • Sulfonamides inhibit an earlier step in folate synthesis, which is dihydropteroate synthase
  • Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
32
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica causes ……

A

enteritis in pediatrics

* Most common cause of mini epidemics

33
Q

Circulating maternal IgG protects the newborn during ….

A

the first 4-6 months of life

34
Q

The presence of HBc IgM Ab in serum indicates the infection is …….

A

acute

  • Characteristic of acute infection
  • See Testlet 60 in micro
35
Q

Bacterial transformation is ……..

A

uptake and integration of naked DNA by a bacteria from the environment
* Only in Haemophilus, Streptococcus, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Helicobacter pylori

36
Q

In bacterial growth, spores are formed during …….

A

the stationary phase

37
Q

Sterility does not usually develop in mumps patient because ….

A

typically only one testicle is involved.

38
Q

Administering a bacteriostatic & bacteriocidal antibiotic would cause …

A

antagonism of the antibacterial effects of both agents (one cancel the other)
* An extension of bacterial coverage would occur between two agents of the same type

39
Q

Oxidase positive organisms means they …..

A 
can respire (use oxygen)
* Example is pseudomonas aerugenosa (also it is motile)
40
Q

Patients with sickle cell anemia are more susceptible to osteomyelitis caused by …..

A

Salmonella (sensitive to acidic pH)
* Note that: Staph. aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in sicklers and nonsicklers (look for it first in the answers)

41
Q

What are the signs & symptoms of Entamoeba histolytica infection?

A

severe diarrhea (dysentery), ulceration of the cecum & ascending colon, severe cramps, amoeba with ingested RBC, later hepatopathy (abscesses), Tenesmus (the feeling of constant need to pass stool)

42
Q

CD3 marker is located on …..

A

cell membrane of all T-cells

* It is involved in signal transduction, but not antigen recognition

43
Q

To test if a patient is HIV positive, we use ….. . To eliminate the false positive results, we can confirm with ……

A

ELISA

Western blot

44
Q

What is the function of Northern blot & Southern blot??

A
  • Southern blotting can be used to detect mutations in DNA

* Northern blots are used to determine which genes are being expressed on RNA

45
Q

Sinus venosus defect may cause ……

A

ASD, especially in upper part of the atrium

Pathology (18 decks)

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