Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Tommy's BCNS Board Exam > Misc > Flashcards

Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Which doesn’t affect independent eating?

Hemianopsia
Xerostomia
Apraxia
Limb Weakness

A

Xerostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Parkinson’s can be considered autoimmune disease.

True or False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which does not inhibit the absorption of non-heme iron?

Leucine
Tannins
Phosphates
Dietary fiber

A

Leucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which stage of kidney disease is severe loss of function and requires dialysis or transplantation?

Stage 3
Stage 4
End-stage
Stage 2

A

Stage 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is pernicious anemia a neurological condition?

Y or N

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Would you eliminate phosphate binders in a pt with CKD?

Y or N

A

No…need them to manage phosphate levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of these reduces the bioavailability of iron?

Vit C
Dietary Sugars
Manganese
Dietary amino acids

A

Manganese….the rest INCREASE absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why would reducing orange juice consumption be helpful in someone with dyslipidemia?

A

the fructose in the OJ can contribute to the lipid issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For a patient with neuro deficits who chews constantly, having them set their utensil down between bites could exacerbate the issue.

T or F

A

FALSE…it likely will help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Canned foods/supplements are helpful for those with taste alterations.

T or F

A

False…avoid them with these pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The oil from the leaves of which can be used for diuresis or to sooth intestinal cramps?

Borage
Comfrey
Arnica
Catnip

A

Borage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which type of diarrhea is associated with Crohn’s?

Exudative
Secretory
Limited mucosal contact
Osmotic

A

Limited mucosal contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Highest glycemic index?

Brown rice
Dried apricot
coconut
soybeans

A

brown rice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which wouldn’t be suggested on a mediterranean diet?

Coconut oil
Rapeseed oil
Canola oil
Margarine

A

Coconut…it’s saturated fat. Mediterranean diet is limited saturated fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which type of diarrhea is associated with ulcerative colitis?

Exudative
Secretory
Limited mucosal contact
Osmotic

A

exudative due to presence of blood/pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which interferes with ART in HIV patients?

Ginger
St John’s wort
Astragalus
Turmeric

A

St John’s wort (also garlic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Xanax can be helpful with anorexia

T or F

A

True, it’s an appetite stimulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pts with egg allergies should also avoid lactoferrin.

T or F

A

False…lactoferrin is not found in eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which vitamins should not be supplement during end-stage renal disease?

A, E, C
Folate, B12, D
A, E, K
C, B12, Folate

A

A, E, K….these fat soluble shouldn’t be supplemented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cancer rates are higher for men or women?

A

Men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gingko will ____ the stomach in cancer patients

Irritate
Soothe

A

Sooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which type of anemia is inherited and characterized by microcytic, hypochromic, and short-lived red blood cells which can cause facial deformities and bone changes?

Sickle cell
Hemolytic
Sideroblastic
Thalassemia

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which B vitamin interferes with the sodium phosphate pump and can reduce PO4 levels in those with end stage renal disease, ESRD?

B2
B3
B9
B12

A

B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which is associated with anorexia?

Diarrhea
Constipation

A

Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which is low oxalate?

blueberries
sauerkraut
black tea
spinach

A

sauerkraut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which age levels increase risk for CVD in men and women?

A

Men 45 yrs

Women 55 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pts with beriberi should avoid which foods?

almonds, spinach
yeast, salmon, pork
citrus fruits
green tea, black tea, shellfish

A

green/black tea, shellfish…they contain polyphenols which inhibit thiamin absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

goldenseal, dandelion, milk thistle, barberry, ginger, peppermint, rosemary,

cholagogues
carminatives
galactagogues
sedatives

A

cholagogues: stimulates bile flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is a cholagogue

A

has the specific effect of stimulating the flow of bile from the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is a carminative

A

helps prevent or relieve gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
Fennel (Foeniculi fructus; Foeniculi vulgare), 
Lemon Balm (Melissa officinalis), 
Rosemary (Rosmarinus officinalis), 
Spearmint (Mentha spicata), 
peppermint, 
Angelica (seeds), 
Anise
ginger
Cardamom

are considered

cholagauges
carminatives
galactagogues
sedatives

A

carminatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is an abortifacient? name 4

A

can cause abortion

Goldenseal (Hydrastis canadensis), Aloe vera (extract), Tansy (Tanacetum vulgare), Parsley fruit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fenugreek (Trigonella foenum-graceum), Moringa, Goat’s Rue, Fennel, Red Raspberry Leaf, Vitex, Nettle (NOT stinging nettle), Alfalfa, Blessed Thistle, Borage, Hops

cholagauges
carminatives
galactagogues
sedatives

A

galactagogues an herb that is used to help increase breastmilk production in nursing mothers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Peppermint, Spearmint, Parsley, Black Walnut, stinging nettles, Lemon Balm, Oregano, Sage, Jasmine

cholagogue
galactagogues
abortive
reduce breast milk flow

A

reduce breast milk flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

herbs for depression (2)

A

Kava Kava (Piper methysticum), SJW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

herbs for sleep (5)

A 
Passion Flower (Maypop Passion-Flower) (Passiflora incarnata), 
Lemon Balm (Melissa officinalis), 
valerian, 
lavender, 
hops,
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

5 botanicals that should be avoided before surgery

A

garlic, ginko, ginseng, dong quai, feverfew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

congenital or developmental aspects of an individual like family history

A

antecedents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

most widely distributed coenzyme

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

appetite loss and frequent infections is a sign of what vitamin def?

A

vit A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what mineral can improve production of T3 and lower autoantibodies to thyroid hormone

A

sel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

___ mimics the effect of insulin on adipocytes

___ potentiates action of insulin

A

vanadium mimics the effect of insulin on adipocytes

chromium potentiates action of insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is associated with galacosemia, gastric bybass and glycogen storage disease

A

hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

when no mitochondria like in erythrocytes pyruvate turns to ____ instead of _____

A

lactate, carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

It is important for nutritionists to understand their client’s or patient’s readiness to change
stage because:

a. this will insure that the recommendations will help them change.
b. it helps the practitioner to know what information, support and/or recommendations
will help them get to the next stage of change and ultimately achieve their desired
goals.
c. it determines what specific lifestyle recommendations are needed.
d. it creates less tension in consultations sessions.

A

B. it helps the practitioner to know what information, support and/or recommendations
will help them get to the next stage of change and ultimately achieve their desired
goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Responsible recommendations to consume vitamins in amounts exceeding their
RDA:
a. ignore efficacy and risk for toxicity.
b. balance benefits and risks.
c. are not possible.
d. are inconsistent with current knowledge.

A

b. balance benefits and risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The five clinical determinants of metabolic syndrome are:

a. Waist circumference, cholestero, HDL, BMI, fasting plasma glucose (fpg)
b. Hip to waist ratio, triglycerides, LDL, blood pressure, fpg
c. Hip to waist ratio, cholesterol, HDL, BMI, fpg
d. Waist circumference, triglycerids, HDL, blood pressure, fpg

A

D. Waist circumference, triglycerids, HDL, blood pressure, fpg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 50 mg/dLmay suggest the presence of:

a. diabetes.
b. hypoglycemia.
c. normal glucose tolerance.
d. hyperinsulinemia.

A

b. hypoglycemia.

Normal blood sugar levels are less than 100 mg/dL after not eating (fasting) for at least eight hours. And they’re less than 140 mg/dL two hours after eating.

During the day, levels tend to be at their lowest just before meals. For most people without diabetes, blood sugar levels before meals hover around 70 to 80 mg/dL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

One blood test which assesses vitamin B12 status and is included in a complete blood
count panel is:
a. hemoglobin level
b. MCV or mean cell or corpuscular volume
c. platelet levels
d. RBC counts

A

b. MCV or mean cell or corpuscular volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. . The most accurate way to assess micronutrient intake is through the use of a:
    a. 24-hour food intake recall questionnaire.
    b. 7-day food intake frequency.
    c. “food frequency questionnaire.”
    d. stool and urine analysis.
A

c. “food frequency questionnaire.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q 
The infusion of a hypertonic nutrient solution through the jugular or saphenous vein is
called:
a. enteral alimentation.
b. central parenteral alimentation.
c. peripheral parenteral alimentation.
d. peridialytic alimentation.
A

b. central parenteral alimentation.

Post-surgically, home parenteral nutritional support is mandatory in patients with surgically-induced short bowel syndrome and high energy output ostomies (associated with fat malabsorption) who are not able to maintain their weight on oral or enteral feeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

An inborn error of metabolism may result from:

a. polyploidy.
b. DNA replication errors.
c. congenital malnutrition.
d. neonatal infection.

A

b. DNA replication errors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

It may be wise to assess the status of the following in a client on long-term proton pump

inhibitor (PPI) therapy:

a. Folate
b. B12 and minerals
c. Biotin
d. CoQ10

A

b. B12 and minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Individuals taking anticonvulsant medications may develop depleted reserves of:

a. folate and vitamin D.
b. thiamin and riboflavin.
c. folate and pantothenic acid.
d. pyridoxine and biotin.

A

a. folate and vitamin D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Dietary intakes of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin are related to the intake of:

a. iron.
b. ascorbic acid.
c. calcium.
d. calories.

A

d. calories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Use of a thiazide diuretic drugmay produce a low plasma concentration of:

a. calcium.
b. potassium.
c. uric acid.
d. phosphorus.

A

b. potassium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Except for when women are pregnant and lactating, the total quantity of nutrients
and calories needed during ____ are greater than at any other stage of the life
cycle.
a. infancy
b. childhood
c. adolescence
d. aging

A

c. adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The most serious consequence of feeding “double-strength” formula

to an infant is likely to be:

a. sleepiness.
b. colic.
c. mental impairment.
d. dehydration.

A

d. dehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The food components that are listed on the Nutrition Facts panel are:

a. sugars, fiber, and potassium.
b. sugars, dietary fiber, and calcium.
c. sugars, dietary fiber, and monounsaturated fat.
d. sugars, magnesium, and B-complex vitamins.

A

b. sugars, dietary fiber, and calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The dietary change that is the most effective in contributing to a decrease in serum
total cholesterol concentration is:
a. decrease on cholesterol intake.
b. a decrease in saturated fat intake.
c. an increase in polyunsaturated fat intake.
d. an increase in monounsaturated fat intake.

A

b. a decrease in saturated fat intake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Dietary proteins are of high biological value when they are obtained from:

a. fish, legumes and whole milk.
b. beef, pork and cream cheese.
c. white bread, vegetables and legumes.
d. eggs, chicken meats and cheddar cheese.

A

d. eggs, chicken meats and cheddar cheese.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Garlic’s active compound, allicin, inhibits:

a. Muscle spasm
b. HMG-Co A reductase activity
c. Hydroxylase activity
d. Constipation

A

b. HMG-Co A reductase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Beta-glucans are phytonutients that are derived from various mushroom
species and have specific beneficial effects for:
a. cardiovascular disease
b. gastrointestinal symptoms and function
c. immune function
d. auditory function

A

c. immune function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q 
The deficiency of which nutrient results in elevated levels of xanthurenate:
a. Biotin
b vitamin B2
c. vitamin B6
d.  vitamin B1
A

c. vitamin B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Glycolysis is a metabolic process that involves:

a. glycogen synthesis
b. the conversion of glucose to glycogen
c. the conversion of glucose to pyruvate.
d. the conversion of fatty acids to ATP

A

c. the conversion of glucose to pyruvate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Nutrification is the:
a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient
to a target population group.
b. specific addition of thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and iron to white flour.
c. structural modification of complex carbohydrates.
d. addition of at least 25% of the RDA of a nutrient to a food product
that has been designed to replace a meal or food item.

A

addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q 
In the polypeptide chain of a protein, the sequential order of the amino
acids is called the:
a. primary structure.
b. secondary structure.
c. tertiary structure.
d. quaternary structure.
A

a. primary structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The structures of linoleic acid and gamma-linolenic acid differ in their:

a. chain lengths.
b. double bond positions.
c. numbers of double bonds.
d. side chain moieties.

A

numbers of double bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The C677T base substitution in the gene that synthesizes the enyzyme methyl-
tetrahydrofolate reductase is a genetic abnormality called:

a. a base substitution
b. a genetic anomaly
c. a single nucleotide polymorphism
d. an epigenetic phenomena

A

c. a single nucleotide polymorphism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The hormone that is synthesized in adipose tissue and signals satiety is:

a. adiponectin
b. glucagon
c. leptin
d. ghrelin

A

c. leptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Most iron is transported in the blood via the plasma carrier:

a. heme.
b. ferritin.
c. transferrin.
d. albumin.

A

c. transferrin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

lb to kg equation

A

lb / 2 = x - 1/10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

in to m equation

A

in x 0.0254

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

BMI ranges

A

under <18.5
normal 18.5-24.9
over 25-29.9
obese 30+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q 
The deficiency of which nutrient results in elevated levels of beta-hydroxyiovalerate:
a. Biotin
b vitamin B2
c. vitamin B6
d.  vitamin B1
A

a. Biotin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q 
The deficiency of which nutrient results in elevated levels of erythrocyte transketolase:
a. Biotin
b vitamin B2
c. vitamin B6
d.  vitamin B1
A

d. vitamin B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q 
The deficiency of which nutrient results in elevated levels of ethylmalonate:
a. Biotin
b vitamin B2
c. vitamin B6
d.  vitamin B1
A

b vitamin B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q 
The deficiency of which nutrient results in elevated levels of n-methylnicotinimide:
a. vitamin B3
b vitamin B2
c. vitamin B6
d. vitamin B1
A

a. vitamin B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The deficiency of which nutrient results in elevated levels of n-BCKA (branch chain keto acids):

B1, B2, B3, B6 and lipoic acid
B1, B2, B3, B5 and lipoic acid
B1, B2, B3, and B5
B2, B3, B5 and B6

A

B1, B2, B3, B5 and lipoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The aromatic amino acids

A

phenylalanine, tryptophan, and tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

does lithium lengthen or shorten the circadian rhythm?

A

lengthen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

long term PPI risk can put you as risk for all except:

Osteoporosis
SIBO
IBS
Hypertension

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Individuals receiving hemodialysis should receive ____ protein/kg daily.

A

1.1 to 1.3g protein/kg daily - primer

study for 1-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

most frequent form of hepititis?

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

binge eating is associated with all except:

eating alone
waiting until extremely hungry then eating large amounts of food
eating until uncomfortably full
eating more rapidly than normal

A

waiting until extremely hungry then eating large amounts of food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

which vitamin is a cofactor in oxidation and synthesis of fatty acids

Biotin
B3
B12
Folate

A

Biotin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

adaptive state of starvation is characterized by all except

increased glycogenolysis
increased ureagenesis
increased ketone body production
decreased gluconeogenesis

A

increased ureagenesis

starvation is involved with decreased ureagenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

nutrient supplements involed with healing burns include all except

Vit A
CoQ10
Vit C
Zinc

A

CoQ10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

marker of cell health on electrical bioimpedance?

A

phase angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

for HIV management:

3 large meals with snack
small frequent meals

A

small frequent meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

which function is not associated with sulfur

part of B12
part of insulin
part of cartilage
part of keratin
part of glutathione
part of connective tissue
A

part of B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

how much protein for non dialysis patients?

A

0.5-0.8

Prior to initiation of hemodialysis, restriction of dietary protein intake to 0.6 g protein/kg daily may delay the need for dialysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

minimum safe temp for egg dishes

A

150

94
Q

which is not true about licorice with cancer survivors?

soothes stomach
may cause electrolyte imbalance
may increase swelling
may increase bleeding risk

A

may increase bleeding risk

95
Q

PRAL is used to describe a foods impact on

A

acid load

96
Q

which potentiates action of insulin by impacting the receptors?

A

chromium

97
Q

All require thiamin except?

pyruvate dehydrogenase
dihydrolipoyl transacetylase
malate dehydrogenase
pyrophosphokinase

A

malate dehydrogenase

98
Q

kidneys play a role in production or elimination all all except:

Phos
Mg
Ca
Vit D

A

Mg

99
Q

Action site for statin drugs on cholesterol production?

A

HGM- CoA - reductase

100
Q

all are phosphate binders except:

ca carbonate
ca acetate
aluminum hydroxide
alendronate

A

alendronate

Alendronate is used to treat osteoporosis caused by menopause, steroid use, or gonadal failure.

101
Q

is a FFQ a good indicator of micronutrient intake?

A

Y

102
Q

Highest AGEs per serving:

Pan fried omlet
Pan fried egg
scrambled egg
poached egg

A

Pan fried egg

103
Q

does stinging nettle interfere with coumadin?

A

yes

104
Q

when taken in high amounts, which mineral causes tingling of hands and feet and impaired renal function?

A

potassium

105
Q

primary action of nitric oxide:

A

regulate blood flow, maintain muscle tone, and gastric motor activity

106
Q

which does not increase in pregnancy:

chromium
ca
zinc
iodine

A

ca

107
Q

ratio of BUN to creatinine measures damage to the?

A

kidney

108
Q

alcohol leads to cancers of all except:

breast
lung
prostate
colon

A

prostate

109
Q

what nutrient is backbone of thyroid hormone?

A

tyrosine

110
Q

which nutrient is not found in CAC

CoA
zinc
lipoic acid
thiamin

A

zn

tender love and care for Nancy in men mistakes
thiamin, lipoic acid, CoA, FAD, NAD, iron, manganese, mg

111
Q

CYP26A is involved in metabolism of

A

nicotine

112
Q

tetany of hands and feet can be sign of hypocalcemia T or F

A

T

113
Q

which fat soluble vitamin does not have a TUL

A

K

114
Q

Normal blood sugar levels are less than ___ mg/dL after not eating (fasting) for at least eight hours. And they’re less than___ mg/dL two hours after eating.

A

100, 140

115
Q

In the acid-base imbalance acidosis, what happens to respiratory activity?

a. increases
b. stays the same
c. decreases
d. it is irrelevant

A

a. increases

116
Q

Shelly was following a low-carbohydrate (25 grams CHO/day) diet for weight loss prior to
conceiving, and now that she is pregnant she knows that she has to eat more. How
many more grams of carbohydrate should Shelly plan to eat per day?
a. 100
b. 125
c. 150
d. 175

A

c. 150

primer says 175

117
Q

How many grams of protein per day should a pregnant woman add to her diet?

a. 15 grams
b. 20 grams
c. 25 grams
d. 30 grams

A

c. 25 grams

The average total “protein cost” of 6 months of lactation is about 2700 g, averaging 15 g/day during those 6 months.

118
Q

Which of the following oils is a significant source of omega-3 fatty acids?

a. Olive oil
b. Corn oil
c. Canola oil
d. Peanut oil

A

c. Canola oil

119
Q

The purpose of using double-blinding in an Randomized Control Trial is to

a. Achieve greater comparability of cases and controls.
b. Avoid placebo effects.
c. Avoid objective and subjective bias.
d. Reduce the effects of sampling variation

A

c. Avoid objective and subjective bias.

120
Q

A researcher is studying the relationship between level of radiation exposure among
miners and risk of leukemia. He has compared the incidence of leukemia among mine
workers in high- and low-radiation mines. He found that the relative risk for developing
leukemia was 2.0 among those workers exposed to the high radiation mine. The
associated p-value was 0.03. Which statement best describes the meaning of the pvalue in this study?
a. The probability that the relative risk of 2.0 or more was due to chance alone is 3%.
b. There is a 3% difference in incidence rates of leukemia between the two groups
of miners.
c. There were 3 more cases of leukemia per 100 in the high radiation mine.
d. The power associated with this study was 3.0%.

A

a. The probability that the relative risk of 2.0 or more was due to chance alone is 3%

121
Q

The public health department of Smoke City reported 40 new cases of lung cancer in its
population of 100,000 people between January 1, 1998 and December 31, 1999. What is
the annual incidence of lung cancer for this population?
a. 40 per 100,000 per year.
b. 20 per 10,000 per year.
c. 80 per 100,000 per year.
d. 2 per 10,000 per year.

A

d. 2 per 10,000 per year.

122
Q

Which phytochemical is structurally similar to estrogen?

a. Lycopene
b. Lutein
c. Catechins
d. Isoflavones

A

d. Isoflavones

123
Q

Rickets:

a. Is marked by disorders of cartilage cell growth
b. Can lead to osteomalacia in adults
c. Results in a bowlegged appearance
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

124
Q

The Total Energy Expenditure (TEE) is obtained from which of the following sources:

a. Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR)
b. Thermogenic effect of food (TEF)
c. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
d. Post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

125
Q

How many calories do you subtract from the total energy expenditure for weight loss?

a. 300
b. 250
c. 500
d. 350

A

c. 500

126
Q

What is the function of angiotensin II?

a. Prevent the adrenal glands from releasing aldosterone
b. Stimulate the adrenal glands to release more aldosterone
c. Prevent the lungs from producing rennin
d. Stimulate the lungs to produce rennin

A

b. Stimulate the adrenal glands to release more aldosterone

127
Q

What gland responds to a lack of water in the body by releasing a hormone?

a. Pineal
b. Hypothyroid
c. Pituitary
d. Thyroid

A

c. Pituitary

128
Q

A fatty acid contains 20 carbons with four unsaturated bonds in its chain, the first of
which is 6 carbons distant from its omega end. How would this be designated?
a. 20:6 n-4
b. 20:3 n-4
c. 22:4 n-3
d. 20:4 n-6

A

20:4 n-6

129
Q 
What is formed when fatty acids are oxidized in the mitochondria (i.e., what is the end
product of beta-oxidation)?
a. glycerol
b. pyruvate
c. acetyl-CoA
d. triacylglycerol
A

acetyl-CoA

130
Q

As kidney function declines, serum creatinine may:

a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. stay the same.

A

Increase

131
Q

Under the influence of insulin, which of the following pathways is increased?

a. Glycogenesis
b. glycogenolysis
c. phosphorylation of glycogen synthase
d. phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase

A

Glycogenesis

132
Q

Sunil finished his evening meal of curried chicken, rice, fruit, salad, cookies, and tea about 30 minutes ago. Which of the following best describes what is happening?

a. His blood concentration of glucagon exceeds that of insulin.
b. His blood concentration of insulin exceeds that of glucagon.
c. His blood contains glucagon but no insulin.
d. His blood contains insulin but no glucagon

A

His blood concentration of insulin exceeds that of glucagon.

133
Q

Why are skeletal muscle cells able to take up glucose without insulin during exercise?

a. Muscle contractions can activate movement of glucose transporters from the cytoplasm to the cell membrane.
b. The cell membranes of muscle cells contain glucose receptors.
c. Muscle cells can take up glucose without insulin.
d. Muscle cells do not depend on glucose transporters for uptake of glucose

A

Muscle contractions can activate movement of glucose transporters from the cytoplasm to the cell membrane.

134
Q

When blood calcium concentration is low the _____ releases _____ in order to raise blood calcium levels.

a. parathyroid gland, calcitonin
b. thyroid gland, PTH
c. parathyroid gland, PTH
d. thyroid gland, calcitonin

A

parathyroid gland, PTH

135
Q

Which body water reservoir is made up of plasma and interstitial fluid?

a. Intracellular
b. Extracellular
c. total body water
d. glomerular filtrate

A

Extracellular

Extracellular generally has a high concentration of sodium and low concentration of potassium, while intracellular fluid is high in potassium and low in sodium.

2/3 of body fluid is intracellular or cytosol, the fluid within cells. The other 1/3 is extracellular, outside cells and includes all other body fluids, about 80% of ECF is interstitial fluid, 20% is plasma

136
Q

What hormone is released by some gastric cells when there is food in your stomach?

a. Gastrin
b. Pepsinogen
c. Cholecystokinin
d. Trypsin

A

Gastrin

Gastrin acts on gastric parietal and chief cells to stimulate intragastric secretion of HCL and pepsinogen.

137
Q

In the first phase of intestinal triglyceride digestion, large lipid molecules are dispersed
into smaller lipid droplets called _____ so that they will not separate out into an oily layer
and thus can be further digested.
a. Micelles
b. Emulsions
c. Suspensions
d. Globules

A

Micelles

138
Q

What substance stimulates the pancreas to release pancreatic lipase?

a. Thyroxin
b. Secretin
c. Homocysteine
d. Phospholipids

A

Secretin

139
Q 
What hormone stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the
duodenum?
a. Retinolase (RNS)
b. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
c. Insulin
d. Glucagon
A

Cholecystokinin

140
Q 
People born with an inborn error of metabolism called PKU cannot convert
phenylalanine to \_\_\_\_\_.
a. Tryptophan
b. Casein
c. Tyrosine
d. Aspartame
A

Tyrosine

141
Q

The body produces _____ from fatty acids when its supply of glucose is limited.

a. Glucose
b. Glycogen
c. Triglycerides
d. Ketones

A

Ketones

142
Q

In order for short- and medium-chain fatty acids to be circulated away from the small
intestine in the blood, they are first bound to _____.
a. Cholesterol
b. vitamin D
c. triglycerides
d. albumin

A

albumin

143
Q

Which lipoprotein do intestinal cells synthesize in order to circulate long-chain fatty acids away from the gastrointestinal tract?

a. VLDL
b. Chylomicrons
c. Triglycerides
d. LDL

A

Chylomicrons

144
Q

Which vitamins must be added to a food for it to be labeled “enriched”?

A

Thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, and folate

a. Thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, and folate
b. Thiamin, B6, riboflavin, and folate
c. Thiamin, niacin, pantothenic acid, and folate
d. Thiamin, B12, riboflavin, and folate

145
Q 
What disease is characterized by severe muscle wasting, leg cramps, tenderness, and
decreased feeling in the feet and toes?
a. Dry beriberi
b. Wet beriberi
c. Infantile beriberi
d. Cerebral beriberi
A

Dry beriberi

146
Q

Which of the following is not a function of thiamine’s coenzyme form?

a. It is required for your body to make ATP.
b. It is required for the activation of the enzyme needed to convert pyruvate to acetyl-CoA.
c. It is a required component in the citric acid cycle.
d. It is part of an enzyme that allows fatty acids to enter the citric acid cycle.

A

It is part of an enzyme that allows fatty acids to enter the citric acid cycle.

147
Q

What vitamin assists in reduction-oxidation reactions, as well as several reactions that protect biological membranes from oxidative damage?

a. Thiamin
b. Riboflavin
c. Niacin
d. Biotin

A

Riboflavin

148
Q

The amino acid tryptophan can be converted to:

a. Niacin
b. Thiamin
c. Folate
d. vitamin B6

A

Niacin

149
Q

Which vitamin is required by the enzyme that converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate, a key step in gluconeogenesis?

a. Thiamin
b. Niacin
c. Biotin
d. Vitamin B12

A

Biotin

150
Q

Which vitamins are required for the production of methionine from homocysteine?

A

Folate and vitamin B12

a. Thiamin and vitamin B12
b. Niacin and vitamin B6
c. Vitamin B6 and vitamin B12
d. Folate and vitamin B12

151
Q

A folate deficiency can be characterized by:

a. macrocytic, hypochromic anemia
b. megaloblastic, microcytic anemia
c. megaloblastic, macrocytic anemia
d. microcytic, hypochromic anemia

A

megaloblastic, macrocytic anemia

152
Q

Intrinsic factor is made in the:

a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. small intestine
d. pancreas

A

Stomach

153
Q 
What nutrient can be produced in the body from the amino acids methionine and
lysine?
a. Carnitine
b. Vitamin C
c. Choline
d. Niacin
A

Carnitine

154
Q

Dietary cholecalciferol must be further hydroxylated in order to be active vitamin D. The first hydroxylation occurs in the _____ to produce _____.

a. liver, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
b. kidney, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
c. skin, 7-dehydrocholesterol
d. kidney, 1-hydrocholesterol

A

liver, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol

155
Q

Immediately following a balanced meal that contained vitamin E (such as fortified milk), where would you most likely find most of the vitamin E in the body?

a. in the portal blood as α-tocopherol
b. in the general circulation bound to RBC
c. inside cells as free α-tocopherol
d. in chylomicrons in the lymphatic vessels and general circulation

A

in chylomicrons in the lymphatic vessels and general circulation

156
Q

What tissues do both parathyroid hormone (PTH) and vitamin D act on to increase calcium reabsorption?

a. Bone
b. Kidneys
c. Liver
d. Small intestine

A

Kidneys

157
Q

What happens when blood calcium is high?

a. The parathyroid gland produces more parathyroid hormone (PTH).
b. Calcium resorption from bone increases
c. The thyroid gland releases a hormone called calcitonin
d. Less calcium is lost in urine.

A

The thyroid gland releases a hormone called calcitonin

when low the parathyroid releases PTH.

158
Q

What is the most abundant cation in the intracellular fluids?

a. Potassium
b. Magnesium
c. Sodium
d. Chloride

A

Potassium

159
Q

Healthy adults are recommended to consume _____ of their energy from lipids.

a. 5%-20%
b. 20%-35%
c. 35%-50%
d. 50%-65%

A

20%-35%

160
Q

Which of the following is a type of phytoestrogen?

a. Genistein
b. Lutein
c. Indoles
d. Isothiocynates

A

Genistein

161
Q

The difference between glycemic index and glycemic load is that glycemic load
accounts for the _____.
a. amount of carbohydrate in a typical serving
b. body weight of the individual
c. type of carbohydrate consumed
d. timing of the consumption of carbohydrates

A

amount of carbohydrate in a typical serving

162
Q

The 5 steps to the Nutrition Care Process are:

a. Assessment, nutrition diagnosis, intervention, monitoring and evaluation
b. Subjective, objective, assessment, plan and intervention
c. Assessment, subjective, objective, assessment and plan
d. Subjective, assessment, nutrition diagnosis, monitoring and evaluation

A

Assessment, nutrition diagnosis, intervention, monitoring and evaluation

163
Q

Someone who is cachectic:

a. Has fat and muscle wasting
b. Is obese
c. Lives a sedentary lifestyle
d. Lives an active lifestyle

A

Has fat and muscle wasting

164
Q

C-reactive protein (CRP):

a. Monitors metabolic stress
b. Is produced by the kidneys
c. Is commonly detected in general blood tests
d. All of the above

A

Monitors metabolic stress

165
Q

A routine urine analysis can assess which of the following:

a. Glucose, pH, protein, specific gravity
b. Glucose, cholesterol, protein, pH
c. Protein, B12, specific gravity, glucose
d. Glucose, pH, protein, ketones, B12

A

Glucose, pH, protein, specific gravity

166
Q

The study of how nutrition and genetics interact to influence health is called _____.

a. Epigenetics
b. Nutrigenomics
c. Nutrigenetics
d. Biogenetics

A

Nutrigenomics

167
Q

The best description of the nutrition care process is:

a. a process that enables the nutritionist to develop individual client nutritional strategies
b. a professional progress note that enables the nutritionist to document the assessments and interventions
c. a systematic problem-solving method that nutritionists use for critical thinking and decision making to address nutrition related problems and provide safe and effective quality nutrition care
d. a systematic method that nutritionists use for decision making to address a nutritional diagnosis and develop nutritional interventions

A

a systematic problem-solving method that nutritionists use for critical thinking and decision making to address nutrition related problems and provide safe and effective quality nutrition care

168
Q

Nutrition screening is best described as:

a. the process of identifying key characteristics to quickly identify individuals who are at a health risk and determining if a more detailed assessment is warranted
b. the process of identifying key characteristics to quickly identify individuals who are malnourished or at nutrition risk and determining if a more detailed assessment is warranted
c. the process of identifying core imbalances to develop a nutritional plan
d. the process of identifying symptoms, antecedents and lifestyle factors to identify individuals who are malnourished or at nutrition risk and determining if a more detailed assessment is warranted

A

the process of identifying key characteristics to quickly identify individuals who are malnourished or at nutrition risk and determining if a more detailed assessment is warranted

169
Q

Examples of qualitative methods when interpreting dietary data are except:

a. Determining the macronutrient ratio
b. Determining the number of servings of macronutrients in a day
c. Calculating specific nutrients in a food
d. None of the above

A

Calculating specific nutrients in a food

170
Q

A current weight (of usual body weight) of 86% is considered to be

a. Healthy
b. Mild malnutrition
c. Moderate malnutrition
d. Severe malnutrition

A

Mild malnutrition

171
Q

Which is true of creatinine-height index (CHI)?

a. Is excreted in a altered form in the urine
b. Requires a midstream urine specimen
c. Creatine is derived from the breakdown of creatinine.
d. Creatinine excreted in urine remains at a constant rate in proportion to the amount of body muscle

A

Creatinine excreted in urine remains at a constant rate in proportion to the amount of body muscle

172
Q

Which of the following is untrue about prealbumin?

a. Serves as a transport protein for T4
b. Serves as a retinol-binding protein
c. Is a plasma protein marker of inflammatory status
d. Is sensitive to acute changes in protein status

A

Is a plasma protein marker of inflammatory status

173
Q

A complete blood analysis (CBC) includes:

a. Cholesterol, BUN, creatinine, potassium
b. Cholesterol, total white blood cells, potassium, sodium
c. Total white blood cell count, MCV, lymphocytes, hemoglobin
d. Hematocrit, creatinine, sodium, potassium

A

Total white blood cell count, MCV, lymphocytes, hemoglobin

174
Q

A comprehensive chemistry blood test includes:

a. Total white blood cells, red blood cells, lymphocytes
b. Glucose, BUN, creatinine, albumin, sodium
c. Hematocrit, creatinine, sodium, potassium
d. Calcium, magnesium, potassium, sodium

A

Glucose, BUN, creatinine, albumin, sodium

175
Q

Variations in gene expression that occur without alterations in DNA sequence are called _____ modifications.

a. Epigenetic
b. Nutrigenomic
c. Nutrigenetic
d. Biogenetic

A

Epigenetic

176
Q

The ability of the cells to take up LDL particles may be influenced by mutations in the genes that code for _____.

a. VLDL lipase
b. LDL receptor proteins
c. SFA receptor proteins
d. MUFA transferase

A

LDL receptor proteins

177
Q

Triglycerides, aka triacylglycerides, (TAGs)

a. when elevated can be a risk marker for CVD and metabolic syndrome
b. can be catabolized to glycerol, and fatty acids which are then escorted into the mitochondria with the aid of carnitine
c. all of the above

A

all of the above

178
Q

The main weaknesses of a Food Frequency Questionnaire are except:

a. primarily provides qualitative info
b. literate and numerate dependent
c. can examine specific nutrients
d. doesn’t work well for individuals consuming atypical diets or foods not on the list

A

can examine specific nutrients

179
Q 
Angela has chronic heart failure. Which of the following supplements may most
beneficial for her?
a. Carnitine
b. CoenzymeQ10
c. Fish oil
d. Garlic capsules
A

CoenzymeQ10

180
Q

Nicole has kidney disease. Her blood levels of which minerals are likely to be disrupted because her kidneys cannot regulate their levels in her blood as they normally would?

A

Magnesium calcium, phosphorous

a. Magnesium calcium, phosphorous
b. Chloride, sodium, and potassium
c. Chloride, magnesium, potassium
d. Phosphorous, calcium, sodium

181
Q

A 72-year-old woman with a history of increased water intake and increased blood pressure (155/95 mmHg) is presented. The physician started the patient on hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg/day. Three weeks later the patient developed gait instability. Laboratory investigation showed hyponatremia (serum sodium 128 mEq/L, urea 15 mg/dL, creatinine 0.9 mg/dL). Which of the following statements are correct?

a. Diuretic-induced hyponatremia is the cause of the patient’s symptoms
b. Serum uric acid levels can help in the diagnosis of the pathogenetic mechanisms of hyponatremia (diuretic-induced hypovolemia versus SIADH)
c. Increased water intake may play a central role in the pathogenesis of hyponatremia
d. The co-administration of SSRIs can substantially increase the risk of hyponatremia in patients on thiazides

A

b. Serum uric acid levels can help in the diagnosis of the pathogenetic mechanisms of hyponatremia (diuretic-induced hypovolemia versus SIADH)

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion

182
Q

SIADH is

A

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion

SIADH makes it difficult for your body to get rid of excess water. This causes a buildup of fluids as well as abnormally low sodium levels. Symptoms may be mild and vague at first, but tend to build.

183
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about the cytochrome P450 system:

a. Detoxifies the drugs by enabling excretion in bile or urine
b. Is the second phase of a two-phase detoxification system
c. Located on the liver rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. Oxidizes lipophilic drugs and steroid hormones, thus making them hydrophilic

A

b. Is the second phase of a two-phase detoxification system

184
Q

Overconsumption of antacids, such as Rolaids or Maalox, can:

a. Deplete the body of the B vitamin riboflavin
b. Weaken bones by hindering their mineral uptake
c. Decrease vitamin C absorption

A

Weaken bones by hindering their mineral uptake

185
Q

Excessive use of the laxative mineral oil can deplete the body of:

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

186
Q

Large doses of zinc can interfere with the absorption of:

a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Iron and Calcium
d. Iron, Copper and Calcium

A

iron, Copper and Calcium

187
Q

A common indicator of Gastric acid insufficiency is:?

a. Chronic Halitosis
b. Loss of hearing
c. Rice watery stools
d. Diabetes

A

Chronic Halitosis

188
Q

A sign or symptom that is not related to intestinal dysfunction is:?

a. Burning or itching anus
b. Coated or fuzzy tongue
c. Large amounts of foul smelling gas
d. Night sweats

A

Night sweats

189
Q

Which of the following microorganisms is anaerobic, symptoms occur after 8-18 hours
including nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and diarrhea? It is also called the cafeteria
bug.
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Bacillus cerus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Clostridium perfringens

A

Clostridium perfringens

190
Q

Osteocalocin depends on which vitamin for synthesis?

A

Vitamin K

a. Cobalamin
b. Folic acid
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K

191
Q

Common sign of biliary insufficiency is:?

a. Light brown or yellow colored stools
b. Loss of taste
c. Loss of awareness while driving
d. Itchy skin

A

Light brown or yellow colored stools

192
Q

______ is when the kidneys produce too much hydrogen or retain to much hydrogen
which leads to an increase in carbonic acid production. Or the kidneys may excrete to
much base.
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Respiratory acidosis

A

Metabolic acidosis

193
Q

Symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia may include all of the following except:

a. Extreme, intermittent facial pain in the jaw or cheek
b. Tingling or numbness on one side of the face
c. Pain triggered by contact with the face or facial movements
d. Inability to swallow

A

Inability to swallow

Trigeminal neuralgia is a chronic pain condition that affects the trigeminal nerve, which carries sensation from your face to your brain. If you have trigeminal neuralgia, even mild stimulation of your face — such as from brushing your teeth or putting on makeup — may trigger a jolt of excruciating pain.

194
Q

Your patient/client has been taking statin drugs to block HMGCoA-Reductase, hence inhibit his body’s production of cholesterol. To which of the following conditions is he/she likely to be more vulnerable?

a. Compromised immunity and calcium reserves, also auto-immune conditions, due to low vitamin D
b. Fatigue and weakness due to impaired CoQ10 production
c. Muscle weakness and deterioration due to low testosterone
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

195
Q

Aspirin taken on a regular basis – say, by an arthritis or heart patient – can deplete the
body of:

A

Iron

a. Vitamin A
b. Iron
c. Manganese
d. thiamin

196
Q

Consuming fewer than 130 grams of carbohydrate per day may lead to:

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Kwashiorkor
c. Marasmus
d. Ketosis

A

Ketosis

197
Q

Which special supplemental nutrition program requires participants to be at nutritional risk?

a. Commodity Supplemental Food Program
b. Food Stamp Program
c. Head Start Program
d. Special Supplemental Foods Program for Women, Infants, and Children

A

Special Supplemental Foods Program for Women, Infants, and Children

198
Q

All of the following are broad based public health goals of Healthy People 2010 except…

a. Treating diseases
b. Increase in the span of a healthy life
c. Reduction in health disparities
d. All of the above

A

Treating diseases

199
Q

Information regarding the prevalence of nutrition-related health problems can be found in:

a. Healthy People 2011
b. NHANES III
c. Nationwide Food Consumption Survey
d. Nutrition Screening Initiative

A

NHANES III

200
Q

What are the 6 purposes of medical records?

a. medical, legal, communication, historical, initial evaluation, follow up evaluation
b. medical, legal, communication, client records, historical, evaluation
c. medical, legal, communication, financial, historical, evaluation
d. medical, legal, communication, financial, court records, evaluation

A

medical, legal, communication, financial, historical, evaluation

201
Q

Which of the following is the primary cause of food borne illness?

a. Bacteria
b. Parasites
c. Protozoa
d. Viruses

A

Bacteria

202
Q

A large group of people experience acute gastroenteritis 4-6 hours after eating custard

pie. Which bacteria is most likely the culprit?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus

A

Staphylococcus aureus

203
Q

Ray is cleaning up after the lunch service and realizes he has several quarts of pasta leftover. After pouring it into a new container, what is the proper procedure for handling the pasta?

a. Throw it out immediately
b. Label it, date it and store in the refrigerator
c. Leave it on the counter until the dinner service is served.
d. Label it, date it and store in the freezer

A

Label it, date it and store in the freezer

204
Q

HACCP is a(n)______________designed to prevent ___________ from occurring.

a. Inspection program, food outbreaks
b. Mandatory program, food outbreaks
c. Inspection program, foodborne illness
d. Food-safety program, foodborne illness

A

Food-safety program, foodborne illness

205
Q

is a branch of nutritional genomics and is the study of the effects of foods and food constituents on gene expression.

A

Nutrigenomics

206
Q

is a branch of nutritional genomics which aims to identify genetic susceptibility to diseases and genetic variation in the effects of nutrient intake on the genome

A

Nutrigenetics

207
Q

weight gain in pregnancy
under
normal
over

A

under - 28-40lb
normal - 25-35lb
over - 15-25lb

208
Q 
carries cholesterol from liver to body cells
VLDL
LDL
chylomicrons 
HDL
A

LDL

209
Q 
carries triglycerides from liver to body cells
VLDL
LDL
chylomicrons 
HDL
A

VLDL

210
Q 
carries cholesterol from body to liver for disposal
VLDL
LDL
chylomicrons 
HDL
A

HDL

211
Q 
carries lipids from small intestine to body cells
VLDL
LDL
chylomicrons 
HDL
A

chylomicrons

212
Q

Daily intakes of this mineral between 400 and 1000 mg may improve insulin resistance, hypertension and bone mineral density.

A

Mg

213
Q

The first step of cellular respiration is____ it occurs in the ___

A

glycolysis, cytoplasm

214
Q

The second step of cellular respiration is, called the ___. is when pyruvate is transported across the outer and inner mitochondrial membranes into the mitochondrial matrix.

A

acid cycle or Krebs cycle,

Pyruvate is further oxidized in the Krebs cycle producing two more molecules of ATP, as well as NADH and FADH 2 molecules. Electrons from NADH and FADH2 are transferred to the third step of cellular respiration, the electron transport chain.

215
Q

A total of___ ATP molecules are generated in electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.

A

32

216
Q

Diabetes diagnosis
A1C >=
FPG>=
2-hour PG >= ____ during an OGTT using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75g of anhydrous glucose dissolved in water
In patients with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis, a random plasma glucose >=

A

A1C >= 6.5%

FPG>= 126mg/dL

2-hour PG >= 200mg/dL during an OGTT using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75g of anhydrous glucose dissolved in water

In patients with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis, a random plasma glucose >= 200mg/dL

217
Q

pre-diabetes
FPG
2-hour PG in the 75g OGTT
A1C

A

FPG: 100 mg/dL - 125 mg/dL
2-hour PG in the 75g OGTT: 140mg/dL - 199 mg/dL
A1C 5.7-6.4%

218
Q 
Match the insulin with its action
rapid acting
short acting
intermediate
long acting
mixtures 
regular
Glargine (lantus), demtemir (levemir)
lispro (humalog), aspart (novolog), glulisine (apridra)
humalog, novalog, novolin
NPH
A

rapid acting - lispro (humalog), aspart (novolog), glulisine (apridra)
short acting - regular
intermediate - NPH
long acting - Glargine (lantus), demtemir (levemir)
mixtures -humalog, novalog, novolin

219
Q

in a non diabetic person, after eating, plasma glucose and insulin concentrations increase rapidly, peak in _____ and return to basal concentrations within ______

A

30-60 min, 2-3 hours

220
Q

in a non diabetic person, after eating, plasma glucose and insulin concentrations increase rapidly, peak in 30-60 min and return to basal concentrations within 2-3 hours. To mimic this, ____ insulin such as lispro, aspart, or gluisine, is given at _____, doses are adjusted based on the amount of carb in the meal.

A

fast-acting, mealtime

221
Q

in a non diabetic person, after eating, plasma glucose and insulin concentrations increase rapidly, peak in 30-60 min and return to basal concentrations within 2-3 hours. To mimic this, fast-acting insulin such as _______, is given at mealtime, doses are adjusted based on the amount of ____ in the meal.

A

lispro, aspart, or gluisine

carb

222
Q

____ or ____ insulin such as determir, glargine or NPH is require in the post absorptive state to restrain endogenous glucose output primarily from the liver and to limit lipolysis and excess flux of ____ to the liver

A

basal or background

free fatty acids

223
Q

basal or background insulin such as ___, ___ or ___ is require in the post absorptive state to restrain endogenous glucose output primarily from the liver and to limit lipolysis and excess flus of free fatty acids to the liver

A

determir, glargine or NPH

224
Q

determir, and glargine are insulin analogs of ___ duration with no peak action time. they can be injected any time during the day as long as they are taken ______ and cannot be mixed with other insulins.

A

24-hour

around the same time each day

225
Q

determir, and glargine are insulin analogs of 24-hour duration with ______ time. they can be injected any time during the day as long as they are taken around the same time each day and cannot be mixed with other insulins.

A

no peak action

226
Q

determir, and glargine can be mixed with other insulins

True or False

A

FALSE

227
Q

NPH is occasionally used as a ___ insulin but usually has to be taken ____ a day.

A

background, twice

228
Q

the type and timing of insulin regimens should be individualized based on ___ and ___ habits and ____ concentrations

A

eating, exercise, blood, glucose

229
Q

most patients need 1 unit of insulin for between _____ of carb, although some children may need 1 unit for ___ and some obese patient may need 1 unit for every __ of carb. When information is limited stat by trying 1 unit of rapid acting insulin for ___ of carb for an average size adult

A

8g and 16g
20g
5g
15g

230
Q 
normal values:
Plasma glucose
A1C
Cholesterol
HDL
LDL
Triglycerides
A 
Plasma glucose: 70-99mg/dL
A1C: 4-6 %
Cholesterol: <200mg/dL
HDL: >50 women >40 men
LDL: <100mg/dL
Triglycerides: <150mg/dL

Tommy's BCNS Board Exam (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions