Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Rule 26 of the federal rules of civil procedure

A

expert witnesses providing an opinion regarding future violence risk to submit a report prior to testifying

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2
Q

Examines the interplay among one’s own beliefs and how that fuels/prevents behaviors

A

Process variables

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3
Q

could be used to provide support or stability to a subject who is struggling or represent reasons that an individual would not engage in targeted violence

A

anchors

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4
Q

An event that is rare, predictable only in retrospect, with extreme impacts

A

Black swan event

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5
Q

The media used to transmit messages are referred to as ____________. Threat assessment uses this phrase when referring to the ways that information about threatening individuals can be gained by threat assessment teams

A

Communications channels

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6
Q

Sometimes referred to as situational factors. In threat assessment, the ______ refers to the situation and environment surrounding the subject or the target. These
can be personal, organizational, or on a larger scale (e.g., economic climate, world
news, etc.)

A

context factors

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7
Q

This phrase refers to any information which is collected, analyzed, or distributed for use in inhibiting or monitoring criminal activity

A

Criminal intelligence

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8
Q

The sum of background factors (peer group, security, access to weapons, etc.) affecting the situation of both the subject and the target. This includes organizational or cultural factors that impact tolerance or reporting of behaviors on the pathway to violence

A

Environmental influences

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9
Q

Ensuring that evidence is collected and maintained in a proper manner that will preserve the forensic value of the evidence.

A

Evidence preservation

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10
Q

Process of acquiring information and evidence (about the target, the subject, contacts, communication, past and present behavior, context) to support accurate
and complete assessment of risks and the best way to defuse them

A

fact finding

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11
Q

This is an act of spontaneous violence often sparked by situational or contextual triggers

A

impromptu violence

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12
Q

Careful consideration of converging evidence in a case to ascertain the level of threat posed and progress toward violence.

A

Information anaylsis

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13
Q

Process of obtaining information from all available sources to inform the analysis and decision making in a threat assessment

A

Information gathering

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14
Q

Facilitation of the flow of information among entities responsible for a case so that all parties have access to current, relevant information on which to base decision
making

A

Information sharing

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15
Q

Purposeful questioning of a subject to obtain accurate, useful, and timely information relevant to an investigation

A

Interrogation

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16
Q

An action or process that has the effect of modifying behavior, thinking, or emotions. In threat assessment, it is the action taken in implementation of a threat management strategy (e.g., interviewing, monitoring, etc.)

A

Intervention

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17
Q

Disciplinary actions toward a subject are often required in threat management to ensure a target’s safety; however, confrontational interventions can also negatively affect a subject’s well-being. The relationship among the target’s safety, the subject’s well-being, and the strategy used can be described as a ____________ in some situations because each impacts the other and often suggest different threat management decisions. Both should be considered and continuously assessed after intervention.

A

Intervention / Inhibitor Dichotomy

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18
Q

The case dynamic intensified by the stimulus of what the threat manager or target does or does not do in response to the threat situations

A

Intervention synergy

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19
Q

Similar in concept to intervention strategies, this is the range of levels of confrontation with the subject of a threat management case

A

Intervention vectors

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20
Q

Strategies to engage a subject in the interview in order to elicit information

A

Interview approaches

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21
Q

Plan for the goals and approaches to an interview (e.g., deciding what information will be sought, how the subject will be redirected, where the interview will take place, etc.)

A

Interview strategy

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22
Q

l or perceived close personal relationship, sometimes accompanied by physical or sexual contact

A

Intimacy

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23
Q

This is an active process of seeking out and finding information relevant to a threat assessment case.

A

Investigation

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24
Q

Any verbal interaction between a law enforcement officer and a civilian for which the purpose is gathering information

A

Investigative interview

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25
Q

style of management that focuses on short-term goals
with immediate payoffs at the expense of strategies with superior but distant payoffs

A

Myopic Management

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26
Q

Threat of a direct nature, describing a possible future act against the target (e.g., I will kill you)

A

Overt Threat

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27
Q

_____________ refer to strategies that employ measures comparable to the level of risk presented by the subject

A

Proportionate responses

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28
Q

Process of gathering detailed information surrounding an inappropriate communication or contact, including background on the subject, current behaviors, links to the target, and triggers for the communication. This information is used to create safety plans for the target

A

Protective fact finding

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29
Q

Actions taken in response to a criminal act or imminent threat to secure the target and ensure the target’s safety

A

Protective response

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30
Q

A threat management intervention that involves direct contact with the subject. The __________ can have many different purposes, including information gathering, refocusing or redirecting the subject, and warning or confronting the subject

A

Subject interview

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31
Q

Probabilities of risk at the extreme ends of a normal distribution. In threat assessment, this pertains because targeted violence has a very low rate of occurrence; however, the ____ should not be underestimated based on statistical probability that it will or will not happen

A

Tail risk

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32
Q

A condition in which the individual believes he or she is not in control of his or her actions, but instead is being commanded by an outside, usually malevolent force

A

Threat / Control override

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33
Q

Managing a subject’s behavior through interventions and strategies designed to disrupt or prevent an act of targeted violence.

A

Threat Management

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34
Q

The entirety of the steps taken to identify, assess,
and manage a threat assessment case. This includes developing, implementing, and monitoring a thorough plan unique to each subject and situation that includes
protective measures for the intended target

A

Threat mgmt process

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35
Q

A coordinated plan of direct or indirect interventions with the subject that, based on current information regarding level of threat posed, is designed to defuse the risk in a given situation at a particular point in time.

A

Threat mgmt strategy

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36
Q

Locations in which violence occurs or could potentially occur, including (but not limited to) workplaces, residences, and schools

A

Venues of violence

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37
Q

Working with the target to determine what a potential victim knows and needs to know, and how he or she finds out about the subject’s behaviors. Providing too much information can unnecessarily cause distress for the victim, while not presenting enough can lead to unsafe situations

A

Victim mgmt

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38
Q

The process by which a subject focuses on a target for his or her intended violence. This can include specific selection or opportunistic victims that happen to be at the location of an attack or included in some broad group which the subject has a grievance

A

Victim selection

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39
Q

A continuous investigative and analytical process of evaluating an individual’s probability of committing an act of violence based on personal and situational variables by an individual qualified (through training, experience, or education) to make risk determinations and recommendations for response, management, and
mitigation of that risk

A

Violence risk assessment

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40
Q

____ has many meanings depending on context. According to Homeland Security definitions, it refers to degree to which a target is at risk for attack or
disruption; in mental health circles, it is an innate propensity for a disorder or symptom cluster, which may only manifest given certain triggers. In
threat assessment, ____ is typically closer to the Homeland Security definition.

A

Vulnerability

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41
Q

Interview involving a third party, usually to inquire about information concerning threatening behaviors or contacts by the subject, or background information on the subject’s past or current behavior or mental status.

A

Witness interview

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42
Q

Case law: Advocacy of the use of force or of law violation is protected unless such advocacy is directed to inciting or producing imminent lawless action and is likely to incite or produce such action

A

Bradenburg v Ohio

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42
Q

Case law: Advocacy of the use of force or of law violation is protected unless such advocacy is directed to inciting or producing imminent lawless action and is likely to incite or produce such action

A

Bradenburg v Ohio

43
Q

Case law: intimidation is a type of true threat, where a speaker directs a threat to a person or group of persons with the intent of placing the victim in fear of bodily harm or death

A

Virginia v Black

44
Q

Case Law: established the test about what is considered free speech on school campuses as long as it does not materially disrupt or substantially disorder or invade the rights of others

A

Tinker v Des Moines Independent Community School District

45
Q

Case Law: The decision in ____ v ____, held that a student’s lewd speech at a school assembly is not constitutionally protected, reaffirming the principal in the other case ___ v ____, that students’ rights in public schools don’t automatically coextend with rights of adults in other settings

A

Bethel School District v Fraser

NJ v TLO

46
Q

Case Law: First amendment isn’t violated by educators exercising reasonable editorial powers over a school newspaper

A

Hazelwood School District v Kuhlmeier

47
Q

Case Law: The Supreme Court balanced governmental interests and employee rights, sustaining the constitutionality of federal statue that authorized removal or suspension without pay of an employee

A

Arnett v Kennedy

48
Q

Case Law: If an employee didn’t speak as a citizen on a matter of public concern, then the employee has no first amendment cause of action based on employer’s reaction to the speech

A

Garcetti v Ceballos

49
Q

Case Law: Supreme Court held, without the benefit of oral argument, that the First Amendment does not protect true threats. The Court also explained that political hyperbole does not qualify as such a threat.

A

Watts v United States

50
Q

Case Law: Also offers an objective standard of a true threat, emphasizing whether a reasonable person would perceive the statement as a serious expression

A

United States v Orozco-Santillan

51
Q

Case Law: Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals ruled that school officials did not violate a student’s First Amendment right of free expression when they temporarily expelled him for submitting a violent-themed poem to his English teacher.

A

LaVine v Blaine School District

52
Q

Case Law: a major decision of the Supreme Court of the United States concerning the First Amendment, specifically whether the protection of the First Amendment extends to government employees who make extremely critical remarks about the President

A

Rankin v McPherson

53
Q

Case Law: a major decision of the Supreme Court of the United States concerning the First Amendment, specifically whether the protection of the First Amendment extends to government employees who make extremely critical remarks about the President

A

Rankin v McPherson

54
Q

Case Law: students cannot be penalized for what they are thinking. If thoughts are then expressed in speech, the ability of the school to censor or punish the speech will be determined by whether it is a (1) true threat or () disruptive of the normal operation of the school

A

D.G. v Independent School District No. 11

55
Q

Case Law: a student’s rights were not violated when he got expelled after publishing a website with offensive comments about his algebra teacher, including a section “why should the teacher die” — although it occurred off school grounds, it substantially affected school functions, as the teacher became genuinely afraid,

A

J.S. v Bethlehem Area School District

56
Q

In domestic violent extremism, which three distal characteristics have been shown to distinguish between attackers and non-attackers?

A

Ideological framing
changes in thinking/emotion
creativity and innovation

57
Q

In domestic violent extremism, which four warning behaviors distinguish attackers from non-attackers?

A

Pathway
identification
energy burst
last resort

58
Q

Which five warning behaviors distinguish school shooters from non-shooters?

A

Think..these students be “FLIP-N” out (like flippin)

Fixation
Last resort
Identification
Pathway
Novel aggression

59
Q

Most common warning behaviors among extreme right wing, islamic, and single issue terrorists:

A

Think: these terrorists always FLIP

Fixation
Leakage
Identification
Pathway

60
Q

The most validated warning behaviors for discriminating between samples of attackers and non attackers…

A

pathway
identification
last resort

61
Q

Three structured instruments specifically for stalking threat and risk assessment

A

SAM, SRP, SASH

62
Q

The best way to find facts through interviewing is to question the _______ of the case which will identify inconsistencies or contradictions.

A

content

63
Q

_____ is activated when the interviewee feels that freedom of _____ is lost.

A

Reactance…….choice

64
Q

A growing body of research suggests that _____ interviewing encourage productive exchange of info and fights resistance

A

rapport-based

65
Q

Under the ADA, an employer may refuse to hire or terminate an individual believed to pose a direct threat, which can be determined by a _______ analysis

A

fact-intensive

66
Q

Under the ADA, an employer may refuse to hire or terminate an individual believed to pose a direct threat, which can be determined by a _______ analysis

A

fact-intensive

67
Q

When prosecuting stalking cases the primary focus should be on the ____ and ____ safety of the victim

A

short and long-term

68
Q

Case Law: For public sector employee speech to be protected, it must (1) involve an issue of public concern, like a significant event (2) outweigh the govt employer’s interest in avoiding impediments to carrying out its mission

A

Connick v Meyers

69
Q

______ is a type of speech that is protected by sections 7 and 8 of the National Labor Relations Act. It includes speech related to organizing, such as when 2 or more workers act of speak to help or protect one another related to conditions or terms of employment.

A

Concerted speech

70
Q

Employer control over speech equates to:

A

de facto discrimination

71
Q

The WAVR-21 is appropriate for which two contexts?

A

Workplace and campus

72
Q

Known red flags for femicide include:

A

Severe jealousy
Proprietariness
Access to firearms
Recent separation
Mental problems
Increase in frequency or severity of violence
Underemployment

73
Q

The WAVR-21 has good validity with which other two measures ?

A

CAG and HCR-20

74
Q

STEP model of school TV

A

subject’s traits and behaviors
target vulnerabilities
environment
precipitating events

75
Q

the _____ and _____, as opposed to the modality of electronic threats and communications, should be focused on instead

A

pattern and nature

76
Q

the proportion of relationships that actually exists in the network

A

Network density

77
Q

more influence if the person is an intermediary between people and messages

A

Betweenness centrality

78
Q

collection of nodes strongly connected to each other and reflect the existence of communities

A

Clustering and community detection algorithms

79
Q

the more links people have, the more the message spreads

A

Closeness centrality

80
Q

Most insider threat programs adopt a ___, ____, ____ program

A

deter, detect, mitigate

81
Q

Donald Casey’s fraud triangle of malicious insider condition

A

opportunity
rationalization
motivation

82
Q

The four categories of threat mgmt activities that should always be considered:

A

monitoring
treatment
supervision
victim safety planning

82
Q

The four categories of threat mgmt activities that should always be considered:

A

monitoring
treatment
supervision
victim safety planning

83
Q

Characteristics of false allegations of rape include

A

Accounts are less detailed
Complainants less likely to describe elements of behavior that don’t fit the popular conception of a rapist

84
Q

Although there is a small number of studies on false claims of stalking, they indicate that the largest proportion of false stalking victims are

A

delusional

85
Q

The phenomenon of gang stalking appears to be ______ in nature

A

delusional

86
Q

_______ are the main threat to public figures in western countries

A

Fixated loners

87
Q

An internet based service that was readily accessible and easy to use

A

The Threat Triage

88
Q

The Threat Triage uses a predictive model with 7 indicators, including:

A

1) Conceptual complexity
2) Paranoia
3) Indication of victim
4) Mention of love, marriage, romance
5) Use of polite language
6) Specification of harm to be inflicted on the victim
7) Previous contact by threatener with victim

89
Q

Each indicator of the Threat Triage and if its presence increases or decreases likelihood of approach behavior

A

1) Conceptual complexity - increases
2) Paranoia - decreases
3) Indication of victim - decreases
4) Mention of love, etc - increases
5) Polite language - decreases
6) Specification of harm - increases
7) Previous contact - increases (if 2 or more previous contacts)

90
Q

The ______ provides a recognizable referral pathway for clients who are assessed as moderate or high risk based on the nature of their behaviors rather than the mental disorder or criminal conviction

A

Problem Behaviour Program

91
Q

Ajzen’s theory of planned behavior says that behavior is determined by the person’s intention to perform the behavior and that behavior is a function of certain core beliefs, which are described by the following elements:

A

1) Attitude
2) Subjective norms
–Social normative beliefs
–Motivation to comply
3) Perceived behavioral control

92
Q

2 approaches for assessing subject’s stakes

A

1) JACA
2) Spectrum
a. nothing is at stake
b. normal acceptance
c. mild loss
d. much to lose
e. everything to lose

93
Q

in sum, a fully informed TA addresses the subject’s

A
  1. current capacity
  2. opportunity
  3. willingness
94
Q

ooda loop

A

observe, orient, decide, act

95
Q

calhoun and weston’s statuses of threat situations

A

active,
inactive
chronic/habitual
longterm

96
Q

the interaction between the knowns, unknowns, and need to know continuously assess each in determining the appropriate protective response at any given point in time

A

situation dynamics

97
Q

the situation dynamics intensified by the stimulus of whay the threat manager does or doesn’t do in response to the threat situation

A

intervention synergy

98
Q

the potential conflict between an intervention applied by a TM and the effect of the intervention on the subject’s inhibitors and stabilizers

A

intervention dichotomy

99
Q

Dietz study of those who approach celebrities found that __ to ___ communications to a particular celebrity were most likely to approacu

A

10 to 14

100
Q

Dietz findings about making a threat and approach behaviors towards congress membera and celebrities.

A

Negative correlation with congress and no correlation with celebrities

101
Q

sequential reciprocal response patterns in which interactants adjust to each other’s behavior

A

symbolic interactionism

102
Q

turner and gelles qualify conditional threats in a workplace setting, meaning that if some event does or doesn’t occur in the immediate future, then the threat would be carried out - immediate intervention may not b3 necessary

A
103
Q

the most common statistical measure of interrater reliability of violence risk assessment tools

A

intraclass correlati9lon coefficient

104
Q

anything below a ___ intraclass correlation coefficient should raise doubts

A

.40

105
Q

for AUC to be high look for scores greater than ___

A

.80