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Bacteriology Lecture (Midterm- Finals) > MIDTERM: Staphylococcus & Micrococcus > Flashcards

MIDTERM: Staphylococcus & Micrococcus Flashcards

1
Q

This term means “bunches of grapes”

A

Staphle

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2
Q

Colonies are produced after how many hours of incubation?

A

18-24 hours

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3
Q

Describe the usually appearance of Staphylococcus in culture?

A

medium size, cream colored, white or rarely light gold and buttery looking

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4
Q

These are responsible for several suppurative infections. These organisms are normal inhabitants of the skin and mucous membranes of humans and other animals.

A

Staphylococci

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5
Q

This the most virulent species of staphylococci encountered

A

Staphylococcus areus

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6
Q

The most clinically significant species. It causes various cutaneous infections and purulent abscesses.

A

Staphylococcus areus

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7
Q

State the superficial skin and soft tissues infections caused by S. areus

A

Impetigo and cellulitis

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8
Q

S. aureus is a common cause of infective endocarditis and toxin-induced disease, such as?

A

food poisoning, (and is associated with scalded skin syndrome (SSS) and toxic shock syndrome (TSS) )

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9
Q

The reason why your S. aureus causes a lot of disease

A

Virulence factors

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10
Q

A protein that has sites that is able to bind the FC portion of IgG.

A

Protein A

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11
Q

This help penicillinase (betalactamase) to disrupt the beta lactam portion of the molecule rendering the antibiotic useless against this organism

A

Coagulase

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12
Q

This protein protects the organism from opsonization and phagocytosis of neutrophils

A

Protein A

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13
Q

An enzyme that can even lead to fibrin formation around the bacteria and protect it from phagocytosis

A

Coagulase

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14
Q

They are able to destroy or hemolysed your red blood cells. (They can even destroy neutrophils, macrophages, and platelet)

A

Hemolysin

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15
Q

Acts on sphingomyelin in the plasma membrane of erythrocytes and is also called the “hot-cold” lysin

A

Beta toxins (sphingomyelinase C)

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15
Q

This test performed in the laboratory to identify group B streptococci.

A

Christie, Atkins, and Munch- Petersen(CAMP)test

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16
Q

Disrupts smooth muscle in blood vessels and is toxic to erythrocytes, leukocytes, hepatocytes, and platelets

A

Alpha toxins

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17
Q

This toxin is seen as enhanced hemolytic activity on incubation at 37° C and subsequent exposure to cold (4° C).

A

“hot-cold” feature of Beta toxins (sphingomyelinase C)

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18
Q

Produced by all strains of S. aureus and may actually function in association with the Panton- Valentine leukocidin (PVL).

A

Gamma toxins

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19
Q

Cytolytic to erythrocytes and demonstrates nonspecific membrane toxicity to other mammalian cells.

A

Delta toxins

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20
Q

Enumerate the species of Staphylococcus that have been identified as capable of producing delta toxins

A

S. aureus
S. epidermidis
S. haemolyticus

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21
Q

An exotoxin lethal to polymorphonuclear leukocytes

A

Panton - Valentine leukocidin (PVL)

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22
Q

Contributes to the invasiveness of the organism by suppressing phagocytosis and has been associated with severe cutaneous infections and necrotizing pneumonia

A

Panton- Valentine leukocidin (PVL)

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23
Q

Spreading factor; Permits bacteria to spread through connective tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

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23
Q

it is often associated with community-acquired staphylococcal infections and might be a marker for such infections

A

Panton-Valentine leukocidin

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24
Q

Breaks down the proteoglycans in our connective tissue

A

Hyaluronidase

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25
Q

Able to degrade fats and oils that are often accumulated the surface of our body

A

Lipase

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25
Q

Protein that lyses the formed fibrin clots; similar to streptokinase produced by Streptococcus

A

Staphylokinase

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26
Q

This particular degradation facilitates the ability of S. aureus to colonize especially our sebaceous glands

A

Lipase

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27
Q

Destroys protein

A

Protease

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28
Q

Illness most common in women 15-25 years of age who use tampons during menstruation

A

Toxic shock syndrome (Exotoxin TSST-1)

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29
Q

Cause of the majority of staphylococcal food poisoning cases but only happens rarely any only be fatal to immunocompromised individuals

A

Enterotoxins A-E

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30
Q

Cause the epidermal layer of the skin to slough off and are known to cause staphylococcal SSS (Skin Scald Syndrome)

A

Exfoliative Toxins

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31
Q

Most significant exfoliative toxin

A

epidermolytic toxin A & B

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31
Q

What is the cause of Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A

exotoxin-TSST 1 or the pyrogenic exotoxin C

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32
Q

It will cause fever, desquamation, hypotension, and could even lead to bacterial shock and death

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

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32
Q

Damages erythrocytes, platelets, and macrophages

A

Alpha toxin

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33
Q

Found in some CoNS strains as well as S. aureus. Less toxic than other hemolysins

A

Delta toxins

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34
Q

Also known as sphingomyelinase C

A

Beta toxin

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35
Q

Polymophonuclear toxicity

A

Panton-Valentine leukocidin

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36
Q

Disrupts the erythrocyte plasma membranes. Responsible for CAMP assay effectiveness

A

Beta toxin

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36
Q

Associated with Panton Valentine leukocidin

A

Gamma toxin

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37
Q

Enzyme that cleaves the ring structure of penicillins and derivative antibiotics making them ineffective

A

B-lactamase

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38
Q

Permits bacteria to spread through connective tissue

A

Hyaluronidase

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39
Q

Altered membrane binding protein

A

Penicillin-binding protein 2

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40
Q

Responsible for a positive tube coagulate test results. Also present in S. intermedius, S. pseudintermedius, S. hyicus, S. deelphini, S. lutrae, S. agnetis, ans some S. schleiferi

A

Staphylocoagulase

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41
Q

Common to S. aureus and CoNS. Degrades lipids on skin surface making it more susceptible to bacterial entry into epidermal layers

A

Lipases

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42
Q

A superantigen causing an overactive immune response. Formerly known as enterotoxin F

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin- 1

43
Q

Binds lgG and prevents phagocytosis

A

Protein A

44
Q

These cause the majority of staphylococcal food poisoning cases

A

Enterotoxins A, B, and D

44
Q

Enterotoxins A-E, G, J are described as?

A

Heat stable

45
Q

Enterotoxins that can cause enterocolitis

A

Enterotoxins B, and C and rarely G and I

46
Q

Solely responsible for SSS and present in a minority of S. aureus species. May also cause bullous impetigo

A

Exfoliative toxins

47
Q

Also known as epidermolytic toxin

A

Exfoliative toxins

48
Q

Less virulent than S. aureus and are opportunistic pathogens

A

S. epidermis

48
Q

Common source of hospital-acquired infections. UTIs; Prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

S. epidermis

49
Q

Their prevalence as healthcare associated pathogens is more related to medical procedure and practices than the organism itself capability to established an infection

A

S. epidermis

49
Q

Usually involve implantation of medical devices; infection can even resemble S.aureus infection

A

S. lugdunensis

49
Q

This particular genus is resistant to oxacillin

A

S. lugdunensis

50
Q

Associated with UTIs in young sexually active females; second most common cause, after E. coli

A

S. saprophyticus

50
Q

Commonly isolated CoNS. It has been reported in wounds, bacteremia, endocarditis, and UTIs

A

S. haemolyticus

51
Q

Why does S. lugdunensis resembles S. aureus infection?

A

both are community-associated and hospital acquired infections

52
Q

Species less commonly seen but established as opportunistic pathogens

A

S. warneri
S. capitis
S. simulans
S. hominis
S. schleifer

53
Q

Sterile site by traumatic introduction

A

Endogenous strain

54
Q

Endocarditis caused by this organism is particularly aggressive, frequently requiring valve replacement, and infections have a high mortality rate

A

S. lugdunensis

54
Q

This particular organism display resistance to vancomycin

A

S. haemolyticus

54
Q

This organism is more virulent than other is known to contain the gene mecA, which encodes oxacillin resistance

A

S. lugdunensis

55
Q

Indirect contact:

A

aerosolized

56
Q

Direct contact:

A

person-to- person, fomites

57
Q

The greatest prevention (of bacterial infections)

A

strengthen our immune system
and avoid abuse of antibiotics

58
Q

Staphylococcus is non fastidious and can generally grow on any primary plating media. However, if
you want to be more selective, you can use _________ or ____________

A

Phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) or Columbia colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA) agars

59
Q

Staphylococcus aureus growing on Sheep Blood Agar would produced

A

beta-hemolytic, creamy, buttery-looking colonies

60
Q

The term “aureus” has something to do with?

A

production of the golden yellow pigment (Staphyloxanthin)

61
Q

This agar contains a high concentration of salt (7.5%-10%), the sugar mannitol, and phenol red as the pH indicator

A

Mannitol Salt Agar

62
Q

The addition of this substance in MSA makes the medium selective for Staphylococcus

A

high NaCl concentration (7.5%)

62
Q

Incorporation of these in MSA distinguishes S. aureus from most CoNS (Coagulase negative staphy)

A

Mannitol and phenol red

63
Q

This ferments mannitol and produces a yellow halo on this media as a result of acid production altering the pH

A

S. aureus

63
Q

This staphylococci may also ferment mannitol and thus resemble S. aureus on MSA medium

A

S. saprophyticus

64
Q

This can be used for the identification of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) isolates through the selective and differential formation of mauve-colored colonies

A

CHROM Agar

65
Q

Catalase test detects the presence of what enzyme?

A

Catalase

65
Q

These are fastidious, requiring carbon dioxide, hemin, or menadione for growth. These so-called small colony variants (SCVs) grow on media containing blood, forming colonies about one tenth the size of wild-type strains even after 48 hours or more of incubation.

A

Rare strains of staphylococci

65
Q

Appear as small, pinpoint, nonhemolytic, and nonpigmented colonies on blood agar

A

small colony variants of S. aureus

65
Q

A test that differentiate Catalase positive Micrococcus & Staphyloccocus species from that of Catalase negative Streptococcus

A

Catalase Test

66
Q

This enzyme converts hydrogen peroxide into oxygen and water

A

catalase

67
Q

How many drop of hydrogen peroxide do you place in a catalase test?

A

1 drop of 30% or 3% Hydrogen peroxide

68
Q

Bound coagulase, or “clumping factor”

A

Slide Coagulase Test

69
Q

Free coagulase or staphylocoagulase

A

Tube Coagulase Test

70
Q

Formerly referred to as cell-bound coagulase, causes agglutination in human, rabbit, or pig plasma.

A

Clumping factor

71
Q

An extracellular molecule that causes a clot to form when bacterial cells are incubated with plasma

A

Staphylocoagulase

72
Q

This reacts with a thermostable, thrombin-like molecule called coagulase-reacting factor (CRF) to form coagulase-CRF complex

A

Staphylocoagulase

73
Q

The positive result of Slide Coagulase test

A

Clumping within 30 seconds

74
Q

The positive result of Tube Coagulase Test

A

Clot formation

75
Q

How many hours do you incubate the test tube in the Tube Coagulase Test?

A

4 hours of incubation at 37° C

76
Q

After four hours of incubation, still no clot appears. What is the next step?

A

Tube should be left at room temperature and checked the next day

77
Q

These are the organisms that may present a false positive result in the slide coagulase test

A

S.lugdunensis
S.schleiferi

78
Q

These are the organisms that may present a false positive result in the tube coagulase test

A

S.intermedius
S.hyicus

79
Q

This is used to differentiate S. aureus (negative) from S. lugdunensis, S. intermedius, and S. schleiferi (positive)

A

Pyrrolidonyl arylamidase activity or PYR test

80
Q

What is the positive result for the Voges-Proskauer (VP) Test?

A

formation of acetoin from
glucose or pyruvate; red color

81
Q

This is a test to determine whether an organism that is inoculated in the plate is susceptible to 5-ug novobiocin disk

A

Novobiocin Susceptibility Test

82
Q

This is the staphylococcus that is resistant to novobiocin

A

S. saprophyticus

83
Q

Used to differentiate coagulase-negative staphylococci (CoNS) isolated from urine samples

A

Novobiocin Susceptibility Test

84
Q

In Microdase test, what organism/screening plate shows resistance to Bacithracin (Taxo A) and furazolidone (Fx)

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

85
Q

A modified oxidase test, detects your Cytochrome C; and is used for differentiating Micrococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.

A

Microdase test

86
Q

They are particularly useful for the identification of MRSA organisms, which are often weakly positive or negative in the slide coagulase test

A

Kits (Immunodiagnosis)

87
Q

Besides detecting protein A and clumping factor, it contains antibodies that bind capsular antigens 5 and 8 or other surface molecules.

A

Third-generation agglutination kits

88
Q

Mediated by the mecA gene, which encodes an altered penicillin-binding protein, PBP-2a.

A

B-Lactamase

89
Q

Due to the gene mecA which is carried in a mobile cassette known as SCCmec

A

MRSA

90
Q

What is the cause of why a lot of strain displays resistance against methicillin, nafcillin, and oxacillin medications?

A

The production of Beta-lactamase

91
Q

When using a cefoxitin disk, isolates ____ is considered as
susceptible and those with zone sizes that are _______ are reported as oxacillin-resistant

A

> 22 mm and less or equal
(</= 21 mm), respectively

92
Q

The gold standard for MRSA detection

A

Presence of mecA gene; molecular nucleic acid probes or pCR amplification

93
Q

What agar do we use to screen isolates of S. aureus for oxacillin resistance?

A

Mueller Hinton agar (supplemented with 4% sodium chloride)

94
Q

Resistance to macrolide is mediated by:

A

Clindamycin
Efflux pump, MRSA
Methylase enzyme that alters the ribosomal
binding site. Erm
D-zone test

95
Q

What test do you perform to determine the organism’s susceptibility to Clindamycin?

A

Kirby-Bauer test or the Dzone test

96
Q

In the Dzone test, how do you know if the organism displays resistance to clindamycin in the presence of erythromycin?

A

Cells will demonstrate a characteristic Dzone pattern

97
Q

The most commonly used cell wall–active agent that retains activity and is an alternative drug for the treatment of infections with resistant strains.

A

Vancomycin

98
Q

Alternatives for vancomycin

A

Linezolid & Daptomycin

99
Q

Readily detected using standard microdilution techniques

A

Vancomycin Resistance

100
Q

Distance of clindamycin disk from the erythromycin disk in the Dzone test

A

15 mm

Bacteriology Lecture (Midterm- Finals) (9 decks)

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