MIDTERM SKELETAL Flashcards

1
Q

is the body system composed of bones, cartilages, ligaments and other tissues that perform essential functions for the human body.

A

The skeletal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The skeletal system is the body system composed of WHAT that perform essential functions for the human body.

A

bones, cartilages, ligaments and other tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

is a hard, dense connective tissue that forms most of the adult skeleton, the internal support structure of the body.

A

Bone tissue, or osseous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

These bones are arranged into two major divisions:

A

the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The axial skeleton runs along the body’s midline axis and is made up of 80 bones in the following regions:

A

Skull
Hyoid
Auditory ossicles
Ribs
Sternum
Vertebral column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The axial skeleton runs along the body’s midline axis and is made up of how many bones

A

80 bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The appendicular skeleton is made up of 126 bones in the following regions:

A

Upper limbs
Lower limbs
Pelvic girdle
Pectoral (shoulder) girdle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The appendicular skeleton is made up of how many bones

A

126 bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The skeletal system’s primary function is to form

A

a solid framework that supports and protects the body’s organs and anchors the skeletal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

act as a hard shell to protect the internal organs such as the brain and the heart from damage caused by external forces.

A

bones of the axial skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

provide support and flexibility at the joints and anchor the muscles that move the limbs.

A

bones of the appendicular skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

FUNCTION OF THE SKELETAL SYSTEM:

A

SUPPORT AND PROTECTION
MOVEMENT
НЕМАТОPOIESIS
STORAGE
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

THE SKELETAL SYSTEM: CONGENITAL/HEREDITARY DISEASES

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta
Achondroplasia
Osteopetrosis (marble bone)
Hand and foot malformations
Congenital dislocation of the hip
Vertebral anomalies
Cranial anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A serious dominant, congenital disease that affects the newborn skeletal system.

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Due to its abnormal fragile bone, infants afflicted are born with multiple fractures.

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Also called BRITTLE BONE SYNDROME

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The most common inherited disorder that results in malformation and dwarfism.

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Due to cartilage located in the epiphyses of long bones that does not convert to a bone.

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Patients with such condition present a normal size trunk but with shortened extremities.

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Term characterizing various disorders that involves increase in bone density and defective bone contour (skeletal modeling)

A

OSTEOPETROSIS (MARBLE BONE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

also known as marble bone

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is a common form of osteosclerotic osteoporosis that is considered a benign skeletal anomaly involving bone density.

A

ALBERS-SCHONBERG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

failure of the fingers and toes to separate that gives a physical appearance of webbed digit.

A

SYNDACTYLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are teh two HAND AND FOOT MALFORMATIONS

A

SYNDACTYLY
POLYDACTYLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

types of POLYDACTYLY

A

preaxial (radial)
central
postaxial (ulnar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the presence of extra digits.

A

POLYDACTYLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A malformation of the acetabulum due to incomplete formation resulting in displacement of the head of the femur.

A

CONGENITAL DISLOCATION OF THE HIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Very common in females and can be created through casting or splinting of the affected hip.

A

CONGENITAL DISLOCATION OF THE HIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Present at birth when your hip joint is dislocated or unstable because of this condition it’s hard for patients when it comes to movement and having potential joint problems later in life. Depend on extent or in severity of the condition of the patien

A

CONGENITAL DISLOCATION OF THE HIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CONGENITAL DISLOCATION OF THE HIP

Very common in females and can be created through WHAT

A

casting or splinting of the affected hip.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A soft brace that helps hold the baby’s legs in a position that allows their hip joint to be aligned and stable so that it develops correctly.

A

The Pavlik harness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is a “dynamic brace,” meaning that it is not rigid and allows the baby to move their legs.
But allows the hip joint to be aligned

A

The Pavlik harness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what device But allows the hip joint to be aligned

A

Pavlik harness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

abnormality in vertebrae which can include missing vertebrae or fused of vertebrae or malformations. If patient have abnormality have a higher potential in movement and posture.

A

VERTEBRAL ANOMALIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that tends to affect female more frequently can either be convex to the right in the thoracic region or left in the lumbar region.

A

SCOLIOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

SCOLIOSIS
can be corrected by doing what

A

surgically or by placing a brace or body cast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

an incomplete closure of the vertebral canal particularly in the lumbosacral area which results in failure of bony fusion of the two laminae that is visible radiographically.

A

SPINA BIFIDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

an abnormality in the structure of the skull which can include craniosynostosis.

A

CRANIAL ANOMALIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

premature or early closure of any of the cranial suture.

A

CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

causes an overgrowth in the fused sutures allowing the brain to grow, thus altering the shape of the head.

A

CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ANENCEPHALY

3 factors:

A

genes, environmental and multifactorial (combination of two,)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

results in no formation of the brain and cranial vault leaving only the facial bones to be formed. This result in death can be diagnosed by sonography and radiography.

A

ANENCEPHALY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

THE SKELETAL SYSTEM: INFLAMMATORY DISEASES

A

Osteomyelitis
Tuberculosis
Arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Osteoarthritis
Inflammation of associated joint structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An infection of the bone and bone marrow resulting from a direct infection such as an open fracture.

A

OSTEOMYELITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Generally affected are the infants and children because of low resistance combined with the virulence of the organism.

A

OSTEOMYELITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In adults, it affects the ends of the long bones of the lower limbs.

A

OSTEOMYELITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Usually cause by bacteria, it can lead inflammation, pain and bone destruction in the ends of lower limbs.

A

OSTEOMYELITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

chronic inflammatory disease affecting the ends tong bones or of the spine. Radiographically displays a worm-eaten appearance infecting the joint spaces.

A

TUBERCULOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the tuberculosis of the spine causing softening and eventual collapse of the vertebrae resulting in abscess formation pressure in spinal cord.

A

POTT’S DISEASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bacterial infection primarily affects the lungs and can spread of the body bones and joints and having a painful condition, if the patient have a tuberculosis in bones and joints or specifically in spine.

A

TUBERCULOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Defined as inflammation of the joints

A

ARTHRITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

commonly pyogenic arthritis caused by staphylocci, streptocci and gonococci.

A

ACUTE ARTHRITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ACUTE ARTHRITIS: commonly WHAT

A

commonly pyogenic arthritis caused by staphylocci, streptocci and gonococci.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

chronic inflammatory disorder affecting the synovial joints; common in women aged 20 to 50.

A

RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

.
Caused pain, swelling and stifness, lessen the mobility

A

ARTHRITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A progressive form of arthritis that is a chronic condition affecting the spine and sacroiliac joints of males aged 10 to 30 years.

A

ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS
A progressive form of arthritis that is a chronic condition affecting the spine and sacroiliac joints of males aged from what

A

males aged 10 to 30 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It leads to rigidity and fixation making the spine a rigid block of bone referred to as a bamboo spine resulting in bone fusion (ankylosis)

A

ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type of inflammatory arthritis which affects the spine, the patient’s severe pain and stiffness can result from fusion over time.

A

ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The most common type of arthritis known for as degenerative joint disease.

A

OSTEOARTHRITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

OSTEOARTHRITIS
The most common type of arthritis known for as

A

degenerative joint disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Affects male and female equally resulting from a inflammatory non- deterioration of the joint cartilage that occurs with the normal wear and tear of aging

A

OSTEOARTHRITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

normal function of wear using the abnormal in using usually old age, gamit na gamit na yung part of the joint other example in athlete.

A

Wear and tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TWO TYPES OF INFLAMMATION OF ASSOCIATED JOINT STRUCTURES

A

TENDONITIS
BURSITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

inflammation of the tendons (connective tissues attaching the muscles to the bones, enclosed in a sheath)

A

TENDONITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

inflammation of the bursa (bursea) which is surrounded with synovial membrane.

A

bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

THE SKELETAL SYSTEM: METABOLIC DISEASES

A

Osteoporosis
Osteomalacia
Paget’s disease
Acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

bone its overly dense.

A

Osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

its a bone that loss of bone density.

A

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A metabolic disorder common in women post menopause. There is an abnormal decrease in bone density.

A

OSTEOPOROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

in postmenopausal women, hormone estrogen is decreased or lost causing the bones to become “porous”.

A

OSTEOPOROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

OSTEOPOROSIS

in postmenopausal women, hormone estrogen is decreased or lost causing the bones to become “what”.

A

“porous”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Its severity leads to a compressión fracture.

A

OSTEOPOROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Condition in where weakening of bones and prone in fracture because loss of density and mass associated in aging, hormonal changes or certain medications. Its severity can lead to compression fracture.

A

OSTEOPOROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Metabolic condition due to lack of calcium in the tissues and a failure of bone to calcify.

A

OSTEOMALACIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Metabolic condition due to lack of calcium in the tissues and a failure of bone to WHAT.

A

calcify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Results from inadequate intake of calcium, phosphorous, vitamin D.

A

OSTEOMALACIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Results from inadequate intake of WHAT

A

calcium, phosphorous, vitamin D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is caused by vitamin D deficiency in children.

A

Rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rickets is caused by WHAT in children.

A

vitamin D deficiency

11
Q

Softening of the bones, softening because it lacks vitamin d, calcium and phosphate. Bone pain and weakness increase risk of fracture. Most like in adult.

A

OSTEOMALACIA

11
Q

is the most common in elderly of unknown etiology.

A

PAGET’S DISEASE

11
Q

Chronic disorder when its affect the normal cycle of bone remodeling, the normal cycle affects it can result in enlargement, weak bone it can lead to pain , deformity, fractures. Most common in elderly unknown in etiology, affects the spine, skull and long bone

A

PAGET’S DISEASE

11
Q

Affects the pelvis, spine, skull and the long bones.

A

PAGET’S DISEASE

11
Q

Complications may lead to hearing and vision disturbances and even to malignant neoplastic disease of the skeletal system, osteogenic sarcoma.

A

paget’s disease

11
Q

An endocrine disorder due to disturbance of the pituitary gland.

A

ACROMEGALY

11
Q

It is a slowly progressive disease in in which n which there is an increase in growth of the hormone that will thicken and make the bone coarse because of the epiphyses. closing and bone that does not grow in length anymore

A

ACROMEGALY

11
Q

It is endocrine disorder because something pituitary gland, it has a benign tumor locate in pituitary gland it has a abnormality in pituitary gland it can excess growth hormone because of that release of growth hormones it lead of abnormal growth of tissue, vine especially the feet, hands and face because the excess growth of hormone.

A

acromegaly

11
Q

A discontinuity of bone caused by mechanical forces either applied to the bone or transmitted directly along the line of a bone

A

fractures

11
Q

A discontinuity of bone caused by what either applied to the bone or transmitted directly along the line of a bone

A

Fractures

11
Q

A discontinuity of bone caused by mechanical forces either applied to the bone or transmitted directly along the

A

line of a bone

11
Q

one in which the bone penetrate the skin.

A

OPEN OR COMPOUND FRACTURES

11
Q

one in which the skin is not penetrated, thus reducing the chance of infection.

A

CLOSED FRACTURE

11
Q

these in which the bone has separated in two fragments.

A

COMPLETE, NON-COMMINUTED FRACTURE

11
Q

those in which only part of the bony structure gives way, with little or no displacement.

A

INCOMPLETE

11
Q

types of fractures:

A

TRANSVERSE
FISSURE
Oblique
Spiral
Longitudinal
Impacted
Torus
Comminuted
Double
Avulsion
Stress/Fatigue
Pathologic

11
Q

COMMON FRACTURE:

A

COMMON FRACTURE:
Bennett’s Fracture
Colle’s
Smith’s
Supracondylar:
Carpal-Navicular Fracture
Pott’s
Hip Fracture
Bimalleolar Fracture
Trimalleolar Fracture
Fracture of the Base of the Fifth Metatarsal
Stellate Fracture
Butterfly
Greenstick
Multiple
Chip
Penetrating
Boxer’s:
Monteggia

11
Q

complete fractures that are at right angles to the long axis of the bone

A

TRANSVERSE

11
Q

a type of incomplete fracture that extends from the surface into but not all the way through a long bone.

A

FISSURE

11
Q

the axis of the fracture is neither parallel nor perpendicular to the bone. The length and angle of the fracture depend on the rotational stress

A

Oblique

11
Q

the bone appears to be This is very common in the humerus, and especially the tibia of skiers twisted apart.

A

Spiral

11
Q

a lengthwise break in bone

A

Longitudinal

11
Q

one bone fragment is driven into another

A

Impacted

11
Q

a type of impacted fracture that is especially common in the distal radius of children.

A

Torus

11
Q

the bone is separated into two or more and often numerous fragments

A

Comminuted

11
Q

fracture of a bone in two district places

A

Double

11
Q

occur when fragment of bone is pulled away from the shaft

A

Avulsion

11
Q

fractures that usually occur as a result of a strong, violent force

A

Stress/Fatigue

11
Q

Occur at sites of maximal strain on a bone, usually in connection with unaccustomed activity

A

Stress/Fatigue

11
Q

commonly a transverse fracture occurring in abnormal bone that is weakened by various disease

A

Pathologic

11
Q

a fractures of the base of the first metacarpal with involvement of the first carpometacarpal joint

A

Bennett’s Fracture

11
Q

a fracture through the distal one-inch of the radius.

A

Colle’s

11
Q

a reverse Colle’s fracture with displacement toward the palmar aspect of the hand

A

Smith’s

11
Q

a common pediatric fracture in which there is an alteration in the alignment of the condyles may come to lie directly under the shaft of the humerus

A

Supracondylar

11
Q

usually caused by falling on one’s hand

A

Carpal-Navicular Fracture

11
Q

involves both malleoli, with dislocations of the ankle joint

A

Pott’s

12
Q

the exact location and severity of a hip fracture depend on the direction of the forces involved. -The most common type of hip fractures include subcapital, transcervical and interthrocanteric

A

Hip Fractures

12
Q

a fracture of the lateral and medial mallelous.

A

Bimalleolar Fracture

12
Q

has three components: the medial and lateral mallelous and the posterior distal tibia

A

Trimalleolar Fracture

12
Q

a common transverse fracture that occurs when the foot is suddenly twisted when the ankle pronates

A

Fracture of the Base of the Fifth Metatarsal

12
Q

occurs when a person falls directly on the patellae, shattering it

A

Stellate Fracture

12
Q

a communited fracture in which there are one or more wing or wedge shaped fragments split off from the main fragments

A

Butterfly

12
Q

in which the cortex breaks on one side without separation or breaking of the opposing cortex

A

Greenstick

12
Q

another type of complete, non-communited fracture in which two or more complete sampling to fractures occur involving the shaft of a single bone.

A

Multiple

12
Q

an avulsion fracture of a small fragmentof bone from the cornet of a phalanx or other long bone

A

chip

12
Q

type of incomplete fracture resulting from penetration by a sharp object such a bullet or a knife

A

Penetrating

12
Q

occurs when the fifth metacarpal fractures as a result of a blow to or with the hand

A

Boxer’s

12
Q

one of the proximal third of the ulna shift, with anterior dislocation of the radial head

A

Monteggia

12
Q

cerebral cranial features

A

LINEAR
DEPRESSED
BASILAR SKULL FRACTURES:

12
Q

appear as straight sharply defined, non-branching lines and are intensely radiolucent

A

LINEAR

12
Q

appears as curvilinear density because the fracture edges are overlapped.

A

DEPRESSED

12
Q

very difficult to demonstrate radiographically.

A

BASILAR SKULL FRACTURES

12
Q

Air-fluid levels in the sphenoid sinus and/or clouding of the mastoid air cells are often the only radiographic finding suggesting a fracture.

A

BASILAR SKULL FRACTURES

12
Q

VISCERAL CRANIAL FRACTURE

A

FACIAL BONE:
ZYGOMATIC ARCH FRACTURE:
MANDIBULAR FRACTURE
FRACTURES OF THE MAXILLA
BLOW-OUT:
TRIPOD
NASAL BONE FRACTURE

12
Q

generally result from a blow to the face

A

FACIAL BONE

12
Q

maybe difficult to recognize initially because of the edema.

A

ZYGOMATIC ARCH FRACTURE

12
Q

generally detected by the patients inability to open the mouth and pain when moving the mandible.

A

MANDIBULAR FRACTURE.

12
Q

serious because of the adjacent nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, orbit and close proximity of the brain

A

FRACTURES OF THE MAXILLA

12
Q

results from a direct blow to the front of the orbit, thus transferring the force to the orbital walls and floor.

A

BLOW-OUT

12
Q

occurs when the zygomatic or malar bone is fractured at all three sutures: frontal, temporal and maxillary.

A

TRIPOD

12
Q

may be accompanied by a fracture of the ascending process of the maxillae and/or the nasal septum, which is composed of the vomer and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

A

NASAL BONE FRACTURE

12
Q

implies that a bone is out of its joint and not in contact with its normal articulation.

A

Dislocations

12
Q

is a partial dislocation, often occurring with a fracture

A

Subluxation

12
Q

The causes of vertebral column injuries include

A

direct trauma, hyperextension-flexion injuries (whiplash), osteoporosis or metastatic destruction.

12
Q

Perhaps the most common condition of the vertebral column is generalized WHAT PAIN, typically in the lumbar area.

A

back pain

12
Q

Perhaps the most common condition of the vertebral column is generalized back pain, typically in the WHAT area.

A

lumbar area.

12
Q

T OR F. Such back pain may not always result from bony involvement.

A

true

12
Q

T or F Such back pain may always result from bony involvement.

A

false

12
Q

can cause muscle spasm with pain referral throughout the back

A

disk disease

12
Q

back pain may be secondary to referred pain from the WHAT PART.

A

hip

12
Q

are the most frequent type of injury involving a vertebral body.

A

Compression fractures

12
Q

is a fracture of the arch of the second cervical vertebrae and is usually accompanied by anterior subluxation of the second cervical vertebrae or the third cervical vertebrae.

A

Hangman’s fracture

12
Q

exists when there is a cleft or breaking down, of the body of the vertebral between the superior and inferior articular processes (pars interarticularis). Typically this occurs in the arch of the fifth lumbar vertebrae and appears radiographically as a “collar” or “broken neck” on the Scotty dog appearance and is demonstrated on an oblique projection of the lumbar spine, When forward slippage of the vertebral column off a vertebrae occurs because of spondylolysis, it is known as spondylolithesis. The patient with this condition may present symptoms identical to those of a herniated disk.

A

Spondylolysis

12
Q

Spondylolysis exists when there is a cleft or breaking down, of the body of the vertebral between the WHAT. .

A

the superior and inferior articular processes (pars interarticularis)

12
Q

Spondylolysis

Typically this occurs in the WHAT vertebrae

A

the arch of the fifth lumbar vertebrae

12
Q

Spondylolysis
Typically this occurs in the arch of the fifth lumbar vertebrae and appears radiographically as a WHAT .

A

“collar” or “broken neck” on the Scotty dog appearance

12
Q

Spondylolysis

demonstrated on an WHAT projection of the what spine

A

oblique projection of the lumbar spine

12
Q

Spondylolysis
When forward slippage of the vertebral column off a vertebrae occurs because of spondylolysis, it is known as WHAT

A

spondylolisthesis

12
Q

Spondylolysis
The patient with this condition may present symptoms identical to those of WHAT.

A

a herniated disk.

12
Q

THE SKELETAL SYSTEM: NEOPLASTIC DISEASES

A

Osteochondroma
Osteoma
Endochondroma
Osteoid osteoma
Osteoclastoma (giant cell tumor)
Osteosarcoma (osteogenic sarcoma)
Ewing’s sarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
Metastasis

12
Q

It is a benign bone tumor consists of bone and cartilage and often forming a lump in surface of bone usually, most likely seen in children and adolescents.

A

OSTEOCHONDROMA

12
Q

The most common benign bone tumor, which arises from the growth zone between the epiphysis and diaphysis of long bones, also called the

A

metaphysis.

12
Q

what condition Most commonly it involves the lower femur or upper tibia and is capped by growing cartilage.

A

OSTEOCHONDROMA

12
Q

are asymptomatic unless the affected long bone is traumatized, which results in a pathologic fracture of the diseased bone

A

osteochondromas

12
Q

is a fairly rare growth most commonly located in the skull.

A

osteoma

12
Q

These lesions are composed of very dense, well circumscribe, normal bone tissue that usually projects into the orbits or paranasal sinuses.

A

osteoma

12
Q

Another term associated with osteoma of the skull is WHAT

A

hyperostosis frontalis interna

12
Q

It is also a benign tumor which develops in skull of facial bone, slow growth rate typically no symptoms.

A

osteoma

12
Q

It is a benign cartilaginous tumor that occurs within the bone and is seen in hands, feet, and can cause pain swelling where it grows.

A

ENCHONDROMA

12
Q

is a slow- growing benign tumor composed of cartilage.

A

enchondroma.

12
Q

enchondroma, It grows in the marrow space and most commonly affects the small bones of the hands and feet in individuals between the ages of what.

A

ages of 10 and 30 years.

12
Q

Multiple growths termed WHAT., may also occur in childhood and like multiple osteochondromas may undergo malignant transformation.

A

enchondromatosis

12
Q

Common benign tumor in skeletal system, it is a small benign tumor that typically causes localized pain, where the tumor doon lang ang pain, mas malala sa gabi. Medication is pain reliever, non-steoroidal anti inflamamtory drugs. Usually Growth in long bones.

A

osteoid osteoma

12
Q

These fibrous tumors occur twice as often in males compared with females and almost always develop before the age of 30 years.

A

osteoid osteoma

12
Q

in osteoid osteoma, These fibrous tumors occur twice as often in males compared with females and almost always develop before the age of what

A

before the age of 30 years.

12
Q

Osteoid osteomas are commonly found in what

A

the femur, tibia or spine of the young adult.

12
Q

Refers to a group of tumors characterized by the presence of numerous, multinucleated, osteoclastic giant cells.

A

OSTEOCLASTOMA (GIANT CELL TUMOR)

12
Q

This neoplasms affects the sexes equally and is found in individuals between the ages of 20 to 30 years.

A

OSTEOCLASTOMA (GIANT CELL TUMOR)

12
Q

Anatomically thus disease tends to affect the ends of epiphyses of long bones, especially the lower femur, upper tibia and lower radius.

A

OSTEOCLASTOMA (GIANT CELL TUMOR)

12
Q

Typically benign but aggressive tumor and usually growth in around knee joint it can cause bone destruction and if remove the tumor it can occur again.

A

OSTEOCLASTOMA (GIANT CELL TUMOR)

12
Q

Except for myeloma, the most common primary malignancy of the skeleton is this typeof condition, which arises from osteoblasts.

A

OSTEOSARCOMA (OSTEOGENIC SARCOMA)

12
Q

Except for what condition the most common primary malignancy of the skeleton is the osteosarcoma, which arises from osteoblasts.

A

myeloma

12
Q

This neoplasm is most frequently found in the metaphysis of long bones, with approximately 50% affecting the knee

A

OSTEOSARCOMA (OSTEOGENIC SARCOMA)

12
Q

OSTEOSARCOMA (OSTEOGENIC SARCOMA)

This neoplasm is most frequently found in the metaphysis of long bones, with WHAT

A

approximately 50% affecting the knee

12
Q

It is a malignant bone tumor and usually occurs in long bones, adolescent and young adult. It is a aggressive and it can spread to other part of the body.

A

OSTEOSARCOMA (OSTEOGENIC SARCOMA)

12
Q

This neoplasm occurs at a younger age than any other primary malignant bone neoplasm, usually between the ages of 5 to 15 years and rarely occurs after the age of 30 years.

A

ewing’s sarcoma

12
Q

Another primary malignant bone tumor is an Ewing’s sarcoma. This neoplasm occurs at a younger age than any other primary malignant bone neoplasm, usually between the ages of WHAT

A

ages of 5 to 15 years and rarely occurs after the age of 30 years

12
Q

arises from the medullary canal and involves the bone more diffusely, giving rise to uniform thickening of the bone.

A

ewing’s sarcoma

12
Q

It is a malignant bone that is usually seen in young adults and it affects the pelvis, legs and arms. It is characterized by specific genetic mutation and itbis aggressive.

A

EWING’S SARCOMA

12
Q

is a malignant tumor of cartilaginous origin and is composed of a typical cartilage.

A

chondrosarcoma

12
Q

It is about half as common as osteosarcoma and comprises approximately 10% of all malignant tumors of the skeletal system.

A

CHONDROSARCOMA

12
Q

Type of cancer, originated in cartilaginous cell. Usually benign or malignant and it typically affects the pelvis, ribs or long bones.
Signs: pain, namamaga yung dahil sa main tumor.

A

CHONDROSARCOMA

12
Q

Males are three times as likely as females to develop this condition and it is more common in older adults.

A

CHONDROSARCOMA

12
Q

CHONDROSARCOMA, It is about half as common as osteosarcoma and comprises approximately WHAT of all malignant tumors of the skeletal system.

A

10%

12
Q

Process of cancer cells spread in original sites going to other parts of the body.

A

metastases

12
Q

The bones of the skeletal system that contain WHAT THAT are the major bones affected by metastatic disease because of their good vascularization.

A

red bone marrow

12
Q

The bones of the skeletal system that contain red bone marrow are the major bones affected by metastatic disease because of their WHAT.

A

good vascularization

12
Q

The most common primary sites for metastatic bone cancer are the

A

the breast, lung, prostate, kidney and thyroid gland with the tumor spreading via proximity, the blood stream or the lymphatic system.

12
Q

Any type of cancer can metastasize to bone, but metastatic disease from carcinomas are the most common malignant tumor of the skeleton, with WHAT

A

secondary bone tumors of any origin far outnumbering primary bone tumors