Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PATHO > FINALS NEURO AND URINARY > Flashcards

FINALS NEURO AND URINARY Flashcards

1
Q

Wjat is refers to anything related to the nervous system, which includes the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves.

A

“neurologic” (or neurological)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

“neurologic” (or WHAT refers to anything related to the nervous system, which includes the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves.

A

neurological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

“neurologic” (or neurological) refers to anything related to the nervous system, which includes the WHAT ARE THOSE

A

the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

is responsible for controlling and coordinating bodily functions, from basic reflexes to complex cognitive processes.

A

nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

it refers to anything that related to nervous system, particularly nervous system it includes brain, the spinal cord and nerves throughout the body.

A

Neurologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

it is specifically in brain and spinal cord

A

central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is part of you nervous system that lies outside the brain and spinal cord.

A

peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

allows an organism to respond, interact in other environment, for example it includes hearing, touch, taste, smell and vision which are known the common five senses.

A

Sensory function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

It is used the term that can identify or can defined thinking as the study, the diagnosis and treatment of disorder involving the nervous system. It includes broad variety of conditions like, strokes, epilepsy, parkinson’s disease and multiple sclerosis.

A

Neurologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is broader term referring to the entire nervous system. Entire nervous system it is both the CNS and PNS.

A

Neurologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the nervous system is responsible for WHAT bodily functions, from basic reflexes to complex cognitive processes.

A

controlling and coordinating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

is a function that involves a specific movements of the body’s muscles to perform a certain task, the task could be walking, running, or sitting down. In order to perform the skills, the body nervous system, the muscles and brain it should work altogether

A

Motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neurologic examination: A medical assessment to evaluate the function of the nervous system, including WHAT

A

motor skills, reflexes, and sensory function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

signs or complaints related to nerve function, such as headaches, dizziness, weakness, or numbness.

A

Neurologic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A medical assessment to evaluate the function of the nervous system, including motor skills, reflexes, and sensory function.

A

Neurologic examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

these are conditions that affect the nervous system, such as Parkinson’s disease, Alzheimer’s disease, and multiple sclerosis.

A

Neurologic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

in simple term, it is the involuntary movements that response in stimulus for example suddenly dropping a pen the automatic reflex is catch the pen

A

Reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

these includes EXAMINATIONS - DIAGNOSTIC IMAGES, EXAMINATIONS, NEUROLOGIC EXAMINATIONS,, WRITTEN TEST

A

Sensory function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Neurologic symptoms: Signs or complaints related to nerve function, such as WHAT

A

headaches, dizziness, weakness, or numbness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

excess fluid in the brain, Common disease, it very visible or seen in patient because of the size of the head.

A

Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

is a condition characterized by the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles (cavities) of the brain.

A

Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the WHAT of the brain.

A

ventricles (cavities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by the buildup of WHAT in the ventricles (cavities) of the brain.

A

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This fluid accumulation leads to increased intracranial pressure, which can cause brain swelling, damage, and developmental delays.

A

Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This can cause the ventricles is enlarged and put pressure on the brain that’s why having a potential or chance having a brain damage.

A

Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is a device a tube and put surgically insert in brain or head, start from the head to neck until the abdominal cavity doon mapupunta ang CSF that accumulate or excess. Excrete urine through bowel movement, divert or hahanapin ng ibang way to lessen the fluid that accumulate or buildup in brain

A

Shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is a condition that has an abnormal accumulation of CSF, is seen in fluid filled spaces. Fluid spaces is brain ventrciles.

A

Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what condition Symptoms: enlarged head size in infants, and headaches, nausea, vomiting, vision problems and cognitive impairment

A

Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hydrocephalus treatment:

A

surgical insertion, used shunt - to drain excess fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

it can be congenital or present at birth, also acquired due to brain injury or infection or tumor. It may result from imbalance between the production of CSF and absorption of CSF thats why having an abnormal accumulation.

A

Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chiari malformation is a structural defect in the cerebellum, where part of the cerebellum (usually the WHAT extends into the spinal canal, potentially obstructing the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and leading to neurological problems.

A

tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is a rare congenital brain malformation involving the cerebellum and the fourth ventricle.

A

Dandy-Walker syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dandy-Walker syndrome is a rare congenital brain malformation involving the WHAT

A

involving the cerebellum and the fourth ventricle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chiari malformation is a structural defect in the cerebellum, where part of the cerebellum (usually the tonsils) extends into the WHAT potentially obstructing the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and leading to neurological problems.

A

spinal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is medical device to used to divert the fluid from one area to another to maalliavate or to lessen the pressure or to trear the fluid that build up in body

A

Shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is most commonly used to treat hydrocephalus. Also used in other medical context like cardiovascular surgery or dialysis although shunt surgery it is a highly effective cases that carry risk in patient including infection or blockage or malfunction of shunt. Require close monitoring and sometimes having an additional intervention.

A

Shunting procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

symptoms of chiari malformation:

A

headache, neck pain, diziness, balance problem, and severe cases it difficult to swallow or breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is a structural defect in the cerebellum, where part of the cerebellum (usually the tonsils) extends into the spinal canal, potentially obstructing the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and leading to neurological problems.

A

Chiari malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is a condition the part of the brain the typically the cerebellum is the sent in to the spinal canal, this can obstruct the flow of CSF and can cause various

A

Chiari malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chiari malformation is a structural defect in the WHAT, where part of the cerebellum (usually the tonsils) extends into the spinal canal, potentially obstructing the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and leading to neurological problems.

A

cerebellum,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

It typically results in cystic enlargement of the fourth ventricle and absence or underdevelopment of the cerebellar vermis (the part connecting the two hemispheres of the cerebellum).

A

Dandy-Walker syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

It typically results in cystic enlargement of the fourth ventricle and absence or underdevelopment of the cerebellar vermis (the part connecting the two hemispheres of the cerebellum).

A

Dandy-Walker syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dandy-Walker syndrome is a rare congenital brain malformation involving the cerebellum and the fourth ventricle.
It typically results in cystic enlargement of the fourth ventricle and absence or underdevelopment of the WHAT

A

the part connecting the two hemispheres of the cerebellum).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

part if the brain responsible for coordination and motor control

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The partial or complete absence of cerebral vermist, is the part of cerebellum that connect in two hemispheres

A

Dandy-walker syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is the treatment or require in patient to relieve the pressure on the brain and spinal cord

A

Surgical decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is a cyst formation malapit sa base in the skull

A

Dandy-walker syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dandy-Walker syndrome Symptoms:

A

developmental delay, motor control problems, cognitive impairment and increased intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dandy-Walker syndrome treatment:

A

focus in manage the symptoms it also includes surgery to drain fluid if has a presence of hydrocephalus in this syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is a rare condition where the brain fails to develop the normal folds and grooves, leading to a smooth brain

A

Lissencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

It is usually caused by abnormal neuronal migration during early fetal development.

A

Lissencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

abnormal brain development during the fetal development and often due to genetic mutation

A

Lissencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

severe development delay, having a seizures and cognitive impairment and often due to genetic mutation and having an abnormal brain development during pregnancy

A

Lissencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is a neural tube defect where the spinal cord and surrounding vertebrae fail to develop or close properly during early pregnancy, leading to incomplete development of the spinal column.

A

Spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

type of spina bifida (mildest form, often with no symptoms)

A

Spina bifida occulta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

type of spina bifida moderate (protrusion of meninges but spinal cord intact)

A

Meningocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

type of spina bifida (most severe form, where spinal cord and meninges protrude).

A

Myelomeningocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It result from neurological impairment

A

Spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

spina bifida symptoms

A

depend on severity if mild, moderate or severe but it can include the paralysis of patient, or urinary problems and developmental delay sometimes, hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the NF1 gene, leading to the growth of benign tumors (neurofibromas) along nerves and skin, and can also cause learning disabilities, skin changes, and skeletal abnormalities.

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Multiple benign tumor is called

A

neurofibromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1)
Symptoms:

A

tumor in skin and other part of the body, scoliosis, difficulties in learning, increase risk of other cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is a rare genetic disorder that causes the growth of tumors non-cancerous (called in organs, hamartomas) multiple including the brain, kidneys, heart, lungs, and skin.

A

Tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

seen in various organs that include the brain, kidneys, heart and lungs.

A

Tubers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

are a group of rare/genetic inherited disorders that affect the white matter of the brain and spinal cord, leading to deterioration of myelin, the protective covering of nerve fibers.

A

Leukodystrophies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is a myelin is a protective covering of the nerve fibers.

A

White matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Leukodystrophies causes:

A

genetic mutations that affect in production or the breakdown of myelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is an inherited neurodegenerative disorder caused by mutations in the FXN gene, leading to degeneration the of the spinal cord and cerebellum.

A

Friedreich’s ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is a genetic disorder causes a progressive damage of nervous system leading an ataxia

A

Friedreich’s ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

loss of coordination

A

Ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Symptoms: muscle weakness, other neurological problems, difficult to walk, loss of coordination, scoliosis, speech problem, heart issue like cardiomyopathy

A

Friedreich’s Ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

are a group of genetic disorders characterized by progressive ataxia (lack of coordination and balance) due to degeneration of the cerebellum and spinal cord.

A

Spinocerebellar Ataxia (SCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Affect the coordination and balance by the damaging the cerebellum and spinal cord

A

Spinocerebellar Ataxia (SCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is a chronic, autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the central nervous system (CNS) where the immune system mistakenly attacks the myelin (protective covering of nerve fibers), causing demyelination and nerve damage. This leads to a range of neurological symptoms.

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is a chronic autoimmune disease which is the immune system of patient attack the myelin in CN. This lead to the formation of scar and disrupt the signal transmission

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is a scar tissue

A

Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

It is can also used steroid to manage to flare ups of this condition. This also include the symptom managemnt like medication for pain, bladder problem

A

Multiple Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neuromyelitis optica, also known as

A

Devic’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is an rare and autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the optic nerves and spinal cord, leading to inflammation and damage.

A

Neuromyelitis optica, also known as Devic’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neuromyelitis optica, also known as Devic’s disease causes:

A

optic neurolitis, affect also the spinal cord, leading to transverse myelitis, it is often confused with multiple sclerosis but different condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is a rare, inflammatory condition that affects the brain and spinal cord, often following a viral infection or vaccination. It involves widespread inflammation and demyelination (loss of myelin) in the CNS.

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis is a rare, inflammatory condition that affects the brain and spinal cord, often following a WHAT.

A

viral infection or vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis Treatment:

A

Treatment: high dose corticosteroid to reduce inflammation, for severe cases using a intravenous immunoglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

It involves widespread inflammation and demyelination (loss of myelin) in the CNS.

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

loss of myelin) in the CNS.

A

demyelination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

is the inflammation of the protective membranes (meninges) surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

A

Meningitis (Bacterial, Viral, Fungal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It can be caused by bacterial, viral, fungal, or other pathogens.

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most severe form often cause by bacteria like streptococcus pneumonia or haemophilus influenzae

A

Bacterial meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

protecting covering of brain and spinal cord and can cause by the bacterial, viral and fungal infection

A

Meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

less common but it can be cause by a fungi like cryptococcus or histoplasma and often in immunocompromised in individuals

A

Fungal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cause by enteroviruses, herpes simplex virus or other viruses

A

Viral meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

is the inflammation of the brain caused by infection, often by viruses (e.g., herpes simplex virus, West Nile virus, Japanese encephalitis virus).

A

Encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Encephalitis is the inflammation of the brain caused by WHAT

A

infection, often by viruses (e.g., herpes simplex virus, West Nile virus, Japanese encephalitis virus).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

It was caused by a viral infection. The inflammation can cause brain swelling and neurological damage.

A

Encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

is a localized collection of pus in the brain tissue due to infection.

A

brain abscess

17
Q

It typically arises from a nearby infection (such as sinusitis, otitis media, or dental infection) or due to bacterial spread from other parts of the body via the bloodstream.

A

A brain abscess

18
Q

It may develop because of local infection like sinusitis or abscess, or infection that is spread throughout bloodstream

A

A brain abscess

19
Q

is a form of meningitis caused Mycobacterium tuberculosis, by the bacterium responsible for tuberculosis (TB).

A

Tuberculous meningitis

19
Q

Is a serious complication of tuberculosis in where the mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria infect also the meninges causing inflammation sometimes leading to severe neurological damage

A

Tuberculous meningitis

19
Q

It is a rare but serious complication of TB infection.

A

Tuberculous meningitis

19
Q

Tuberculous meningitis Cause:

A

spread of mycobacterium tuberculosis that happen in active lung infection to meninges. Typically happen immunocompromised individuals, HIV.

20
Q

is a severe emergency, need a require treatment, can cause permanent brain damage or can lead to death.

A

Cerebral malaria

20
Q

is a severe complication of malaria, caused by the Plasmodium falciparum parasite, which infects red blood cells and can lead to cerebral involvement (brain malaria).
It is a medical emergency.

A

Cerebral malaria

20
Q

Cerebral malaria is a severe complication of malaria, caused by WHAT parasite, which infects red blood cells and can lead to cerebral involvement (brain malaria).

A

Plasmodium falciparum parasite

21
Q

It is a medical emergency.
Affects the brain, cause by infection. Transmitted by the infected mosquitoes.

A

Cerebral malaria

21
Q

Cerebral malaria is a severe complication of malaria, caused by the Plasmodium falciparum parasite, which infects red blood cells and can lead to WHAT

A

lead to cerebral involvement (brain malaria).

21
Q

It occurs due to the loss of dopamine- producing neurons in the substantia nigra, a region of the brain that controls movement.

A

Parkinson’s disease

21
Q

Parkinson’s Disease (PD) Risk factors:

A

mostly happen in patients after 60 years old, genetic or family history, or environmental exposure like pesticides.

21
Q

is a genetic, autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the progressive breakdown of nerve cells in the brain.

A

Huntington’s Disease (HD)

21
Q

Affect the motor dysfunction, cognitive decline and psychiatric symptoms.
It cause by mutation of gene which leads to production of toxic protein that would damage in brain

A

Huntington’s Disease (HD)

21
Q

a region of the brain that controls movement.

A

substantia nigra

21
Q

Parkinson’s disease
It occurs due to the loss of WHAT- producing neurons in the substantia nigra, a region of the brain that controls movement.

A

dopamine

21
Q

is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects movement.

A

Parkinson’s disease

21
Q

Parkinson’s disease Symptoms:

A

the motor symptoms: popular if has tremors or shaking or postural instability or balance problem or slowness movements, and non-motor symptoms: depression or anxiety or trouble sleeping and having a cognitive impairment

22
Q

is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects memory, thinking, and behavior.
It is the most common cause of dementia in older adults.

A

Alzheimer’s Disease (AD)

22
Q

It typically affects movement, cognition, and mood.

A

Huntington’s Disease (HD)

23
Q

Huntington’s Disease (HD) Symptoms:

A

motor symptoms: involuntary movements, difficult coordination, balance and swallowing, cognitive decline: impair taking having a problem to memory, difficulty with planning and decision making and psychiatric symptoms: depression, irritability, and anxiety

24
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as WHAT

A

Lou Gehrig’s disease

24
Q

Huntington’s Disease (HD)
Risk factors:

A

inherited in an autosomal dominant patterns, each child affected in parents have 50% chance of inheriting

24
Q

also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease, is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects motor neurons responsible for controlling muscles. Voluntary

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

24
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) Symptoms:

A

early symptoms: muscles twitching, cramping, weakness and difficulty speech, swallow or breathing. Progress: muscle weakness, complete paralysis, the patient eventually loss of ability to grip with no assistance

25
Q

Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD) Symptoms:

A

changes in personality, loss of social inhibitions, progressive of language skills (difficult to talk), difficult to understand what he says, diffcult to read

25
Q

This results in muscle weakness, atrophy, and eventual paralysis.

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

25
Q

is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that primarily affect the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain, areas involved in personality, behavior, and language.

A

Frontotemporal dementia

25
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)
Risk factors:

A

age most common between 40-70 years old, about 10% of the cases is inherited, environmental factors or may increase the risk

25
Q

It is one of the leading causes of dementia in people under 65.
Caused by progressive degeneration in frontal and temporal lobes of the brain

A

Frontotemporal dementia

25
Q

Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD)
Risk factors:

A

most commonly affect the individuals, age 40-60 years old, about 30-50% of the cases no genetics

25
Q

affects the movements and often tremors or difficulty to move fast

A

The Parkinson’s disease (PD)

25
Q

is a genetic disorder that leads to motor, cognitive and psychiatric issue due to toxic buildup

A

The Huntington’s Disease (HD

25
Q

is primarily affects the memory and cognition with block and entangled buildup

A

The Alzheimer’s Disease (AD)

25
Q

affects motor neurons and if affect the motor neurons it would have a muscle weakness, paralysis, and some cases no cognitive decline

A

The Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

25
Q

Gliomas are a group of brain tumors that originate from WHAT, which are the supportive cells of the nervous system.

A

glial cells

25
Q

affect the behavior and the language, damage also the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain.

A

The Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD)

26
Q

are a group of brain tumors that originate from glial cells, which are the supportive cells of the nervous system.

A

Gliomas

26
Q

These tumors can develop in the brain or spinal cord and vary widely in terms of aggressiveness and prognosis.

A

Gliomas

26
Q

They are typically benign but can be malignant in rare cases.

A

Meningiomas

26
Q

are tumors that arise from the meninges, the protective layers surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

A

Meningiomas

26
Q

types of Gliomas needed to memorize!!!

A

Astrocytomas (arising from astrocytes)

Oligodendrogliomas (from oligodendrocytes)

Ependymomas (from ependymal cells)

26
Q

is protective layers of tissue that cover the brain and spinal cord

A

Meninges

26
Q

arise from the pituitary gland, a small endocrine gland at the base of the brain. These tumors can be benign (most common) or malignant and affect the production of various hormones.

A

Pituitary tumors

26
Q

is small structure at the base of the brain and responsible to produce oh hormones that regulate of many body functions these hormones are the functioning produce excess hormones or non-functioning not producing hormones

A

Pituitary gland

26
Q

Pituitary Tumors Symptoms:

A

hormonal imbalances: depending on the type of hormones that secrete of tumor that increase growthbhirmones leading to acromegaly or increase or prolactin causing infertility, and

mass effect symptoms: headaches, vision problems and fatigue

26
Q

Also known as Pituitary Adenomas

A

Pituitary tumors

26
Q

They are usually benign or non cancerous but can cause significant issues depend on the size and location

A

Meningiomas

26
Q

tumor that They are most common in children but can also occur in adults.

A

Medulloblastomas

26
Q

types of Pituitary Tumors

A

Pituitary adenomas (the most common type)

Craniopharyngiomas (benign tumors that arise near the pituitary).

26
Q

Medulloblastoma Symptoms:

A

because of they often block the passage of cerebrospinal fluid having a pressure in brain structures and symptoms is headache, usually happen in morning more severe, nausea, vomiting, ataxia (lack of coordination or balance), changes in speech, swallowing, in childrens is developmental delays

26
Q

are malignant brain tumors that typically arise in the cerebellum, the part of the brain responsible for motor control, coordination and balance.

A

Medulloblastomas

26
Q

Schwannomas (also called neurilemmomas) are benign tumors that develop from WHAT, which are responsible for producing the myelin sheath around peripheral nerves.

A

Schwann cells

26
Q

which are responsible for producing the myelin sheath around peripheral nerves

A

Schwann cells

26
Q

Schwannomas (also called

A

neurilemmomas

26
Q

are benign tumors that develop from Schwann cells, which are responsible for producing the myelin sheath around peripheral nerves.

A

Schwannomas (also called neurilemmomas

26
Q

typically occur on cranial nerves (especially vestibulocochlear nerve, leading to acoustic neuromas) or on spinal nerves.

A

Schwannomas

26
Q

Schwannomas typically occur on cranial nerves (especially WHAT nerve, leading to acoustic neuromas) or on spinal nerves.

A

vestibulocochlear nerve

26
Q

Schwannomas typically occur on cranial nerves (especially vestibulocochlear nerve, leading to WHAT) or on spinal nerves.

A

acoustic neuromas

27
Q

Schwannomas

Treatment:

A

3 (observation, surgery and radiation therapy) if the tumor is small causing symptoms maybe in observation, if the tumor is cause significant symptoms or growing maybe surgery, if the tumor is severe radiation therapy is the option

27
Q

are spinal cord tumors that develop within the spinal cord itself, typically arising from glial cells or neurons.

A

intramedullary tumors

27
Q

Intramedullary Tumors Symptoms:

A

back pain, or localize pain at the tumor site, weakness, numbness, or paralysis limbs, or loss coordination or balance or bladder or bowel dysfunction if the tumor if affect the spinalization

27
Q

types of Intramedullary Tumors

A

pendymomas (from ependymal cells lining the spinal cord’s central canal),

Astrocytomas (from astrocytes).

27
Q

Extramedullary tumors are spinal tumors that develop outside the WHAT, typically in the meninges (covering of the spinal cord) or from nerve roots.

A

outside the spinal cord but within spinal canal

27
Q

are spinal tumors that develop outside the spinal cord but within spinal caanl, typically in the meninges (covering of the spinal cord) or from nerve roots. They are often benign but can cause significant symptoms due to compression of the spinal cord or nerves.

A

Extramedullary tumors

28
Q

Extramedullary tumors are spinal tumors that develop outside the spinal cord but within spinal canal, typically in WHAT

A

the meninges (covering of the spinal cord) or from nerve roots

29
Q

They are often benign but can cause significant symptoms due to compression of the spinal cord or nerves.

A

Extramedullary tumors

30
Q

they typically benign tumor and affect the pituitary gland with hormonal imbalance or mass effect symptoms, if have a problem in pituitary gland it would probably cause of acromegaly

A

Pituitary tumors

30
Q

types of Extramedullary Tumors

A

Meningiomas (benign tumors of the meninges)

Schwannomas (from Schwann cells of peripheral nerves)

Neurofibromas (benign tumors of nerve tissue).

30
Q

tumor that arises in glial cells in the brain and spinal cord may be benign or malignant.

A

Gliomas

30
Q

is a tumor that affects tumors outside the spinal cord but within the spinal canal and often compressing the nerves or the spinal cord.

A

Extramedullary tumor

31
Q

benign tumors and usually develop meninges and often causing mass effect symptoms

A

Meningiomas

31
Q

is a malignant tumor and affect are the children and originate in cerebellum and often causing increase intracranial pressure

A

Medulloblastomas

31
Q

is a tumor within the spinal cord itself and often affecting the motor and sensory function

A

Intramedullary tumors

31
Q

are benign tumors that originate in schwann cells that affect the cranial nerves or peripheral nerves.

A

Schwannomas

32
Q

is a tumor that affects tumors outside the spinal cord but within the spinal canal and often compressing the nerves or the spinal cord.

A

Extramedullary tumor

33
Q

the urinary system, also known as the what

A

renal system

34
Q

The urinary system, also known as the renal system, what purposes

A

produces, stores and eliminates urine, the fluid waste excreted by the kidneys.

34
Q

The kidneys make urine by WHAT

A

filtering wastes and extra water from blood.

35
Q

Urine travels from the kidneys through two thin tubes called WHAT and fills the WHAT

A

ureters and bladder.

36
Q

Helpful to diagnose using this modality in urinary system

A

ultrasound, x-ray, CT scan and MRI

37
Q

Parts of Urinary system include what

A

kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra.

37
Q

what is susceptible to a variety of infections and other problems, including blockages and injuries.

A

The urinary system

37
Q

These can be treated by a WHOor another health care professional who specializes in the renal system.

A

urologist

37
Q

TWO KIDNEYS -This pair of WHATis located below the ribs toward the middle of the back.

A

pair of purplish-brown organs

37
Q

TWO KIDNEYS -Their function is to:

A

Remove waste products and medicines from the body

Balance the body’s fluids

Balance a variety of electrolytes

Release hormones to control blood pressure

Release a hormone to control red blood cell production

Help with bone health by controlling calcium and phosphorus

37
Q

TWO KIDNEYS -This pair of purplish-brown organs is located in where

A

below the ribs toward the middle of the back.

37
Q

The kidneys remove urea from the blood through tiny filtering units called WHAT.

A

nephrons.

38
Q

each nephron consists of a ball formed of small blood capillaries (glomerulus) and a small tube called a WHAT

A

renal tubule.

38
Q

If urine backs up, or is allowed to stand still, a kidney infection can develop. About every how many seconds, small amounts of urine are emptied into the bladder from the ureters.

A

About every 10 to 15 seconds

38
Q

These narrow tubes carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Muscles in the ureter walls keep tightening and relaxing. This forces urine downward, away from the kidneys.

A

URETERS

38
Q

This triangle-shaped, hollow organ is located in the lower belly. It is held in place by ligaments that are attached to other organs and the pelvic bones.

A

BLADDER

39
Q

BLADDER

They contract and flatten to empty urine through the urethra. The typical healthy adult bladder can store up to WHAT.

A

store up to 2 cups of urine for 2 to 5 hours.

39
Q

WHAT relax and expand to store urine.

A

BLADDER

39
Q

These circular muscles help keep urine from leaking by closing tightly like a rubber band around the opening of the bladder.

A

TWO SPHINCTER MUSCLES

40
Q

The nerves alert a person when it is time to urinate or empty the bladder.

A

NERVES IN THE BLADDER

40
Q

color indication in urine: is a pale straw or clear yellow color.

A

Normal, healthy urine

40
Q

color indication in urine: often means you need more water.

A

Darker yellow or honey-colored urine

40
Q

This tube allows urine to pass outside the body. The brain signals the bladder muscles to tighten. This squeezes urine out of the bladder.

A

URETHRA

40
Q

color indicatio in urine may mean a liver problem or severe dehydration.

A

A darker, brownish color

41
Q

color indication in urine: may mean blood in the urine.

A

Pinkish or red urine

41
Q

RENAL AGENESIS
A relatively rare anomaly that demonstrates the absence of the kidney on one side with an unusually large kidney on the other side, which is known as

A

COMPENSATORY HYPERTROPHY.

41
Q

the WHAT kidney is more frequently missing and it is more common among males.

A

left

41
Q

It has no parenchymal attachment to a kidney and it often becomes symptomatic as a result of an infection.

A

SUPERNUMERARY KIDNEY

41
Q

A rare anomaly of kidney size involving a kidney that is developed less than normal.

A

RENAL HYPOPLASIA

41
Q

Also a relatively rare and it consists of the presence of a third small, rudimentary kidney.

A

SUPERNUMERARY KIDNEY

42
Q

It is usually associated with hyperplasia of the other kidney, an overdeveloped kidney that is often associated with renal agenesis pr hypoplasia of the other kidney.

A

RENAL HYPOPLASIA

42
Q

A condition which the lower poles of the kidneys are joined across midline by a band of soft tissues, causing a rotation on one or both sides.

A

HORSESHOE KIDNEY

42
Q

consists of incomplete or excessive rotation of the kidney as they ascend from the pelvis in utero.

A

MALROTATION

42
Q

one that is out of its normal position, usually lower than normal. Such kidneys are often in a pelvic or sacral location.

A

ECTOPIC KIDNEY

42
Q

These are frequent and they can be unilateral or bilateral.
This condition impairs renal drainage, predisposing the patient to infection, and formation of calculi.

A

DOUBLE RENAL PELVIS AND DOUBLE URETER

42
Q

Radiographically, presents a filling detect in the bladder with a characteristic “cobra head” appearance.

A

URETEROCELES

42
Q

Cyst-like dilations of a ureter near its opening into the bladder and usually result from stenosis of the ureteral orifice.

A

URETEROCELES

42
Q

Out touching seen in urethra, form like a sack structure that communicating with the urethra lumen

A

URETHRAL DIVERTICULA

42
Q

Pouch like that we seen in bladder wall that extends beyond the normal bladder control

A

BLADDER DIVERTICULA

42
Q

URETEROCELES

Radiographically, presents a filling detect in the bladder with a characteristic WHAT appearance.

A

“cobra head”

42
Q

A congenital anomaly representing a dilated, branched ureteric remnant and is best demonstrated by retrograde urography.

A

URETHRAL DIVERTICULA

42
Q

May occur as a congenital anomaly or be caused by chronic bladder obstruction and resultant infection occurring in middle aged men.

A

BLADDER DIVERTICULA

42
Q

A bacterial infection of the calyces and renal pelvis and thought to represent the most common renal disease

A

PYELONEPHRITIS

42
Q

Common among women than men due to their increases incidence of reflux from the bladder.

A

PYELONEPHRITIS

43
Q

Acute condition occurs to pregnant women due to increase size of the uterus that compresses the ureter and decreases urine clearance of bacteria.

A

PYELONEPHRITIS

43
Q

An acquired disease abnormally common in adults and are usually asymptomatic and not an impairment to renal function, but may cause symptoms from rupture, hemorrhage, infection obstruction.

A

RENAL CYST

43
Q

An antigen antibody reaction in the glomeruli causing inflammation of the renal parenchyma.
Radiographically, the kidneys appear larger because of edematous accumulation

A

GLOMERULONEPHRITIS

43
Q

Inflammation of the bladder, common fairly infection caused by a bacteria.

A

CYSTITIS

43
Q

demonstrate may the presence of reflux as well as a roughening of the normally smooth bladder wall referred to as bladder trabeculae.

A

Cystography

43
Q

is a kidneys filtration units and if having an inflammation in glomeruli pwede maaffectbthe function of kidney

A

Glomeruli

43
Q

Disturbances of calcium metabolism (hyperthyroidism) that results in such condition characterized by tiny deposits of calcium dispersed throughout the renal parenchyma.

A

NEPHROCALCINOSIS

43
Q

It is the intimal thickening of predominantly the small vessels of the kidney.
Occur as part of the normal aging process as well as in younger patients in association with hypertension and diabetes.

A

NEPHROSCLEROSIS

43
Q

It represents the end result of a chronic process that gradually results in lost kidney function

A

RENAL FAILURE

43
Q

An obstructive disease that causes a dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces with urine.

A

HYDRONEPHROSIS

43
Q

is characteristics a of renal failure and consist of retention of urea in blood.

A

Uremia

43
Q

in hydronephrosis.
The most common cause is WHAT however it can also occur as a congenital defect or blockage of the system by a tumor, structure, blood clot or inflammation.

A

calculus

44
Q

Most common malignant tumor of the kidney referred as adenocarcinoma (hypernephroma).

A

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA

45
Q

NEPHROBLASTOMA
Also known as WHAT, a malignant tumor commonly encountered by children.

A

Wilm’s tumor

45
Q

Also known as Wilm’s tumor, a malignant tumor commonly encountered by children.

A

NEPHROBLASTOMA

45
Q

Etiology is unknown but chronic inflammation as from obstruction, cigarette smoking and other agents can contribute to its development.

A

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA

46
Q

Children with this disease present a large, palpable abdominal mass, showing an enlarged kidney on a urographic examination.

A

NEPHROBLASTOMA

46
Q

common in men than in women after 50 years of age.

A

BLADDER CARCINΟΜΑ

46
Q

BLADDER CARCINΟΜΑ

WHAT is a chief symptom and cystoscopy followed by a urogram is the method of choice for investigating bladder carcinoma.

A

Hematuria

46
Q

BLADDER CARCINΟΜΑ

Hematuria is a chief symptom and cystoscopy followed by a WHAT is the method of choice for investigating bladder carcinoma.

A

urogram

PATHO (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions