Midterm Review Flashcards
1
Q
Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential?
A
Sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane
2
Q
The first even to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is what?
A
Some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open
3
Q
What is true of an action potential?
A
The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged
4
Q
The only ion that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is what?
A
Potassium
5
Q
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _______ potential.
A
Local
6
Q
During a relative refractory period, what happens?
A
The action potential can be intimated with a strong stimulus
7
Q
A lack of which neurotransmitter is associated with Parkinson’s disease:
A
Dopamine
8
Q
The efferent pathways of the autonomic system consist of which nervous systems?
A
Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
9
Q
What does a synapse consist of?
A
Synaptic knob, synaptic cleft, and plasma membrane of postsynaptic neuron
10
Q
Where is a synaptic knob located?
A
Axon
11
Q
Which of the following is not a function of a central nervous system?
A
All of the above are functions of the CNS
12
Q
Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to what?
A
Initiate an action potential
13
Q
When current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse conduction is called what?
A
Saltatory Conduction
14
Q
Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of what?
A
Cell bodies
15
Q
The myelin sheath is formed by what?
A
Schwann cells
16
Q
Neurons in the CNS have less chance of regenerating all of the following reasons except what?
A
Microglia lay down scar tissue
17
Q
Serotonin is an example of what?
A
Amine neurotransmitter
18
Q
The layer of the meninges that serves as the inner periosteum of the cranial bone is the what?
A
Dura mater
19
Q
The innermost layer of the meninges is the what?
A
Pia mater
20
Q
What is true of the reflex arc?
A
It always consists of an afferent neuron and an efferent neuron
21
Q
Multipolar neurons have what?
A
Multiple dendrites and one axon
22
Q
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in all of the following except what?
A
Subdural space
23
Q
How many ventricles are in the brain?
A
Four
24
Q
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in what?
A
Choroid plexuses
25
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricle, into the central canal and _______ is absorbed back into the blood.
Subarachnoid space
26
If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose ______ related to that pathway.
Sensory Perception
27
If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway.
Willed movement
28
Which of hte following is not true of the lateral corticospinal tract fibers?
Most inhibit the lower motor neuron
29
Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side
Lateral Corticospinal
30
The spinal tract that is located in the side of the cord, originates in the brain, and terminates in the spinal cord is the ___________ tract.
Lateral corticospinal tract
31
Nerve fibers of the spinothalamic tract are what?
Sensory
32
White matter of the nervous system is made up of what?
Myelinated fibers
33
The brain has how many major divisions?
Six
34
The brain stem does not include the what?
Cerebellum
35
All of the following cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor except what?
Vestibulocochlear
36
Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the what nerve?
Trigeminal
37
The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the _____ cranial nerve.
X (10th)
38
Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movement of the tongue?
Hypoglossal
39
All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the what?
Vagus
40
Which of the following is not plexus of the spinal nerves?
Thoracic
41
The cervical plexus is:
All of the above
42
Which plexus contains nerves that innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm?
Brachial
43
The sensory cranial nerves include only the what?
Olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear
44
The cranial nerve that arises from the spinal cord is the what?
Accessory
45
Nerve impulses over the ______ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreases heart rate.
Vagus
46
The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of how many pairs?
31
47
Spinal nerves are mostly _____ fibers?
Motor and sensory
48
A mixed nerve is one that what?
Carries both sensory and motor fibers
49
Damage to the ____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function.
Phrenic
50
The phrenic nerve is found in which plexus?
Cervical
51
Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true?
All of its axons are afferent fibers
52
Which of the following would not be a major effect for the autonomic nervous system?
Skeletal muscles
53
Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except what?
Number of neurons between CNS and effector
54
The autonomic nervous system functions chiefly in the what?
Innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera
55
Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may:
- Synapse with the sympathetic postganglion neuron
- Send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia
- Pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing
- All
All
56
Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because why?
Preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers
57
Parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located where?
Nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral grap columns of the sacral cord
58
Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation?
Constriction of the bronchioles
59
All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except what?
Increased heart rate
60
Which of the following is a description of the principle of antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system?
If the sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it
61
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they:
Continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectores
62
If you were to damage some of the preganglionic fibers that enter the celiac ganglion, what effect would this have on sympathetic stimulation?
Hormones secrete by the adrenal medulla may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying, the effects of sympathetic stimulation
63
Norepinephrine can stimulate _____ receptors?
Both alpha and beta
64
The special senses:
Dare grouped in the tongue, nose, eyes, and ears
65
Pain that is perceived as being superficial but actually is caused by an underlying organ is called what?
Referred pain
66
Visceroceptors are located where?
Internal organs
67
The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations including:
Touch, temperature, and pain
68
Intense stimuli of any type that results in tissue damage will activate what?
Nociceptors
69
Chemoreceptors are most likely to be activated by:
Noxious odors
70
The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are what?
Ruffini corpuscles
71
Which of the following is true to proprioceptors?
Function in relation to movement and position
72
Free nerve endings respond to all of the following stimuli except what?
Strength of muscle contractions
73
Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS give specific awareness of a specific type of sensation, its exact location and its level of intensity?
Cerebral cortex
74
The two point discrimination test can be used to measure what?
Sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body
75
What types of receptors are important in stimulating the thirst center?
Osmoreceptors
76
If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers.
Alpha
77
The olfactory tract carries impulses that assocatiates with what?
Smell
78
There are how many openings into the middle ear?
Four
79
Both olfactory receptors and taste buds are what?
Chemoreceptors
80
What is the number of pure or primary tastes?
Five
81
What is not a primary taste sensation?
Spicy
82
What do the auditory ossicles include?
Malleus, incus, and stapes
83
What is not part of the bony labyrinth?
Malleus
84
The organ of corti is located where?
Cochlear duct
85
Movement of hair cells in the organ of corti against the membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition.
Tectona
86
Which of the following structures is not a component of the external ear?
Eustachian tube
87
Which of the following statements is not true of the olfactory receptors?
They are located in an area that is stimulated
88
Which of the following statements is not true about the sense of hearing?
All are true
89
Which of the following statements is not true of the eye?
Anterior cavity is filled with vitreous fluid
90
In the male reproductive system, the essential organs of reproduction are called?
Testes
91
The accessory organs of the male reproductive system, include all of the following except the?
Gonads
92
Which of he following is not a supporting structure of the male reproductive system?
Prostate
93
Which of the following is not a secreting gland in the male reproductive system?
All of the above are secreting glands in the male reproductive system
94
The supporting structures in the male reproductive system include:
Penis, pair of spermatic cords, scrotum
95
Progesterone released by cells surrounding the ovum:
Increase motility and attract sperm to the ovum
96
What is not an accessory organ?
Testes
97
Which of the following divides the testes into the lobules?
Tunica albuginea
98
What can endocrine glands be made up of?
Glandular epithelium and neurosecretory tissue
99
In comparison with the nervous system, regulatory effects of endocrine system are?
Slow to appear, but long-lasting
100
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system?
Chemical messenger travels a short distance
101
Which of the following endocrine gland is located in the neck?
Thyroid
102
Tropic hormones:
Target other endocrine glands and stimulate their growth and secretion
103
All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except:
Cortisol
104
What is the last step in nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action?
Protein kinases activate other enzymes
105
Hormones can be:
Steroids, peptides, and glycoproteins
106
Steroids are able to pass easily through a target cell's plasma membrane because they are:
Lipid-soluble
107
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have it's full effect, the phenomenon is called what?
Permissiveness
108
Which of the following nonsteroid hormones bind to receptors associated with a DNA molecule within the nucleus of the target cell?
T3 and T4
109
The compound that is referred to as a tissue hormone is:
Prostaglandin
110
Structure referred to historically as the master gland is the:
Pituitary
111
Which of the following hormones is not secreted by basophils?
Prolactin
112
The hormone most likely to cause a shift from glucose catabolism:
Somatotropin
113
Gonadotrophs secrete:
LH and FSH
114
Prolactin affects:
Milk secretion
115
Growth of ovarian follicle occurs because of:
FSH
116
The principle action of Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is stimulating the:
Release of TSH
117
Vascular link between hypothalamus and ademohypophyis is called:
Hypophyseal portal system
118
Which hormones are produced by the hypothalamus to control adenohypophysis?
Releasing hormones
119
The hypothalamus produces:
Oxytocin
120
Neurohypophysis serves as a storage and release site for:
ADH and OT
121
Which of the following is involved in determining a person's total blood volume?
Age, body type, and sex
122
What is the principle thyroid hormone?
T3
123
Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with what?
Body fat
124
Hematocrit of 56% would indicate what?
Polycythemia
125
Which mature cell has no nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes?
Erythrocyte
126
What is the normal adult red blood cell count range?
4.2-6.2 million/cubic
127
Which of the following cell types can carry oxygen?
Erythrocytes
128
Hematocrit of 40% means that in every 100 mL of whole blood:
60 mL fluid plasma and 40 mL red blood cells
129
Under the microscope, erythrocytes appear as what?
Biconcaved disks without nuclei
130
Erythropoiesis is the formation of what?
Red blood cells
131
Many types of blood cells are produced in what?
Red bone marrow
132
In the formation of blood cells, megakaryoblasts ultimately develops into what?
Platelets
133
Erythropoietin is a hormone:
Released by the kidney to stimulate red blood cells
134
What are the accessory organs of the urinary system?
Ureter, urinary, and urethra
135
Shape of the kidney could be best described as what?
Bean
136
The calyces of the kidney join together to form a large collection reservoir called:
Renal pelvis
137
There are how many openings in the urinary bladder?
Three
138
What is the function of the urinary bladder?
Serves as a reservoir for urine and expels urine from the body aided by the urethra
139
One difference between male and female urethra is male urethra is:
Part of two different body systems
140
Beginning of the "plumbing system" of urinary system, urine leaving the renal papilla is collected in cup-like structures called:
Calyces
141
Urine is conducted from the kidney to the urinary bladder through a tube called:
Ureter
142
Substances travel from glomerulus into the Bowman's capsule by a process of:
Filtration
143
Of all blood pumped pumped per minute by the heart, approximately how much goes through the kidneys?
1/3
144
Cells called podocytes make up what?
Visceral layer of the Bowman's capsule
145
Portion of the nephron the empties into a calyx is the what?
Collecting tube
146
Which of the following is not a part of the glomerular-capsular membrane?
Parietal layer of the Bowman capsule
147
Portion of nephron that can lie within the medulla is the:
Loop of Henle
148
Dually innervated autonomic vs. single innervated
A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A single innervated innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division
149
When a male baby was born, the pediatrician discovered that the baby's left testicle had not descended into the scrotum. If the situation is not corrected soon might the baby be sterile?
Yes, because the higher the temperature inside the body cavity inhibits spermatogenesis, which could result in permanent sterility if untreated.
