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Anatomy & Physiology II > Midterm Review > Flashcards

Midterm Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential?

A

Sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane

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2
Q

The first even to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is what?

A

Some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open

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3
Q

What is true of an action potential?

A

The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged

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4
Q

The only ion that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is what?

A

Potassium

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5
Q

A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _______ potential.

A

Local

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6
Q

During a relative refractory period, what happens?

A

The action potential can be intimated with a strong stimulus

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7
Q

A lack of which neurotransmitter is associated with Parkinson’s disease:

A

Dopamine

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8
Q

The efferent pathways of the autonomic system consist of which nervous systems?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

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9
Q

What does a synapse consist of?

A

Synaptic knob, synaptic cleft, and plasma membrane of postsynaptic neuron

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10
Q

Where is a synaptic knob located?

A

Axon

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a function of a central nervous system?

A

All of the above are functions of the CNS

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12
Q

Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to what?

A

Initiate an action potential

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13
Q

When current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse conduction is called what?

A

Saltatory Conduction

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14
Q

Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of what?

A

Cell bodies

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15
Q

The myelin sheath is formed by what?

A

Schwann cells

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16
Q

Neurons in the CNS have less chance of regenerating all of the following reasons except what?

A

Microglia lay down scar tissue

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17
Q

Serotonin is an example of what?

A

Amine neurotransmitter

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18
Q

The layer of the meninges that serves as the inner periosteum of the cranial bone is the what?

A

Dura mater

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19
Q

The innermost layer of the meninges is the what?

A

Pia mater

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20
Q

What is true of the reflex arc?

A

It always consists of an afferent neuron and an efferent neuron

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21
Q

Multipolar neurons have what?

A

Multiple dendrites and one axon

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22
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is found in all of the following except what?

A

Subdural space

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23
Q

How many ventricles are in the brain?

A

Four

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24
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in what?

A

Choroid plexuses

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25
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricle, into the central canal and _______ is absorbed back into the blood.

A

Subarachnoid space

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26
Q

If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose ______ related to that pathway.

A

Sensory Perception

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27
Q

If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway.

A

Willed movement

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28
Q

Which of hte following is not true of the lateral corticospinal tract fibers?

A

Most inhibit the lower motor neuron

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29
Q

Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side

A

Lateral Corticospinal

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30
Q

The spinal tract that is located in the side of the cord, originates in the brain, and terminates in the spinal cord is the ___________ tract.

A

Lateral corticospinal tract

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31
Q

Nerve fibers of the spinothalamic tract are what?

A

Sensory

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32
Q

White matter of the nervous system is made up of what?

A

Myelinated fibers

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33
Q

The brain has how many major divisions?

A

Six

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34
Q

The brain stem does not include the what?

A

Cerebellum

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35
Q

All of the following cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor except what?

A

Vestibulocochlear

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36
Q

Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the what nerve?

A

Trigeminal

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37
Q

The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the _____ cranial nerve.

A

X (10th)

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38
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movement of the tongue?

A

Hypoglossal

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39
Q

All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the what?

A

Vagus

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40
Q

Which of the following is not plexus of the spinal nerves?

A

Thoracic

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41
Q

The cervical plexus is:

A

All of the above

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42
Q

Which plexus contains nerves that innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm?

A

Brachial

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43
Q

The sensory cranial nerves include only the what?

A

Olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear

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44
Q

The cranial nerve that arises from the spinal cord is the what?

A

Accessory

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45
Q

Nerve impulses over the ______ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreases heart rate.

A

Vagus

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46
Q

The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of how many pairs?

A

31

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47
Q

Spinal nerves are mostly _____ fibers?

A

Motor and sensory

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48
Q

A mixed nerve is one that what?

A

Carries both sensory and motor fibers

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49
Q

Damage to the ____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function.

A

Phrenic

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50
Q

The phrenic nerve is found in which plexus?

A

Cervical

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51
Q

Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true?

A

All of its axons are afferent fibers

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52
Q

Which of the following would not be a major effect for the autonomic nervous system?

A

Skeletal muscles

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53
Q

Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except what?

A

Number of neurons between CNS and effector

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54
Q

The autonomic nervous system functions chiefly in the what?

A

Innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera

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55
Q

Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may:

  • Synapse with the sympathetic postganglion neuron
  • Send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia
  • Pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing
  • All
A

All

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56
Q

Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because why?

A

Preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers

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57
Q

Parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located where?

A

Nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral grap columns of the sacral cord

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58
Q

Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation?

A

Constriction of the bronchioles

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59
Q

All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except what?

A

Increased heart rate

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60
Q

Which of the following is a description of the principle of antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system?

A

If the sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it

61
Q

Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they:

A

Continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectores

62
Q

If you were to damage some of the preganglionic fibers that enter the celiac ganglion, what effect would this have on sympathetic stimulation?

A

Hormones secrete by the adrenal medulla may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying, the effects of sympathetic stimulation

63
Q

Norepinephrine can stimulate _____ receptors?

A

Both alpha and beta

64
Q

The special senses:

A

Dare grouped in the tongue, nose, eyes, and ears

65
Q

Pain that is perceived as being superficial but actually is caused by an underlying organ is called what?

A

Referred pain

66
Q

Visceroceptors are located where?

A

Internal organs

67
Q

The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations including:

A

Touch, temperature, and pain

68
Q

Intense stimuli of any type that results in tissue damage will activate what?

A

Nociceptors

69
Q

Chemoreceptors are most likely to be activated by:

A

Noxious odors

70
Q

The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are what?

A

Ruffini corpuscles

71
Q

Which of the following is true to proprioceptors?

A

Function in relation to movement and position

72
Q

Free nerve endings respond to all of the following stimuli except what?

A

Strength of muscle contractions

73
Q

Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS give specific awareness of a specific type of sensation, its exact location and its level of intensity?

A

Cerebral cortex

74
Q

The two point discrimination test can be used to measure what?

A

Sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body

75
Q

What types of receptors are important in stimulating the thirst center?

A

Osmoreceptors

76
Q

If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers.

A

Alpha

77
Q

The olfactory tract carries impulses that assocatiates with what?

A

Smell

78
Q

There are how many openings into the middle ear?

A

Four

79
Q

Both olfactory receptors and taste buds are what?

A

Chemoreceptors

80
Q

What is the number of pure or primary tastes?

A

Five

81
Q

What is not a primary taste sensation?

A

Spicy

82
Q

What do the auditory ossicles include?

A

Malleus, incus, and stapes

83
Q

What is not part of the bony labyrinth?

A

Malleus

84
Q

The organ of corti is located where?

A

Cochlear duct

85
Q

Movement of hair cells in the organ of corti against the membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition.

A

Tectona

86
Q

Which of the following structures is not a component of the external ear?

A

Eustachian tube

87
Q

Which of the following statements is not true of the olfactory receptors?

A

They are located in an area that is stimulated

88
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about the sense of hearing?

A

All are true

89
Q

Which of the following statements is not true of the eye?

A

Anterior cavity is filled with vitreous fluid

90
Q

In the male reproductive system, the essential organs of reproduction are called?

A

Testes

91
Q

The accessory organs of the male reproductive system, include all of the following except the?

A

Gonads

92
Q

Which of he following is not a supporting structure of the male reproductive system?

A

Prostate

93
Q

Which of the following is not a secreting gland in the male reproductive system?

A

All of the above are secreting glands in the male reproductive system

94
Q

The supporting structures in the male reproductive system include:

A

Penis, pair of spermatic cords, scrotum

95
Q

Progesterone released by cells surrounding the ovum:

A

Increase motility and attract sperm to the ovum

96
Q

What is not an accessory organ?

A

Testes

97
Q

Which of the following divides the testes into the lobules?

A

Tunica albuginea

98
Q

What can endocrine glands be made up of?

A

Glandular epithelium and neurosecretory tissue

99
Q

In comparison with the nervous system, regulatory effects of endocrine system are?

A

Slow to appear, but long-lasting

100
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system?

A

Chemical messenger travels a short distance

101
Q

Which of the following endocrine gland is located in the neck?

A

Thyroid

102
Q

Tropic hormones:

A

Target other endocrine glands and stimulate their growth and secretion

103
Q

All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except:

A

Cortisol

104
Q

What is the last step in nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action?

A

Protein kinases activate other enzymes

105
Q

Hormones can be:

A

Steroids, peptides, and glycoproteins

106
Q

Steroids are able to pass easily through a target cell’s plasma membrane because they are:

A

Lipid-soluble

107
Q

When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have it’s full effect, the phenomenon is called what?

A

Permissiveness

108
Q

Which of the following nonsteroid hormones bind to receptors associated with a DNA molecule within the nucleus of the target cell?

A

T3 and T4

109
Q

The compound that is referred to as a tissue hormone is:

A

Prostaglandin

110
Q

Structure referred to historically as the master gland is the:

A

Pituitary

111
Q

Which of the following hormones is not secreted by basophils?

A

Prolactin

112
Q

The hormone most likely to cause a shift from glucose catabolism:

A

Somatotropin

113
Q

Gonadotrophs secrete:

A

LH and FSH

114
Q

Prolactin affects:

A

Milk secretion

115
Q

Growth of ovarian follicle occurs because of:

A

FSH

116
Q

The principle action of Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is stimulating the:

A

Release of TSH

117
Q

Vascular link between hypothalamus and ademohypophyis is called:

A

Hypophyseal portal system

118
Q

Which hormones are produced by the hypothalamus to control adenohypophysis?

A

Releasing hormones

119
Q

The hypothalamus produces:

A

Oxytocin

120
Q

Neurohypophysis serves as a storage and release site for:

A

ADH and OT

121
Q

Which of the following is involved in determining a person’s total blood volume?

A

Age, body type, and sex

122
Q

What is the principle thyroid hormone?

A

T3

123
Q

Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with what?

A

Body fat

124
Q

Hematocrit of 56% would indicate what?

A

Polycythemia

125
Q

Which mature cell has no nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes?

A

Erythrocyte

126
Q

What is the normal adult red blood cell count range?

A

4.2-6.2 million/cubic

127
Q

Which of the following cell types can carry oxygen?

A

Erythrocytes

128
Q

Hematocrit of 40% means that in every 100 mL of whole blood:

A

60 mL fluid plasma and 40 mL red blood cells

129
Q

Under the microscope, erythrocytes appear as what?

A

Biconcaved disks without nuclei

130
Q

Erythropoiesis is the formation of what?

A

Red blood cells

131
Q

Many types of blood cells are produced in what?

A

Red bone marrow

132
Q

In the formation of blood cells, megakaryoblasts ultimately develops into what?

A

Platelets

133
Q

Erythropoietin is a hormone:

A

Released by the kidney to stimulate red blood cells

134
Q

What are the accessory organs of the urinary system?

A

Ureter, urinary, and urethra

135
Q

Shape of the kidney could be best described as what?

A

Bean

136
Q

The calyces of the kidney join together to form a large collection reservoir called:

A

Renal pelvis

137
Q

There are how many openings in the urinary bladder?

A

Three

138
Q

What is the function of the urinary bladder?

A

Serves as a reservoir for urine and expels urine from the body aided by the urethra

139
Q

One difference between male and female urethra is male urethra is:

A

Part of two different body systems

140
Q

Beginning of the “plumbing system” of urinary system, urine leaving the renal papilla is collected in cup-like structures called:

A

Calyces

141
Q

Urine is conducted from the kidney to the urinary bladder through a tube called:

A

Ureter

142
Q

Substances travel from glomerulus into the Bowman’s capsule by a process of:

A

Filtration

143
Q

Of all blood pumped pumped per minute by the heart, approximately how much goes through the kidneys?

A

1/3

144
Q

Cells called podocytes make up what?

A

Visceral layer of the Bowman’s capsule

145
Q

Portion of the nephron the empties into a calyx is the what?

A

Collecting tube

146
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the glomerular-capsular membrane?

A

Parietal layer of the Bowman capsule

147
Q

Portion of nephron that can lie within the medulla is the:

A

Loop of Henle

148
Q

Dually innervated autonomic vs. single innervated

A

A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A single innervated innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division

149
Q

When a male baby was born, the pediatrician discovered that the baby’s left testicle had not descended into the scrotum. If the situation is not corrected soon might the baby be sterile?

A

Yes, because the higher the temperature inside the body cavity inhibits spermatogenesis, which could result in permanent sterility if untreated.

Anatomy & Physiology II (9 decks)

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