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NCM 119: LEADERSHIP > MIDTERM: QUIZ 1 > Flashcards

MIDTERM: QUIZ 1 Flashcards

1
Q

are systematic guides for developing ethical behavior. They answer normative questions of what beliefs and values should be normally accepted.

A

Code of Ethics

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2
Q

A highlight on the creation of Nurses Code of Ethics was composed by a nursing instructor

A

Lystra Gretter in 1893

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3
Q

one who wrote the following words that best describes the code of ethics of nurses in the oath for nurses:

A

“to abstain from whatever is deleterious and mischievous and will not take or knowingly administer any harmful drug.”

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3
Q

known as the Philippines Nursing Law, and Section 6 of P.D No. 223, the

A

Pursuant to Sec. 3 of RA No. 877

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4
Q

known as the Philippines Nursing Law, and Section 6 of P.D No. 223, the Amended Code of Ethics for Nurses recommended and endorsed by the

A

PNA was adopted to govern the practice of nursing in the Philippines.

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5
Q

was adopted and integrated, as they apply to the nursing profession.

A

Code of Good Governance for the Professions

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6
Q

Article I

A

Preamble

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7
Q

Article II

A

Registered Nurses and People

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8
Q

Article III

A

Registered Nurses and Practice

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9
Q

Article IV

A

Registered Nurses and
Co-worker

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10
Q

Article V

A

Registered Nurses, Society, and
Environment

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11
Q

Article VI

A

Registered Nurses and the
Profession

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12
Q

Article VII –

A

Administrative Penalties,
Repealing, Clause and Effectivity

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12
Q

implies a commitment to a life of sacrifice and genuine selflessness.

A

Service to others

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13
Q

perform the responsibilities with the highest sense of integrity and imbued with nationalism and spiritual values.

A

Integrity and Objectivity

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14
Q

certain level of competence is necessary, i.e., knowledge, technical skills, attitudes and experience.

A

Professional Competence

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14
Q

maintain and support professional organization.

A

Solidarity and Teamwork

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14
Q

consistent with their responsibilities to society and as Filipinos, contribute to the attainment of the country’s national objectives.

A

Social and Civic Responsibility

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15
Q

professionals shall remain open to the challenges of a more dynamic and interconnected world.

A

Global Competitiveness

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15
Q

OTHERWISE KNOWN AS “ THE PHILIPPINE NURSING ACT OF 1991”

A

ACT NO. 7164

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15
Q

all professionals shall treat their colleagues with respect and strive to be fair in their dealings with one another.

A

Equality of All Professions

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15
Q

ACT PROVIDING FOR A MORE RESPONSIVE NURSING PROFESSION, REPEALING FOR THE PURPOSE REPUBLIC

A

Republic Act No. 9173

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16
Q

Article I PNA

A

Title

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16
Q

Article II PNA

A

Declaration of Policy

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16
Q

Article III PNA

A

Organization of the Board of Nursing

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16
Q

Article IV PNA

A

Examination and Registration

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16
Q

Article V PNA

A

Nursing education

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16
Q

Article VI PNA

A

Nursing Practice

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17
Q

Article VII PNA

A

Health Human Resource Production, Utilization and Development

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18
Q

Article VIII PNA

A

Penal and Miscellaneous Provisions

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18
Q

Article IX PNA

A

Final Provisions

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19
Q

refers to the commission or omission of an act, pursuant to a duty, that a reasonably prudent person in the same or similar circumstance would or would not do, and acting or the non-acting of which is the proximate cause of injury to another person or his property.

A

Professional Negligence

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20
Q

Failure to report observations to attending
physician.

A

SPECIFIC EXAMPLES OF NEGLIGENCE

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21
Q

The most common defense in a negligent action is

A

when nurses know and attain that standard of care in giving service and that they have documented the care they give in a concise and accurate manner.

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22
Q

Nurses shall exercise their __________________________________ in order to prevent lawsuits or harm to themselves.

A

sound judgement and utilize standards of care

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23
Q

Res Ipsa Loquitor means

A

“the thing speaks for itself”.

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24
Q

implies the idea of improper or unskillful care of a patient by a nurse. Malpractice also denotes stepping beyond one’s authority with serious consequences.

A

MALPRACTICE

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25
Q

lack of ability, or legal qualifications and being unfit to discharge the required duty.

A

INCOMPETENCE

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25
Q

is the imminent threat of harmful or offensive bodily contact.

A

Assault

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25
Q

The term “force majeure” means

A

an irresistible force, one that is unforeseen or inevitable.

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26
Q

DOCTRINE OF RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR
The term means

A

“let the master answer for the acts of the subordinate”

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26
Q

is a legal wrong, committed against a person or property independent of a contract which renders the person who commits it liable for damages in a civil action.

A

INTENTIONAL WRONGS:
TORTS

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26
Q

The right of privacy is the right to be left alone, the right to be free from unwarranted publicity and exposure to public view.

A

Confidentiality.

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27
Q

Character assassination, be it written or spoken, constitute defamation.

A

Defamation.

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27
Q

is an intentional, unconsented touching of another person.

A

Battery

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28
Q

means the unjustifiable detention of a person without a legal warrant within boundaries fixed by the defendant by an act or violation of duty intended to result in such confinement.

A

False imprisonment

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29
Q

is oral defamation of a person by speaking unprivileged or false words by which his reputation is damaged.

A

Slander

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29
Q

is defamation by written words, or such representations that caused a person to be avoided or tend to injure him in his work.

A

Libel

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30
Q

Criminal offenses are composed of two elements:

A

Criminal act
Evil/criminal intent

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31
Q

a crime exists when two or more persons agree to commit a felony and decide to do it.

A

Conspiracy to commit a crime. v

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32
Q

those who take a direct part in the execution of the act.

A

Principals

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33
Q

those persons who, not being principals, cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous act.

A

Accomplices

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34
Q

those who, having knowledge of the commission of the crime, either as principals or accomplices

A

Accessories

35
Q

deal with the acts or offenses against public welfare

A

Criminal Actions

36
Q

general name for a criminal offense which does not in law amount to felony.

A

Misdemeanor

37
Q

is a public offense for which a convicted person is liable to be sentenced to death or to be imprisoned.

A

Felony

38
Q

crime committed by means of fault or culpa. It disregards the life and safety of others.

A

Criminal Negligence

39
Q

when a person does an act or fails to do it voluntarily but without malice, from which material damage results immediately.

A

Reckless imprudence

40
Q

when a person or nurse did not use precaution and the damage was not immediate or the impending danger was not evident or manifest.

A

Simple imprudence

41
Q

the state of mind of a person at the time the criminal act is committed, that is, he knows that an act is not lawful and still decided to do it anyway.

A

Criminal Intent

42
Q

are classified according to the degree of the acts of execution which produces the felony into:

A

Felonies

43
Q

when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present.

A

Consummated

44
Q

when the offendor performs all the acts or execution which will produce the felony as a consequence but which nevertheless, do not produce it by reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator.

A

Frustrated

45
Q

to commit a felony when the offender commences the commission of the same directly by overt acts, and does not perform all the acts.

A

Attempted

46
Q

an act of baseness, vileness or depravity in social or private duties which a man owes to his fellow man or to society in general.

A

Moral Turpitude

47
Q

unlawful killing of a human being with intent to kill. It is a very serious crime.

A

Murder

48
Q

killing of a human being by another

A

Homicide

49
Q

any person who, with the intention of prematurely ending a pregnancy, willfully and unlawfully does any act to cause the same is guilty of procuring abortion.

A

Abortion

50
Q

is the killing of a child less than three (3) days of age.

A

Infanticide

51
Q

a crime committed by one who kills his/her father, mother or child whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his/her ascendants or descendants or his/her spouse.

A

Parricide

52
Q

crime against a person or property.

A

Robbery

53
Q

known as the Dangerous Drug Act of 1972 covers the administration and regulation of the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled drugs.

A

Republic Act 6425

54
Q

is a legal declaration of a person’s intentions upon death. It is called a
___________ because it takes effect after the death of its maker.

A

testamentary document

55
Q

is a legal declaration of a person’s intentions upon death. It is called a testamentary document because it takes effect after the death of its maker.

A

WILLS

56
Q

is a person whose property is transmitted through succession whether or not he left a will. If he left a will, he is also called a

A

testator.

57
Q

is a person whose property is transmitted through succession whether or not he left a will. If he left a will, he is also called a testator.

A

DECEDENT

58
Q

person called to succession either by the provision of a will or by operation of law.

A

heir

59
Q

s a meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself, with respect to the other, to give something or render some service.

A

CONTRACT

60
Q

refers to an agreement among parties involved and is required to be in writing by some special laws.

A

Formal Contract

61
Q

is one which is concluded as the result of a written document or correspondence where the law does not require the same to be in writing, or as the result of oral and open discussion between the parties.

A

Informal Contract

62
Q

is one in which the conditions and terms of the contract are given orally or in writing by the parties concerned.

A

Express Contract

63
Q

facio ut des

A

I do that you may give”

64
Q

is one that is concluded as a result of acts of conduct of the parties to which the law ascribes an objective intention to enter into a contract.

A

Implied Contract

65
Q

is one that is inexistent from the very beginning and therefore may not be enforced.

A

Void Contract

66
Q

is one that is expressly prohibited by law.

A

Illegal contract

67
Q

obtained through use of fraud (deception and trickery), undue (unlawful) influence or duress (coercion) in securing such, and those that are expressly prohibited by law are illegal.

A

Illegal Contracts

68
Q

is failure to perform an agreement, whether expressed or implied, without cause.

A

Breach of contract

69
Q

is a law approved by former Pres. Corazon C. Aquino on March 26, 1992, and authored by Sen. Edgardo Angara, is

A

R.A 7305.

70
Q

R.A 7305.

A

“Magna Carta for Public Health Workers”

71
Q

is defined as process of planning, organizing, staffing, directing and controlling the managerial function of nursing in order to determine and accomplish the objectives of nursing care.

A

Nursing management

72
Q

Characteristics of Management Process

SINGDU

A

Systematic
Dynamic
Interpersonal
Goal-Directed
Universally applicable

73
Q

it has an ordered sequence of activities.

A

Systematic

74
Q

it has great interaction and overlapping among the activities and each activity is fluid and flows into the next activity.

A

Dynamic

75
Q

it ensures that nurses are patient-centered rather than task-centered

A

Interpersonal

76
Q

it is a means for nurses and patients to work together to identify specific goals.

A

Goal-Directed

77
Q

it allows nurses to practice nursing with well or ill people, young or old and in any type of practice setting.

A

Universally applicable

78
Q

proficiency in a particular workplace.

A

TECHNICAL SKILLS

79
Q

involves human relations

A

INTERPERSONAL SKILL

80
Q

ability to see the organization as a whole.

A

CONCEPTUAL SKILL

81
Q

used to investigate problems, decide on a remedy, and implement a solution.

A

DIAGNOSTIC SKILL

82
Q

obtaining power and preventing other employees from taking away one’s power.

A

POLITICAL SKILL

83
Q

NURSING MANAGEMENT PROCESS:
Focuses on

POSDC

A

Planning
Organizing
Staffing
Directing
Controlling

84
Q

Is pre-determining a course of action in order to arrive at a desired result.
Is the process of establishing goals, defining, and developing strategy and tactic for action.

A

PLANNING

85
Q

Components of Planning: Predetermined Action

Qs?

A

What to do
How to do it
Who is to do it

86
Q

3-5 yrs long-term planning
Defines the direction and growth of the organization.
Prepared by top level management

A

Strategic Plans

87
Q

Tactics, techniques
1 yr short term planning
Involves middle & lower level managers

A

OPERATING PLANS

88
Q

Mapping the day-to-day activities
Implements the nursing care plan
Done by the staff

A

Continuous or Rolling Plans

89
Q

3 TYPES of PLAN
SOC

A

Strategic Plans
OPERATING PLANS
Continuous or Rolling Plans

90
Q

Top Management:
Nursing Directors, Chief Nurse

Scope?

A

Over-all management of the organization (set over – all goals and policies)

91
Q

Middle Mgt.:
Nurse Supervisors
Scope?

A

Directs to implement the broad operating policies
Staffing & delivery of services to the unit heads.
Formulation of policies, rules & regulations, methods & procedures.

92
Q

First Level Mgt.:
Head Nurse,
Scope?

A

Daily schedule

93
Q

Senior Nurse,
Charge Nurse
Scope?

A

Weekly plans of patient care.

94
Q

Why Nurse-Managers Fail to Plan Effectively?

A

Lack of knowledge
Lack of understanding of the significance of planning
Lack of proper appreciation of use of time for planning
Lack of confidence and fear of failure

95
Q

ELEMENTS OF PLANNING

DEPPSF

A

Forecasting
Setting goals and objectives
Developing and Scheduling Programs
Preparing the Budgeting
Establishment of Nursing Standards, Policies & Procedures

96
Q

estimates the future, the environment in which the plan will operate…

A

FORECASTING

97
Q

are broad statements of intent derived from the purposes of organization.

A

Goals

98
Q

are specific behavior or tasks set for the accomplishment of goal.

A

Objectives

99
Q

an annual operating plan.
a financial roadmap.
is a plan for future activities expressed in operational as well as financial or monetary

A

Budget

100
Q

is a plan for allocation of resources based on preconceived needs, for a proposed series of programs to deliver patient care during fiscal year.

A

Nursing Budget

101
Q

is a financial plan to meet the future service expectations. ( manpower, equipment, supplies)

A

Hospital Budget

102
Q

FOUR Components of Budget

A

Revenue
Expense budget
Capital
Cash

103
Q

summarizes the income management

A

Revenue budget

104
Q

describes expected activity in operational and financial terms for a given period of time.

A

Expense budget

105
Q

outlines the programmed acquisitions, disposals and improvement in the institutions physical capacity.

A

Capital budget

106
Q

represents the planned cash receipts and disbursement as well as the cash balances expected during the planning period

A

Cash budget

107
Q

indicate a level of quality or achievement

A

Standard

108
Q

broad guidelines, standing plans used repeatedly, or basic rules that governs action at all levels in the organization.

A

Policies

109
Q

are more specific guides or directions for implementing written policies.

A

Procedures

110
Q

should be available in each unit to be familiarized in the nursing unit. It should be reviewed, updated and revised with the maximum involvement from the nursing staff.

A

Nursing procedure manuals

111
Q

MODELS OF PLANNING

A

“Basic” Strategic Planning
Issue-Based or Goal – Based Planning
Alignment Model
Scenario Planning
“Organic” or Self-Organizing Planning
Functional planning
Cross-Sectional planning
Operational Planning

NCM 119: LEADERSHIP (9 decks)

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