Midterm Flashcards
- Why does instructor Moor recommend placing the lateral Carlson (Sabolich) Modification 1 1/2” above the apex of the lateral malleolus?
a. Just to be different
b. To avoid a sensory nerve that courses over the distal shaft of the fibula that can be impinged in some individuals.
c. Because it impinges on the sciatic nerve causing paralysis of the ankle dorsiflexors
d. All of the above
e. b and c
b. To avoid a sensory nerve that courses over the distal shaft of the fibula that can be impinged in some individuals.
What mid-foot bone may need to be relieved for a patient presenting with ERD?
a. navicular
b. Medial Malleolus
c. Cuboid
d. Plantar surface of the 1st met head
e. lateral calcaneus
c. Cuboid
Which joint of the foot that primarily provides the dorsi and plantar flexion?
a. Midtarsal joint
b. subtalor joint
c. talocrual joint
d. metatarsal phalangeal
e. none of the above
c. talocrual
Internal rotatory deformity includes the following:
a. calcaneal varus, mid-pronation and forefoot adduction
b. Calcaneal valgus, mid supination, and forefoot abduction
c. Calcaneal varus, mid supination and forefoot adduction
d. Calcaneal valgus, mid pronation and forefoot abduction
d. Calcaneal valgus, mid pronation and forefoot abduction
True or false: 3 point forces that control forefoot adduction in UCBLs is two forces on the lateral side with one on the medial side.
False
What three point force system will control genu-valgum?
Proxiaml lateral force pushing medially
Distal lateral force pushing medially
Lateral pushing force at the knee
True or false: FRO AFOs are effective in controlling 15 degrees of knee flexion
True
What is the defintiion of intrinsic posting?
a. change to the model by either adding or removing of material that repositions
b. Adding padding to control ERD
c. Adding material to the outside of the orthosis for control of positioning
d. Innately good
a. change to the model by either adding or removing of material that repositions
True or false: A posterior extrinsic post on a solid ankle or 90 degree stop AFO can be used to limit knee hyperextension.
True
True or false: a torn ACL allows the femur to slide posteriorly on the tibial plateau and can lead to damage to the meniscus
True
What are/is the primary stabilizers of the knee?
a. Ligaments
b. knee orthoses
c. muscles
d. patella
c. Muscles
True or false: Even thou instructor Moor does not agree, the Atlas states that the proximal trimline for a FRO terminates from the distal to mid-patella.
True
According to M=FxD, what factors affect the moment at the knee in FRO AFOs?
a. Height of the anterior trimline
b. weight of the individual
c. length of the toe lever arm
d. length of the tibia
e. b and c
e. b and c
When hand casting for a right IRD _______?
a. the right hand is grabbing the calcaneus and torqueing it to reduce valgus
b. the left hand is pushing the forefoot into abduction
c. the right hand is grabbing the calcaneus to torque it to reduce the valgus
d. the right hand is pushing the forefoot into adduction
e. a and d
a. the right hand is grabbing the calcaneus and torqueing it to reduce valgus
True or false: To calculate the shoe heel height take the measured difference of the heel and forefoot sole thickness.
True
True or false: The AFO mold is placed with the metatarsal heads at the edge of the table, blocks, of the appropriate shoes heel height, are placed under the heel, and the tibial inclination jig is aligned with the mid-sagittal line of the lower section of the mold to get the corrected position.
False
True or false: Functional tone is a baseline postural tone that aligns and supports the body in a functional anti-gravity position.
True
True or false: Spasticity is a hypersensitive deep tendon reflex loop.
True
Spastic hemi-plegia is when____.
a. poor control of body and limbs
b. tone is exhibited on one side of the body
c. slow writhing movements
d. four limbs involved
e. two limbs involved
b. tone is exhibited on one side of the body
What most likely additional complication might you see in a patient with choreoathetosis?
a. PF contractions
b. rigidity
c. ligament laxiety
d. flaccidity
e. DF contractions
c. ligament laxiety
Match the disease associated with the tone below a. choreoathetosis b. rigidity c. flaccidity d. spasticity e. hypotonus Unregulated movement Parkinson's Spina Bifida Cerebral palsy Dance like movement
Unregulated movement: e. hypotonus Parkinson's: b. rigidity Spina Bifida: c. flaccidity Cerebral palsy d. spasticity Dance like movement: a. choreoathetosis
What is the advantage of the Tardieu spasticity measuring scale over the Ashworth or modified Ashworth scale.
a. It is simpler using only a 0 to 4 scale
b. it accounts or any underlying contractions
c. It only measures fast resistance to stretch
d. it is a 0 to 3 scale with 3 showing spontaneous tone with little provocation
e. it only measures resistance to stretch
b. it accounts or any underlying contractions
True or false: Usually the best design device for clonus is a spring assisted DF AFO.
False
True or false: Rigidity is a bidirectional hypertonicity where the agonist and antagonist is relatively equal.
True
Contraindication for the spiral AFO include:
a. required total contact
b. expected need for frequent adjustments (such as charcot foot)
c. patients with spasticity
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
d. all of the above
Indications for a laminated articulated FRO:
a. works well for neuropathic patients due to its ease of adjustment
b. is effective for knee hyperextension because its primary function is to create knee flexion moment
c. works for patients with a knee flexion contraction of 25 degrees since it provides a knee extension moment
d. allows for more normal gait patterns and step length by not unnecessarily blocking plantarfexion.
e. none of the above
d. allows for more normal gait patterns and step length by not unnecessarily blocking plantarfexion.
Advantages of plastic AFOs____:
a. easy to create energy response
b. plastic is easily modified for adjustments
c. ease of fabrication
d. all of the above
e. b and c
e. b and c
Why is it important to use a CROW for Dx of charcot joint?
a. because it is neurologically intact
b. because of concerns for circulation
c. It is a progressive degenerative arthropathy which needs to be immobilized
d. none of the above
c. It is a progressive degenerative arthropathy which needs to be immobilized
CROW stand for a. a specialty orthosis for black birds b. Charcot restraint orthotic walker c. crouch restraint orthotic walker d. charcot resilient orthotic walker charcot resistant orthopedic walker
b. Charcot restraint orthotic walker
The most important benefit for the leather closure CROW boot is ______:
a. it cannot cut off circulation
b. adjustability for changes in edema
c. ease of donning
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
b. adjustability for changes in edema
True or false: Advantages of having an articulated FRO is the ability to optimize alignment, with the potential of not affecting other gait parameters.
True
An indication for the PTB axial loading orthosis is _____:
a. Poor circulation
b. knee instability
c. foot fractures
d. proximal tibia fx
e. cosmesis
c. foot fractures
True or false: The corset styled axial loading AFO has a benefit of breathability, but one needs to be aware of circulation issues due to the total circumferential loading to soft tissue.
True
The purpose of CROW boots include______
a. protect limb from further fractures
b. immobilize joints to allow healing
c. can accomodate for ulcerations
d. rocker bottom replaces immobilized joints and reduces force on the limb
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Foot slap is ______
a. weak PF muscles
b. Seen in terminal stance
c. weak DF muscles
d. seen in midstance
e. c and d
c. weak DF muscles
True of false: Drop foot in terminal stance can be caused by weak dorsi flexors.
false
If a patient is walking on their toes it could be an indication of _____
a. PF contraction
b. flaccidity
c. DF contraction
d. Spasticity
e. a and d
e. a and d
If a patient is walking with little hip or knee flexion, it could indicate _______
a. extensor synergy
b. flexor synergy
c. a need for a FRO to reduce knee flexion if it is less than 20 degrees
d. weak DF
e. b and c
a. extensor synergy
