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AHT 1110 > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what hormones are associated with the hypothalamus

A

antidiuretic
hormone (ADH)
oxytocin

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2
Q

what hormones are associated with the anterior pituitary

A
  1. growth hormone (GH)
  2. prolactin
  3. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
  4. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  5. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  6. luteinizing hormone
  7. melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
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3
Q

what hormones are stored in the posterior pituitary

A

antidiuretic
hormone (ADH)
oxytocin

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4
Q

what hormones are made in the thyroid gland?

A

thyroid hormone
calcitonin

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5
Q

what hormone is produced by the parathyroids glands

A

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

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6
Q

what hormones are made in the adrenal cortex

A
  1. glucocorticoids (cortisone, cortisol, corticosterone)
  2. mineralcorticoids (e.g. aldosterone)
  3. sex hormones (androgens, estrogens)
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7
Q

what hormones are made in the adrenal medulla

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

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8
Q

what hormones are made in the pancreas

A

glucagon
insulin
somatostatin
digestive enzymes

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9
Q

what hormones do the ovaries make

A
  1. estrogens (estradiol and estrone)
  2. progestins
  3. relaxin
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10
Q

what hormone does the kidney make

A

erythropoietin

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11
Q

what hormone does the stomach make

A

gastrin

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12
Q

what hormones dees the small intestine make

A

secretin
cholecystokinin

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13
Q

what hormones does the placenta make

A
  1. estrogen
  2. progesterone
  3. chorionic gonadotropin (some species)
  4. relaxin (some species)
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14
Q

what hormones does the thymus make

A

thymosin and thymopoietin
also primitive cells in thymus transformed into T-lymphocytes
(T-cells)

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15
Q

what does the pineal body make

A

melatonin

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16
Q

what is the difference between endo and exocrine glands

A

endo are ductless, excrete directly into blood stream, exo are ducted (ie liver)

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17
Q

what are the animal hormone groups?

A

peptide
steroid
monoamine

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18
Q

what are peptide hormones

A
  • hydrophilic chains of amino acids
  • receptors located on cell membranes of target cells
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19
Q

what are steroid hormones

A
  • synthesized from cholesterol
  • hydrophobic so attach to transport protein = bound hormone
  • receptors located within the cell
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20
Q

what are monoamine
hormones

A
  • derived from amino acids and retain an amino group
  • receptors for catecholamines located on cell membranes
  • receptors for thyroid hormones located in the nucleus
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21
Q

describe negative vs positive feedback for hormones

A
  1. negative feedback
    activity decreased by rising levels of hormone
  2. positive feedback
    activity increased by increased levels of hormone
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22
Q

how are hormones controlled?

A

level of hormone in blood directly or indirectly
“feeds back” to the gland that produced it

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23
Q

where is the hypothalamus

A

part of the diencephalon
of the brain

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24
Q

what does the hypothalamus do?

A

controls activities of the
pituitary gland

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25
Q

where does the hypothalamus store it’s hormones?

A

posterior pituitary

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26
Q

what is another name for pituitary

A

Hypophysis
master gland

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27
Q

what is the anterior pituitary called

A

adenohypophysis

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28
Q

what is the posterior pituitary called

A

neurohypophysis

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29
Q

what is another name for growth hormone

A

somatotropin/
somatotropic hormone

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30
Q

what does growth hormone do?

A
  1. promotes body growth in young animals
  2. helps regulate metabolism of proteins, lipids, and
    carbohydrates in all body cells
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31
Q

what does prolactin do

A
  1. helps trigger and maintain lactation
  2. production and release continues as long as teat
    continues to be stimulated by nursing or milking
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32
Q

What is Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) also called?

A

thyrotropic hormone

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33
Q

what does Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) do?

A
  1. stimulates growth and development of thyroid gland
  2. causes thyroid gland to produce its hormones
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34
Q

how is TSH regulated

A
  1. by feedback from thyroid
  2. by interaction among hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and
    thyroid glands
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35
Q

what does ACTH do?

A

stimulates growth and development of adrenal
cortex, and release of some of its hormones

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36
Q

How is ACTH regulated

A

production regulated by feedback from hormones of
the adrenal cortex

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37
Q

What does FSH do?

A

effects in the female:
- stimulates oogenesis
- stimulates production and secretion of estrogen
effects in the male
- stimulates spermatogenesis

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38
Q

What does luteinizing hormone do?

A

completes process of follicle development in ovary
LH in males stimulates interstitial cells to produce
testosterone

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39
Q

what does Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone do

A

associated with control of color changes in pigment
cells of reptiles, fish, and amphibians

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40
Q

what does Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) do?

A
  1. helps prevent diuresis
  2. released when hypothalamus detects dehydration
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41
Q

what is diabetes insipidus

A

ADH deficiency (PU/PD)

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42
Q

what does Oxytocin do

A
  1. induces uterine contractions at breeding and parturition
  2. causes movement of milk down to lower parts of the mammary gland (milk letdown)
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43
Q

what are the thyroid hormones?

A

T4 = tetraiodothyronine = thyroxine
- a prohormone, a circulating reservoir
T3 = triiodothyronine
- the active hormone

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44
Q

when are thyroid hormones made?

A

when TSH from anterior
pituitary stimulates the thyroid gland

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45
Q

what is the effect of thyroid hormones?

A
  1. regulates metabolic rate of all body’s cells
  2. affects metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates,
    and lipids
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46
Q

what does calcitonin do

A
  1. helps maintain blood calcium levels
  2. prevents hypercalcemia by encouraging excess
    calcium to be deposited in bones
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47
Q

what does parathyroid hormone do?

A
  1. helps maintain blood calcium homeostasis
    a. causes kidneys to retain calcium
    b. causes intestines to absorb calcium from food
    c. withdraws calcium from bones
  2. exerts the opposite effect of calcitonin
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48
Q

what do glucocorticoids do?

A
  1. cause general hyperglycemic effect
  2. help maintain blood pressure
  3. help body resist effects of stress
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49
Q

what does aldosterone do

A

regulate levels of electrolytes

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50
Q

what do alpha cells in the pancreas produce

A

glucagon

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51
Q

what do alpha cells in the pancreas produce

A

insulin

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52
Q

what doe delta cells in the pancreas produce

A

produce somatostatin

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53
Q

what does insulin do

A

lowers blood glucose levels by causing glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids in blood to be
absorbed into body cells

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54
Q

what does glucagon do

A

raises blood glucose levels
- stimulates liver cells to convert glycogen to glucose
- stimulates glycogenesis

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55
Q

what does FSH do

A

stimulates ovarian follicles to develop

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56
Q

where are progestins produced

A

corpus luteum

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57
Q

what is progestin used for

A

maintaining pregnancy

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58
Q

what is relaxin used for

A
  • relaxation of ligaments surrounding birth canal
  • mammary development
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59
Q

what is erythropoietin used for

A

increase production of red blood cells

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60
Q

what is gastrin used for

A
  • causes gastric stomach glands to secrete hydrochloric acid
    and digestive enzymes
  • encourages muscular contractions of stomach wall
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61
Q

when is gastrin secreted

A

secretion stimulated by presence of food

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62
Q

when is secretin, cholecystokinin secreted

A

secretion in response to presence of chyme
in duodenum

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63
Q

what does secretin do

A
  • stimulates pancreas to secrete fluid to neutralize acidic chyme
  • slows movement of chyme
  • stimulates gall bladder to send bile to small intestine
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64
Q

what does cholecystokinin do

A
  • stimulates pancreas to release digestive enzymes
  • slows movement of chyme
  • stimulates gall bladder to send bile to small intestine
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65
Q

what does melatonin do

A
  • affects moods and wake-sleep cycles
  • may also have role in timing of seasonal estrus cycles
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66
Q

what are prostaglandins

A

hormone-like substances derived from unsaturated
fatty acids

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67
Q

what do prostaglandins do

A
  • influence blood pressure, blood clotting, and inflammation
  • influence functions of GI tract, kidneys, and reproductive
    system
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68
Q

examples of Metabolic Waste Products

A

carbon dioxide and water
nitrogenous wastes (urea)
bile salts and pigments
various salts

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69
Q

what is the single most important route for removal of
waste products

A

urinary system

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70
Q

how do kidneys maintain homeostasis

A
  1. blood filtration, reabsorption, secretion
  2. fluid balance regulation through antidiuretic hormone (ADH), aldosterone
  3. acid-base balance regulation
  4. production of hormones
    erythropoietin, prostaglandins
  5. blood pressure regulation
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71
Q

what is a hylus

A

indented area on medial side of kidney. Where ureters, nerves, blood and lymph vessels enter and leave

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72
Q

funnel-shaped area inside hilus

A

renal pelvis

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73
Q

what does the renal corpuscle do?

A

filters blood in
first stage of urine
production

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74
Q

Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) function

A

reabsorption and
secretion functions

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75
Q

Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) function

A
  • primary site of ADH action,
  • regulation of potassium
    and acid-base balance
  • DCTs from all nephrons
    in the kidney empty into
    collecting ducts
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76
Q

afferent
glomerular
arterioles function

A

carry
blood to renal
corpuscle

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77
Q

glomerular
capillaries function

A

filter
some plasma out
of the blood

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78
Q

peritubular
capillaries function

A

oxygen transfer to
cells of nephron
tubular
reabsorption and
tubular secretion

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79
Q

Mechanisms of Renal Action

A
  1. filtration of the blood
  2. reabsorption of useful substances back into the bloodstream
  3. secretion of waste products from the blood
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80
Q

what does glomerular filtration rate (GFR) depend on

A

rate of blood flow to kidney

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81
Q

where are sodium ions reabsorbed in the nephron

A

ascending loop of henle

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82
Q

where is potassium and calcium reabsorbed in the nephron

A

in the PCT,
ascending loop of Henle, and DCT

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83
Q

where is magnesium reabsorbed in the nephron

A

from PCT, ascending loop of Henle, and the collecting duct

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84
Q

what is secreted by the nephron

A

waste products
eliminated by secretion:
hydrogen, potassium,
ammonia
also some medications

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85
Q

urine volume is determined by what

A

amount of water
contained in tubular filtrate when it reaches the renal pelvis
It is controlled by actions of 2 hormones:
(ADH- if absent, polyuria results) & aldosterone

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86
Q

how do kidneys regulate blood pressure

A
  1. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system responds when
    blood pressure falls
  2. renin is released, and splits enzyme angiotensin
  3. increased amounts of sodium and water reabsorbed back into
    bloodstream, causing an increase in blood volume
  4. as blood volume increases, so does blood pressure
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87
Q

what is trigone

A

arrangement of
openings of ureters
into bladder and
opening from
bladder into urethra

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88
Q

what type of cells line the ureters, bladder, urethra

A

transitional epethilial

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89
Q

what are the 4 layers of the digestive system

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscular layers
serosa

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90
Q

what 2 systems regulate the gastrointestinal system?

A

combination of central nervous system
and endocrine system

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91
Q

what are the 2 parts of the mouth

A
  1. vestibule: space between lips and cheeks, and outer surface of teeth
  2. oral cavity: bordered by inner surface of teeth, and hard and soft palates
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92
Q

why type of teeth do omnivores, carnivores have

A

brachyodont teeth

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93
Q

what type of teeth do herbivores have

A

hypsodont teeth

94
Q

what are the characteristics of hypsodont teeth

A
  1. large reserve of crown
    beneath gingiva
  2. grow continually
95
Q

what are the different types of teeth

A
  1. incisor
  2. canine
  3. premolar
  4. molar
96
Q

how many teeth do dogs have

A

42

97
Q

how many teeth do cats have

A

30

98
Q

how many teeth do horses have

A

40/42

99
Q

how many teeth do cows have

A

32

100
Q

what do the papillae on the tongue do?

A
  1. mechanical functions:
    grooming and moving food into pharynx
  2. specialized functions:
    taste sensations, pain, temperature, touch,
    and thermoregulation through panting (dogs)
101
Q

what is the purpose of saliva

A

⚪ lubrication
⚪ antibacterial action
⚪ pH regulation
⚪ thermoregulation
⚪ enzymatic digestion

102
Q

name the salivary glands

A

parotid, mandibular, and sublingual

103
Q

movements of the temporal mandibular joint

A

⚪ extension
⚪ flexion
⚪ translation

104
Q

how many layers of muscle are in the esophagus

A

2: circumferential, longitudinal

105
Q

what does the Omentum do?

A

connects the
peritoneum that
links the stomach to
abdominal wall or
to other organs

106
Q

functions of the stomach

A
  1. storage of ingested food
  2. mechanical and chemical breakdown of food
  3. production of intrinsic factor for Vitamin B12 absorption in small intestine
107
Q

what are the different areas of a monogastric stomach

A

cardia
fundus
body
duodenum

108
Q

what is Rugae

A
  • transient folds in
    gastric mucosa
  • allow stomach to
    expand when
    filled with food
  • increase surface
    area for
    absorption
109
Q

what are the different gastric pit cells and what do they secrete?

A

Chief- pepsinogen
Mucous neck
Parietal- H+ and Cl- ions
G-cells- gastrin

110
Q

how is pepsinogen converted to pepsin

A

through presence of HCl

111
Q

what are the 2 phases of secretion in the stomach

A

cephallic, gastric

112
Q

what 3 substances stimulate secretions by glandular cells n stomach

A
  1. acetylcholine from cholinergic neurons
  2. gastrin released by G cells
  3. histamine secreted by enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL-cells) in gastric mucosa
113
Q

describe cephalic phase of gastric secretion

A

begins in anticipation of eating
1. enteric nervous system is stimulated
2. acetylcholine is released and binds to receptors
a. parietal cells secrete H+ and Cl- ions
b. chief cells secrete pepsinogen into stomach
c. G cells secrete gastrin into bloodstream
3. gastrin travels to parietal cells and ECL-cells,
ECL-cells release histamine
4. acetylcholine also triggers histamine release by ECL-cells. Histamine stimulates parietal cell to produce more H+ and
Cl- ions

114
Q

describe Gastric Phase of Secretion

A

begins when food enters stomach
1. glandular cells stimulated by stretching of stomach wall
2. peptides formed by protein breakdown
3. released acetylcholine stimulates secretions

115
Q

function of fundus

A

expands to
accommodate large
volumes of food

116
Q

function of pyloric antrum

A

acts like
a pump

117
Q

what hormones are released by small intestine that can also delay gastric emptying

A

⚪ secretin
⚪ cholecystokinin (CCK)
⚪ gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)

118
Q

what are the 2 phases of chemical digestion in the stomach

A
  1. luminal digestion
    process of hydrolysis
  2. membranous chemical digestion
    - hydrolysis repeated
    - molecules broken down into most basic components
119
Q

what are starches

A

repeating glucose monosaccharides

120
Q

what are sugars

A

⚪ simple monosaccharides (glucose)
⚪multiple monosaccharides linked together (disaccharides, sucrose and lactose)

121
Q

what is cellulose

A

complex carbohydrate

122
Q

what are protiens

A

made of repeating amino acid units

123
Q

describe carbohydrate digestion

A
  • begins with amylase in saliva
  • continues in stomach and small intestine
124
Q

describe protein digestion

A
  • begins in the stomach; continues in small intestine
    -pepsinogen activated by HCl to pepsin
125
Q

what are the 4 chambers of the ruminent stomach

A

reticulum
rumen
omasum
abomasum

126
Q

are forestomachs are non-glandular

A

yes

127
Q

does abomasum functions same as monogastric stomach

A

yes

128
Q

rumen known as

A

the paunch

129
Q

rumen characteristics

A

⚫occupies most of left side of abdominal cavity
⚫microorganisms ferment carbohydrates
⚫papillae in mucosa increase surface area for
absorption
⚫pillars divide rumen: dorsal sac, ventral sac, and 2 caudal sacs

130
Q

reticulum known as

A

the honeycomb

131
Q

reticulum characteristics

A
  • located cranial to the rumen
  • contents easily enter and exit to rumen
132
Q

what is the esophageal groove

A
  • links esophagus with omasum in young ruminant
  • milk for nursing ruminant bypasses reticulorumen & goes directly to omasum and abomasum
  • if groove didn’t close:
    a. bacteria in reticulorumen would ferment milk
    b. lactic acid produced would inhibit normal microbial action
133
Q

omasum characteristics

A
  • connects reticulorumen to abomasum
  • folds of mucosa with papillae on surfaces
  • absorption of water and salts here
134
Q

omasum known as

A

“many plies” or “book stomach”

135
Q

abomasum known as

A

true stomach

136
Q

abomasum characteristics

A

⚫lined with glandular tissue
⚫released renin causes milk protein coagulation
⚪ prolongs time for pepsin to break down proteins
⚫functions like simple monogastric stomach
⚪ exception: abomasum is not a storage compartment
⚫continuous flow of ingesta into abomasum

137
Q

eructation means

A

betching

138
Q

what do ruminents use as a protein source

A

microorganisms in the forestomach

139
Q

what do starches and sugars break down to in ruminants

A

volatile fatty acids

140
Q

what happens if ruminants eat too many fats?

A

decreased appetite, reduced motility of
reticulorumen, decreased fermentation of cellulose

141
Q

what are the parts of the sm intestine?

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

142
Q

what are lacteals & what do they do

A

lymphatic
capillaries. They carry absorbed lipids
and fat-soluble
substances to thoracic
duct, and into vena cava

143
Q

what is function of cholecystokinin (CCK)

A

⚪ inhibits gastric emptying
⚪ causes increased secretion of bicarbonate and pancreatic digestive enzymes
⚪ stimulates secretion of
enteropeptidase

144
Q

what stimulates the production of CCK

A

high amino acid or fatty acid concentrations, or low pH of chyme entering duodenum

145
Q

what is the function of secretin

A

⚪ decreases HCl production in the stomach
⚪ increases pancreatic and biliary bicarbonate
secretions

146
Q

what is the endocrine function of the pancreas called

A

pancreatic islets

147
Q

what is the exocrine function of the pancreas called

A

groups of acini

148
Q

what do pancreatic islets secrete

A
  • beta cells secrete insulin
  • alpha cells produce glucagon
149
Q

what do groups of ancini excrete

A

excretions contain bicarbonate and digestive
proenzymes (CCK starts activationof these)
Also amylase, lipase, neuclease, protease

150
Q

what are the functions of the liver

A
  • secretes substances essential for digestion and
    absorption of nutrients
  • synthesizes nutrients and regulates their release
    into the bloodstream
  • excretes toxic substances
    (those originating within and from outside the body)
  • produces plasma proteins, cholesterol, and
    blood coagulation factors
151
Q

what are the 2 surfaces of the liver

A

diaphragmatic surface
visceral surface

152
Q

what is the name of the access/egress area on the liver & what goes through there

A

the triad- hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein and bile ducts

153
Q

what does the gallbladder do?

A
  • concentrates and stores bile until needed
  • provides means for liver to excrete waste products
    even when animal is not eating
154
Q

what does bile do

A

digest high fat and peptide
concentrations

155
Q

what is bile composed of?

A

⚪ bile salts
⚪ phospholipids
⚪ cholesterol
⚪ bile pigments

156
Q

what is Enterohepatic Circulation

A
  1. secretion of bile salts into canaliculi
  2. bile salts draw water out of hepatocytes
    and become a liquid bile
  3. bile is released into intestine to emulsify fat
  4. bile salts reabsorbed when they reach the ileum
  5. bile salts enter hepatic portal vein and return to liver
  6. liver reabsorbs bile salts and recycles them back to
    bile
157
Q

how is Bilirubin eliminated Through Bile

A

1, heme converted to biliverdin then to free or unconjugated bilirubin
2. free bilirubin is joined to glucuronic acid in liver
to form a water-soluble bilirubin glucuronide
(conjugated bilirubin)
3. released into bile and enters into small intestine
4. glucuronide removed by bacterial enzymes
most urobilinogen oxidized to urobilin and
stercobilin excreted from body in feces (urobilinogen)
5. remainder of urobilinogen reabsorbed into enterohepatic circulation taken up by liver, re-excreted into bile, re-enters enterohepatic circulation –or– bypasses liver to go to the kidneys via general circulation, is converted to urobilin, and is excreted in urine

158
Q

nutrient processing by liver

A
  • glucose absorbed from small intestine
    ⚪ enters hepatic portal vein
    ⚪ arrives in liver
    ⚪metabolized to produce energy
  • fructose and galactose can be converted to
    glucose by the liver
159
Q

what is glycogenolysis

A

glycogen can be broken down to glucose when needed

160
Q

what is gluconeogenesis

A
  • synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources
  • ketosis
161
Q

what are the 2 movements by the sm intestine?

A
  • peristalsis (propels content)
  • segmentation (mixing action)
162
Q

what are the Absorption methods Across Intestinal Mucosa

A
  1. passive processes
    - simple diffusion
  2. active processes
  3. multiple methods
    - transport molecules
    - antiports
    - secondary active transport
    - facilitated diffusion
163
Q

4-step process to digest and absorb fat

A

⚪ emulsification
⚪ hydrolysis
⚪micelle formation
(chylomicrons)
⚪ absorption

164
Q

what is the cecum

A

blind diverticulum at beginning of colon
- inconspicuous in carnivores
- large blind tube in ruminants
- huge in equines

165
Q

what are the 3 parts of the cecum

A

base, main body, apex

166
Q

what are the sacculations of the lg intestine called

A

haustra

167
Q

what is the function of the haustra

A
  1. muscles form bulging sac-like structures
    - areas contract, then relax
    - then different areas contract and relax
  2. prolongs time contents stay in large intestine
    - increase time for absorption and microbial digestion
168
Q

motility patterns for lg intestine

A

⚪ segmentation
⚪ peristalsis
⚪ antiperistalsis
⚪mass movement

169
Q

function of the large intestine

A

⚪ absorption of water and ions
⚪ completion of carbohydrate or protein microbial digestion
and absorption

170
Q

what are the types of stimuli

A
  1. mechanical (touch/ hearing/ balance)
  2. thermal (hot/ cold)
  3. electromagnetic (vision)
  4. chemical (teste/ smell)
171
Q

what are the 5 general senses

A
  1. visceral sensations (hunger, thirst, hollow organ fullness)
  2. touch (touch & pressure)
  3. temperature
  4. pain
  5. proprioception (body position & movement)
172
Q

what are visceral sensations

A
  • miscellaneous category of interior body sensations
  • vague and poorly localized
    hunger
    thirst
    visceral stretch
    • GI tract
    • urinary system
173
Q

2 types of temperature receptors

A
  1. superficial receptors in the skin detect changes in skin temperature
  2. central receptors in hypothalamus
    monitor temperature of the blood
174
Q

what are pain receptors called

A

nociceptors

175
Q

classifications of pain

A

superficial
deep
visceral
acute
chronic

176
Q

what is Proprioception

A

sense of body position and movement
- movements of limbs
- positions of joints
- state of contraction of muscles
- tension exerted on tendons and ligaments

177
Q

what makes up the external ear?

A

tympanic membrane, pinna, auditory canal

178
Q

what makes up the middle ear?

A

3 ossicles:
malleus = hammer incus = anvil stapes = stirrup

179
Q

what makes up the inner ear

A

vestibule, oval window, round window, cochlea, semicircular canals

180
Q

how does the middle ear change vibrations

A

cause vibrations to decrease in size but amplify in force

181
Q

what is the function the Middle Ear Ossicles

A

act as system of levers that transmit sound wave vibrations from tympanic membrane to cochlea
malleus

182
Q

what does the Eustachian tube connect

A

middle ear cavity with pharynx

183
Q

what is the cochlea

A

snail shell-shaped spiral cavity in temporal bone

184
Q

what is the fluid-filled portion that makes up receptor organ of hearing

A

organ of Corti

185
Q

what is the organ of corti filled with

A

endolymph

186
Q

what does the organ of corti have in it

A

contains hair cells (hearing receptors), supporting cells, and tectorial membrane

187
Q

how do sound waves become electrical impulses

A
  • sound wave vibrations cause tympanic membrane and ossicles in middle ear to vibrate
  • perilymph around cochlear duct vibrates
  • cochlear duct moves
  • tectorial membrane and hair cells of organ of Corti rub against each other
  • nerve impulses are generated
  • impulses travel to brain and are interpreted as sound
188
Q

what is equilibrium in terms of balance

A

helps animal maintain balance by keeping track of head’s position and movements

189
Q

what are the balance organs?

A

vestibule, semi circular canals

190
Q

what 2 parts make up the vestibule

A

utricle
saccule

191
Q

what’s inside the vestibule

A

macula
- hair cells covered by gelatinous matrix that contains otoliths

192
Q

how does the macula transmit information to the brain

A
  1. gravity causes otoliths and gelatinous matrix to put constant pressure on the hairs
  2. movement of head bends sensory hairs
  3. nerve impulse generated to give the brain information about the position of the head
193
Q

what makes up the semicircular canals

A
  1. ampulla
    enlarged area near utricle end of each semicircular canal
  2. crista ampullaris
    receptor structure within the ampulla
  3. cupula
    cone-shaped area of supporting cells and hair cells with their processes sticking up into gelatinous structure
194
Q

how do the semicircular canals detect motion?

A
  1. the head moves
  2. fluid movement lags in one plane of semicircular canals
  3. fluid movement pulls on cupula
  4. hairs are bent
  5. nerve impulse is generated
  6. brain receives information about motion of the head
195
Q

do eye components detect the image?

A

no

196
Q

what do photoreceptors do

A
  1. detect the image
  2. generate visual nerve impulses
197
Q

what makes up the outer layer of the eye

A

cornea, sclera

198
Q

what makes up the middle vascular layer of the eye

A

choroid, iris, ciliary body

199
Q

what makes up the inner nervous layer of the eye

A

retina

200
Q

what is the limbus

A

junction of the cornea and sclera

201
Q

what is the choroid

A
  • lies between sclera and retina
  • consists mainly of pigment and blood vessels
  • tapetum lucidum is highly reflective area in rear of eye
202
Q

what is the iris

A
  • pigmented muscular diaphragm
  • controls amount of light that enters the posterior part of the eye
  • opening in center of iris = pupil
203
Q

what is the ciliary body

A
  • ring-shaped structure behind the iris
  • contains tiny muscles that adjust shape of the lens to allow near and far vision
204
Q

what is the retina

A
  • lines the back of the eye
  • one component of the fundus
  • contains rods and cones, the sensory receptors for vision
205
Q

what produces the aqueous humour

A

cillary body

206
Q

what are the chambers of the aqueous humour

A

anterior and posterior

207
Q

what is the lens characteristics

A
  • soft, translucent layers of fibers
  • elastic and biconvex
    front surface in contact with aqueous humor; back surface in contact with vitreous humor
  • helps focus a clear image on the retina through accommodation process
208
Q

what are the layers of the retina

A
  1. pigment layer
  2. photoreceptor layer
  3. bipolar cell layer
  4. ganglion cell layer
  5. layer of nerve fibers
209
Q

what is the optic disc

A
  • “blind spot” of the eye
    site where nerve fibers on inside of retina converge and leave the eye to form the optic nerve
210
Q

what is the conjunctiva

A
  • thin, moist, transparent membrane
  • covers front portion of eyeball
  • bulbar conjunctiva
    lines interior surfaces of eyelids
  • palpebral conjunctiva
211
Q

what are the lateral and medial canthus

A

corners where the eyelids come together

212
Q

what is the lacrimal apparatus

A

structures that produce and secrete tears and drain tears away from the surface of the eye

213
Q

what are the tear drainage system parts

A

lacrimal puncta
lacrimal sacs
nasolacrimal duct

214
Q

what are the 3 layers of tears and their characteristics

A
  1. inner mucous layer – from cells in conjunctiva
    - contains antibacterial substances
  2. middle tear layer – from lacrimal glands and accessory lacrimal glands of the third eyelid
    - keeps the cornea moist
  3. outer oily layer – from tarsal or meibomian glands
    - reduces evaporation of underlying tear layer
    - prevents tears from flowing over the lid margin
215
Q

Outline the pathway of light through the eye to the point where it is converted into
a nerve impulse

A

Light enters the eye through the cornea, passes through the aqueous humor, and then through the pupil, which is controlled by the iris. It then travels through the lens, which focuses the light onto the retina. In the retina, photoreceptor cells (rods and cones) detect light and convert it into electrical signals. These signals are processed by the retina’s other layers and transmitted
via the optic nerve to the brain for interpretation.

216
Q

Discuss the role of the vestibular system in maintaining balance and equilibrium.

A

The vestibular system, located in the inner ear, is responsible for
detecting changes in head position and motion, thereby helping to maintain balance and equilibrium. It includes the semicircular canals, which detect rotational movements, and the otolithic organs (utricle and saccule), which detect
linear acceleration and head position relative to gravity. The vestibular system sends signals to the brain to coordinate balance, posture, and eye movements

217
Q

Explain the role of the hypothalamus in regulating the endocrine system.

A

The hypothalamus is the control center for the endocrine system. It
produces releasing and inhibiting hormones that regulate the secretion of
hormones from the anterior pituitary gland. It also produces hormones like oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) that are stored and released by the posterior pituitary gland.

218
Q

Describe the feedback loop involved in the regulation of blood glucose levels by
insulin and glucagon.

A

Blood glucose levels are regulated by a negative feedback loop
involving insulin and glucagon. When blood glucose levels rise, the pancreas secretes insulin, which facilitates glucose uptake by cells, lowering blood glucose levels. When blood glucose levels fall, the pancreas secretes glucagon, which stimulates the liver to release glucose into the bloodstream, raising blood glucose levels.

219
Q

What is the function of thyroid hormones, and how do they affect metabolism?

A

Thyroid hormones, primarily T3 and T4, regulate metabolism by
increasing the rate of cellular respiration and energy production in cells. They also influence growth and development, protein synthesis, and the breakdown of fats and carbohydrates.

220
Q

Discuss the role of cortisol in the body’s response to stress.

A

Cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in the stress response. It increases blood glucose levels by
stimulating gluconeogenesis, suppresses the immune system, and aids in the
metabolism of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates, providing the body with the
necessary energy to cope with stress.

221
Q

How does aldosterone regulate blood pressure, and what triggers its release?

A

Aldosterone regulates blood pressure by increasing the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, which increases blood volume and pressure. Its release is triggered by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) in response to low blood pressure or low blood sodium levels

222
Q

Describe the pathway of food from ingestion to elimination.

A

Food is ingested through the mouth, where it is chewed and mixed with
saliva. It then travels down the esophagus to the stomach, where it is mixed with gastric juices and partially digested. Next, it moves into the small intestine, where most digestion and nutrient absorption occur. The remaining indigestible material passes into the large intestine, where water is absorbed and feces are formed. Finally, feces are eliminated from the body through the rectum and anus.

223
Q

Explain the role of the small intestine in digestion and absorption.

A

The small intestine is the primary site for digestion and absorption. Digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver work to further break down food. The small intestine’s lining, which contains villi and microvilli, increases the surface area for nutrient absorption. Nutrients pass through the epithelial cells of the villi into the bloodstream.

224
Q

What is the significance of the villi in the small intestine?

A

Villi are tiny, finger-like projections in the lining of the small intestine that
significantly increase the surface area for nutrient absorption. They contain
specialized cells that absorb nutrients and transport them into the bloodstream.

225
Q

Discuss the role of gastric acid in digestion and how it is regulated.

A

Gastric acid (hydrochloric acid) in the stomach helps break down proteins and provides an acidic environment for the activation of pepsin. It also
kills harmful microorganisms. Gastric acid production is regulated by the hormone gastrin, which is released in response to food intake and signals the stomach to increase acid production.

226
Q

Describe the digestive functions of the liver and pancreas.

A

The liver produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of
fats. It also processes nutrients, detoxifies harmful substances, and stores vitamins and minerals. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes (amylase,
lipase, proteases) that are released into the small intestine to break down
carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. The pancreas also secretes insulin and
glucagon to regulate blood sugar levels

227
Q

Describe the pathway of urine from formation to elimination

A

Urine is formed in the kidneys where blood is filtered through the
glomerulus, and filtrate passes through the renal tubules where reabsorption and
secretion occur. The urine then collects in the renal pelvis, flows through the
ureters to the bladder, where it is stored. During micturition, urine is expelled from the bladder through the urethra.

228
Q

Explain the role of the glomerulus in the formation of urine.

A

The glomerulus is a network of capillaries in the nephron where blood
pressure forces water and small solutes from the blood into the Bowman’s
capsule, forming filtrate. This filtrate then proceeds through the renal tubules
where further processing occurs.

229
Q

What is the significance of the counter-current mechanism in the Loop of Henle?

A

The counter-current mechanism in the Loop of Henle creates a concentration gradient in the medulla of the kidney, which is essential for the
production of concentrated urine. It involves the flow of filtrate in opposite directions in the ascending and descending limbs of the loop, enhancing the
reabsorption of water and solutes.

230
Q

Discuss the functions of ADH and aldosterone in maintaining fluid balance.

A

ADH(antidiuretic hormone) increases water reabsorption in the
collecting ducts of the kidneys, reducing urine volume and concentrating urine.
Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts, which helps regulate blood pressure and fluid balance by increasing water retention.

231
Q

Describe the process of micturition and the role of the bladder in this process.

A

Micturition is the process of urination. The bladder stores urine until it
reaches a certain volume, causing stretch receptors to signal the brain. The
bladder then contracts to expel urine through the urethra. The internal and
external sphincters help control the release of urine

AHT 1110 (8 decks)

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