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pharmacology 2 Midterm > midterm 2 > Flashcards

midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following substances has a pronounced antibacterial effect against the Enterobacteriaceae family?

A: Enrofloxacin
B: Bacitracin
C: Metronidazole
D: Vancomycin

A

A: Enrofloxacin

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2
Q

Which diseases would you use pradofloxacin for in dogs?

A: Gingivitis
B: Perianal sacculitis
C: Prostatitis
D: For all three diseases

A

D: For all three diseases

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3
Q

Which bacterial species belong to the antibacterial spectrum of generation 2.2 quinolone carboxylic acids?

A: Mycoplasma spp.
B: Streptococcus spp.
C: Enterococcus spp.
D: Anaerobic bacteria

A

A: Mycoplasma spp.

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4
Q

In which animal species can retinopathy be a typical side effect of high doses of enrofloxacin?

A: Dog
B: Horse
C: Cat
D: Swine

A

C: Cat

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5
Q

In which disease would you use nitrofurantoin for?

A: None of these
B: Urinary tract infections caused by E. coli
C: UTI caused by Proteus spp. D: In both cases

A

B: Urinary tract infections caused by E. coli

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6
Q

Which bacteria belongs to the antibacterial spectrum of vancomycin?

A: Salmonella enterica
B: Pasteurella multicida
C: Staphylococcus aureus
D: All three

A

C: Staphylococcus aureus

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7
Q

Which of the following sulfonamides has a long-lasting effect?

A: Sulfadimidine
B: Sulfadimethoxine
C: Sulfadiazine
D: Sulfadoxine

A

B: Sulfadimethoxine

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8
Q

Which protozoan infection can be treated with sulfonamides?

A: Leishmaniasis
B: Babesiosis
C: Toxoplasmosis
D: Giardiosis

A

C: Toxoplasmosis

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9
Q

Which antibiotic can cause crystalluria in cats?

A: Sulfamethoxazole
B: Enrofloxacin
C: Metronidazole
D: Mupirocin

A

A: Sulfamethoxazole

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of colistin?

A: Inhibits the bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase enzyme

B: Cell wall synthesis inhibitor via inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis

C: Inhibition of bacteril DNA synthesis

D: They have a «detergent-like» effect on the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

A

D: They have a «detergent-like» effect on the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

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11
Q

Antinematode agents are active against…

A: Tapeworms
B: Roundworms
C: Flukes
D: Coccidia

A

B: roundworms

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12
Q 
Which substance is a prodrug?
A: Fenbendazole
B: Flubendazole
C: Thiabendazole
D: Febantel
A

D: Febantel

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13
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benzimidazoles?

A: Inhibition of tubulin polymerisation

B: Allosteric activation of chloride ion channels in sensitive nematodes

C: Stimulation of nicotinic cholinergic receptors in nematodes

D: Inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation, uncoupling effect

A

A: Inhibition of tubulin polymerisation

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14
Q 
Which of the following anthelmintics are effective in infections caused by Echinococcus spp.?
A: Pyrantel 
B: Praziquantel
C: Milbemycin oxime
D: Levamisole
A

B: Praziquantel

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15
Q 
Which group of anthelmintics is most effective against hypobiotic larvae at therapeutic doses? 
A: Benzimidazoles 
B: Macrocyclic lactones
C: Tetrahydropyrimidines 
D: They are equally effective
A

A: Benzimidazoles

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16
Q

This oral anti-trematode agent has a long-lasting effect in ruminants due to the rumen’s reservoir property, so one application is sufficient

A: Doramectin
B: Albendazole
C: Clorsulon
D: Monepantel

A

B: Albendazole

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17
Q

Which of the following anthelmintics is known to cause severe depression of the central nervous system in susceptible individuals of certain dog breeds?

A: Pyrantel embonate
B: Febantel
C: Ivermectin
D: Praziquantel

A

C: Ivermectin

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18
Q

Which of the following substances are cats, horses and «kuvasz» (hungarian dog breed) sensitive to?

A: Levamisole
B: Febantel
C: Pyrantel embonate
D: Praziquantel

A

A: Levamisole

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19
Q

For which ectoparasiticide agent is it true that humidity produces a secondary product that is much more toxic than the original molecule?

A: Diazinon
B: Amitraz
C: Propoxur
D: Deltamethrin

A

A: Diazinon

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20
Q

What is the ectoparasitic spectrum of the carbamate: propoxur?

A: Fleas, ticks
B: Fleas, ticks, Demodex spp.
C: Only Demodex spp.
D: Ticks, mosquitoes

A

A: Fleas, ticks

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21
Q

In which line are only pyrethroids listed?

A: Tetramethrin, amitraz, diazinon, ivermectin

B: Tetramethrin, deltamethrin, pyripole, indoxacarb

C: Tetramethrin, permethrin, deltamethrin, flumethrin

D: Dinotefuran, pyriproxyfen, fluralaner, flumethrin

A

C: Tetramethrin, permethrin, deltamethrin, flumethrin

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22
Q

In which toxicosis caused by the listed ectoparasiticide agents can be used atipamezole as an antidote for the poisoning?

A: Amitraz
B: Flumethrin
C: Diazinon
D: Fluralaner

A

A: Amitraz

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23
Q

Which of the following ectoparasiticide agents affect onlylarval forms?

A: Methoprene
B: Sarolaner
C: Permethrin
D: Imidacloprid

A

A: Methoprene

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24
Q

Which of the following ectoparasiticide agents has a clinical indication limited to flea control?

A: Flumethrin
B: Moxidectin
C: Imidacloprid
D: Permethrin

A

C: Imidacloprid

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25
Q

Which of the following avermectins can be used against fleas?

A: Ivermectin
B: Doramectin
C: Eprinomectin
D: Selamectin

A

D: Selamectin

26
Q

Which of the following anticoccidials can also be used for therapy, not only for prevention?

A: Narazin
B: Toltrazuril
C: Diclazuril
D: Nicarbazin

A

B: Toltrazuril

27
Q

Which of the following ionophore antibiotics are used to prevent ketosis in dairy cattle?

A: Lasalocid
B: Salinomycin
C: Monensin
D: Semduramycin

A

C: Monensin

28
Q

Which of the following anticoccidials can cause coagulopathy in poultry?

A: Toltrazuril
B: Halofuginone
C: Semduramycin
D: Sulfaquinoxaline

A

D: Sulfaquinoxaline

29
Q

Which of the following substances can be used to treat babesiosis?

A: Sulfaquinoxaline
B: Toltrazuril
C: Monensin
D: Imidocarb

A

D: Imidocarb

30
Q

Which of the following substances are used to treat histomonosis in ornamental birds?

A: Furazolidone
B: Halofuginone
C: Nicarbazin
D: Monensin

A

B: Halofuginone

31
Q

Which of the following substances has a pronounced activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A: Nalidixic acid
B: Ciprofloxacin
C: Vancomycin
D: Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

A

B: Ciprofloxacin

32
Q

Marbofloxacin is effective against…

A: Fusobacterium necrophorum

B: Streptococcus suis

C: Mycoplasma
hyopneumoniae

D: It is effective against all three

A

C: Mycoplasma

hyopneumoniae

33
Q

Which bacterial species belong to the antibacterial spectrum of generation 2.2 quinolone carboxylic acids?

A: Enterococcus spp.
B: Pasteurella spp.
C: Anaerobic bacteria
D: All three

A

B: Pasteurella spp.

34
Q

In which animal species is the epiphysal cartilage damage of the weight-bearing joints more frequently occuring side effect in young individuals due to treatment with fluoroquinolones?

A: Swine
B: Guinea pig
C: Rabbit
D: Dog

A

D: Dog

35
Q

Metronidazole is effective against…

A: Pseudomonas spp.
B: Streptococcus spp.
C: Staphylococcus spp.
D: Clostridium spp.

A

D: Clostridium spp.

36
Q

Which antibiotic can be used in combination with rifampicin to treat Rhodococcus equi infection in foals?

A: Clarithromycin
B: Sulfamethoxazole
C: Trimethoprim
D: Bacitracin

A

A: Clarithromycin

37
Q

Which of the following diaminopyrimidines has a long-lasting effect?

A: Trimethoprim
B: Both of them
C: Baquiloprim
D: None of them

A

C: Baquiloprim

38
Q

In which infections do potentiated sulfonamides provide effective treatment?

A: Purulent pruritis caused by Nocardia asteroides in dogs

B: Distorting rhinitis caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica in swine

C: Both of them

D: None of them

A

C: Both of them

39
Q

Which of the followings is a typical side effect of sulfonamides?

A: Sulfmethemoglobinaemia
B: Retinopathy
C: Nephro- and ototoxicity
D: Carcinogenicity

A

A: Sulfmethemoglobinaemia

40
Q

Colistin can be used for the treatment of…

A: Oral treatment of diarrhoea caused by E. coli in weaning piglets

B: Oral treatment of pneumonia in growing pigs caused by
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

C: Parenterally, for the treatment of anaerobic foot-rot disease in cattle

D: Parenterally, for the treatment of infection of foals with Lawsonia intracellularis

A

A: Oral treatment of diarrhoea caused by E. coli in weaning piglets

41
Q
  1. Anticestodal effect means activity against…

A: Roundworms
B: Tapeworms
C: Flukes
D: Coccidia

A

B: Tapeworms

42
Q

Which substance is a prodrug?

A: Albendazole
B: Flubendazole
C: Ricobendazole
D: Febantel

A

D: Febantel

43
Q

Which benzimidazole has an antitrematodal effect at therapeutic doses?

A: Flubendazole
B: Fenbendazole
C: Albendazole
D: Febantel

A

C: Albendazole

44
Q

Which group of anthelmintics is most likely to have an ovicidal effect at therapeutic doses?

A: None of them
B: Macrocyclic lactones
C: Imidazothiazoles
D: Tetrahydropyrimidines

A

C: Imidazothiazoles

45
Q

Which of the following anthelmintics is most effective on hypobiotic larvae?

A: Moxidectin
B: Albendazole
C: Pyrantel embonate
D: Levamisole

A

B: Albendazole

46
Q

Which of the following anthelmintics should be used orally for 3-5 consecutive days in dogs and cats?

A: Fenbendazole
B: Milbemycin oxime
C: Praziquantel
D: Pyrantel embonate

A

A: Fenbendazole

47
Q

Which of the following anthelmintic agents show teratogenicity in early pregnancy in ewes?

A: Ivermectin
B: Albendazole
C: Morantel
D: Closantel

A

B: Albendazole

48
Q

Which of the following anthelmintics is the most effective against cestodes?

A: Triclabendazole
B: Selamectin
C: Levamisole
D: Praziquantel

A

D: Praziquantel

49
Q
  1. The decomposition product of diazinon is diazoxon. Under what environmental conditions can this decomposition be accelerated and what will be the consequences?

A: High carbon-dioxide concentration and the product becomes less toxic.

B: The high ammonia content of the air in the stall makes the product less toxic

C: When humidity is present, and the resulting decomposition products are much more toxic

D: Due to high organic matter content of the bathing-water and the product becomes much more toxic

A

C: When humidity is present, and the resulting decomposition products are much more toxic

50
Q

Amitraz is effective against…

A: Mosquitos, butterfly mosquitos
B: Fleas
C: Ticks
D: Stable flies

A

C: Ticks

51
Q

Which ectoparasiticide agent is recommended for cats in the form of a collar?

A: Flumethrin
B: Amitraz
C: Diazinon
D: Pyriprole

A

A: Flumethrin

52
Q

Which ectoparasiticide agents are horses, chihuahuas and cats sensitive to?

A: Ivermectin
B: Indoxacarb
C: Methoprene
D: Amitraz

A

D: Amitraz

53
Q

Enterohepatic circulation is the most chracteristic for this isoxazoline

A: Sarolaner
B: Afoxolaner
C: Fluralaner
D: All three

A

C: Fluralaner

54
Q

Which of the following ectoparasiticide agents affect only fleas?

A: Indoxacarb
B: Fluralaner
C: Permethrin
D: Moxidectin

A

A: Indoxacarb

55
Q

Which of the following substances belong to the group of avermectins?

A: Moxidectin
B: Milbemycin oxime
C: Selamectin
D: Afoxolaner

A

C: Selamectin

56
Q

Which of the following anticoccidials is an ionophore antibiotic?

A: Lasalocid
B: Diclazuril
C: Sulfaquinoxaline
D: Nicarbazin

A

A: Lasalocid

57
Q

Choose one of the following antibiotics that is expected to interact with ionophore antibiotics!

A: Amoxicillin
B: Gentamicin
C: Tiamulin
D: Oxytetracycline

A

C: Tiamulin

58
Q

Which of the following animal species is most sensitive to ionophore antibiotics?

A: Cattle
B: Horse
C: Turkey
D: Domestic chickens

A

B: Horse

59
Q

Which of the following substances is used to treat babesiosis in dogs?

A: Toltrazuril
B: Imidocarb
C: Sulfaquinoxaline
D: Monensin

A

B: Imidocarb

60
Q
  1. Which of the following substances is used to treat giardiosis in dogs?

A: Metronidazole
B: Toltrazuril
C: Imidocarb
D: Monensin

A

A: Metronidazole

pharmacology 2 Midterm (5 decks)

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