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pharmacology 2 Midterm > midterm 1 > Flashcards

midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mode of action of pleuromutilins ?

A: Time-dependant bacteriocidal
B: Concentration dependent bacteriocidal
C:None of these
D: Bacteriostatic

A

D: Bacteriostatic

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2
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is effective in swine dysentery ?

A: None of them are effective
B: Tulathromycin
C: Tilmicosin
D: Both are effective

A

A: None of them are effective

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3
Q

Which is characteristic of amoxicillin’s distribution

A: Moderate : due to its lipophilicity, it can barely cross special barriers, but it can enter the
cells

B: Moderate : due to its water solubility, it can barely cross special barriers and it can barely
enter the cell

C: Moderate : due to its water solubility, it can barely cross special barrier but it can enter the
cells

D: Good : due to its lipophilicity, it can cross special barriers and it can enter the cells

A

B: Moderate : due to its water solubility, it can barely cross special barriers and it can barely
enter the cell

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4
Q

Which is NOT true for cefalexin ?

A: It is a first generation cefalosporin

B: It is concentration dependent bacteriocidal

C: It has postantibiotics effect

D: It is not inactivated by ß-lactamase producing Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

A

B: It is concentration dependent bacteriocidal

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5
Q

Cefquinome belongs to the …¨

A: Generation cephalosporins
B: Generation cephalosporins
C: Generation cephalosporins D: Generation cephalosporins

A

D: Generation cephalosporins

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6
Q

Cefuroxime belongs to the …

A: Generation cephalosporins B: Generation cephalosporins C: Generation cephalosporins D: Generation cephalosporins

A

B: Generation cephalosporins

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7
Q

Which antibiotic is effective against methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus intermedius infections ?

A: Amoxicillin clavulonic acid
B: None of them
C: Flucloxacillin
D: Ticarcillin clavulonic acid

A

C: Flucloxacillin

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8
Q

Which combination can lead to decreased efficacy ?

A: Phenoxymethylpenicillin + florfenicol

B:Doxycycline + tulathromycin

C: Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

D: Colistin + amoxicillin

A

A: Phenoxymethylpenicillin + florfenicol

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9
Q

Risk of selecting resistant bacteria is highest at this antibiotic concentration :

A: MIC < concentration < MPC
B: concentration < MIC
C: concentration > MPC
D: None of them

A

A: MIC < concentration < MPC

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10
Q

Which aminoglycoside is the most toxic among the followings ?

A: Spectinomycin
B: Streptomycin
C: Neomycin
D: Amikacin

A

C: Neomycin

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11
Q

How can azithromycin be administrated ?

A:Orally
B: In IM injection
C: Both
D: None of them

A

A:Orally

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12
Q

Which substance does NOT belong to the CIA Highest Priority antibiotics category ?

A: Amoxicillin
B: Cefquinom
C: Cefoperazone
C: Colistin

A

A: Amoxicillin

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13
Q

Amoxicillin is active against

A: Mycoplasma spp
B: None of them
C: Pseudomonas spp
D: Chlamydophila spp

A

B: None of them

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14
Q

Which statement is NOT true for chloramphenicol ?

A: It can cause dose-independent aplastic anemia

B: It belongs to the table 2 (37/2010 EC)

C: It can be used topically in ophthalmic products

D: It is effectively used in sheep foot rot

A

D: It is effectively used in sheep foot rot

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15
Q

What is characteristic to doxycyline’s absorption if given orally ?

A: Good, food has no effect on it

B: Good, but it gets worse without food

C: Bad, therefore they should be given with food

D: Good, but milk products decrease absorption

A

A: Good, food has no effect on it

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lincosamides ?

A: Inhibition of peptidoglycane suynthesis

B: Inhibition of deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis

C: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 30S ribosome subunit

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

A

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

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17
Q

Cefovecin is NOT effective against :

A: Mycoplasma spp
B: None of them
C: Pseudomonas spp
D: Mycobacterium spp

A

A: Mycoplasma spp

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18
Q

Which antibiotic group does NOT belong to the CIA Highest Priority antibiotics category ?

A: Pleuromutilines
B: Polymyxines
C: Fluroquinolones
D: IV. Generation cephalosporins

A

A: Pleuromutilines

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19
Q

Amoxicillin clavulonic acid is NOT effective in …

A: Dermatitis in dogs

B: It’s effective in all of them

C: Echericha Coli urinary tract infection in dogs

D:Foot rot

A

B: It’s effective in all of them

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20
Q

This cefalasporin is effective in methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus pseudintermedius infections :

A: Cefoperazon
B: Ceftiofur
C:None of them
D: Cefadroxil

A

C:None of them

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21
Q 
Which penicillin derivate has the longest half-life ?
A: Procaine benzylpenicillin
B: Benzathine benzylpenicillin
C: Benzylpenicillin sodium
D: Their half-life is similar
A

B: Benzathine benzylpenicillin

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22
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides ?

A: Inhibition of peptidoglycane synthesis

B: Inhibition of deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis

C: Inhibition of protein synthesis

D: None of them

A

C: Inhibition of protein synthesis

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23
Q

Which is the most toxic macrolide antibiotic ?

A: Tilmicosin

B: Tildiprosin

C: Tilamulin

D: Tylvalosin

A

A: Tilmicosin

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24
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is effective in swine dysentery ?

A: Tylvalosin
B: Tildipirosin
C: Both of them
D: None of them

A

A: Tylvalosin

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25
Q

Clindamycin is eliminated in dogs …

A: Mostly with urine
B: Mostly through the colon wall
C: Mostly with saliva
D: Mostly with bile

A

D: Mostly with bile

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26
Q

In which of the flowing cases can we expect antagonism generally ?

A: When combining two 30S protein synthesis inhibitors

B; When combining two antibiotics with different spectrum

C: When combining a 30S and 50S synthesis inhibitor

D: None of them

A

A: When combining two 30S protein synthesis inhibitors

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27
Q

In which case can Vancomycin be used ?

A: Dogs with meningitis

B: Life-threatening pneumonia in a calf

C: Severe bacterial enteritis in a pig

D: All of them

A

C: Severe bacterial enteritis in a pig

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28
Q

What is the mechanism of action of macrolides ?

A: Inhibition of peptidoglycane synthesis

B: Inhibition of deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis

C: Concentration-dependent bacteriocidal

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

A

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

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29
Q

Lincomycin can be used in …

A: Strangles in horses

B: Both of them

C: None of them

D: Mycoplasmosis in poultry (if + spectinomycin)

A

C: None of them

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30
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is effective in swine proliferative enteropathy ?

A: tylosin

B: Tulathromycin

C: Both of them

D: None of them

A

A: tylosin

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31
Q

Which enzyme is inhibited by sulphonamides ?

A: Dihydrofolate reductase

B: Dihydropteroate synthetase

C: Tetrahydrofolate reductase

D:Tetrahydropteroate reductase

A

B: Dihydropteroate synthetase

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32
Q

What is the mode of action of bacitracin ?

A: Bacteriostatic

B: Inhibition of folic acid

C: synthesis Inhibition of protein synthesis

D: Bacteriocidal

A

D: Bacteriocidal

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33
Q

High calcium content in the feed inhibits the action of …

A: Colistin

B: Oxytetracycline

C: None of them

D:Both of them

A

B: Oxytetracycline

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34
Q

In which of the following cases can we expect additive effect generally ?

A: When combining two antibiotics with different spectrum

B: When combining a 30S and a 50S protein synthesis inhibitor

C: When combining two 30S protein synthesis inhibitors

D: When combining a bacteriocidal and a bacteriostatic antibiotic

A

A: When combining two antibiotics with different spectrum

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35
Q

Which combination can lead to antagonisitic effect ?

A: Tobramycin + metronidazole

B: Gentamicin + oxytetracycline

C: Sulfamethoxazole + trimethorpim

D: All of them

A

B: Gentamicin + oxytetracycline

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36
Q

What does MIC stand for ?

A: Minimum inhibitory
concentration

B: Maximum inhibitory concentration

C: Mean inhibitory concentration

D: Median inhibitory concentration

A

A: Minimum inhibitory

concentration

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37
Q

Which substance acts against a unique target ?

A: Dicloaxacillin
B: Levamisole
C: Trimethoprime
D: Diphenhydramine

A

A: Dicloaxacillin

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38
Q

Which combination can lead to additive effect ?

A: Ceftiofur + tulathromycin

B. Metronidazole + gentamicin

C: Tylosin + tulamycin

A

B. Metronidazole + gentamicin

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39
Q

Which statement is NOT true for tetracyclines ?

A: They can cause ulcers in the oesophagus if given rapidely

B: They can cause cardiovascular problems if given intravenously

C: They can cause photosensitization

D: They are highly nephrotoxic due to binding to the kidney cortex

A

D: They are highly nephrotoxic due to binding to the kidney cortex

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40
Q

Which substance does NOT act against a unique target ?

A: Levamisole

B: Flucloxacillin

C:Phenoxymethylpenicillin

D: Bacitracin

A

A: Levamisole

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41
Q

Bacitracin can be given …

A: Orally
B: Topically
C: None of them
D: Both of them

A

D: Both of them

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42
Q

Bacitracin can be used against …

A: Urinary tract infection caused by Escherichia coli

B: Kennel cough

C: Proliferative enteropathy

D: Necrotic enteritis

A

D: Necrotic enteritis

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43
Q

This/these substance(s) has poor oral bioavailability

A: Bacitracin

B: Colistin

C: Both of them have good bioavailability

D: Both of them have a poor bioavailability

A

D: Both of them have a poor bioavailability

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44
Q

Vancomycin is eliminated …

A: Mostly with the bile

B: Mostly through the colon’s wall

C: Mostly with urine

D: Mostly with saliva

A

C: Mostly with urine

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45
Q

Which side effect can occur during sulphonamide treatment ?

A: Type III allergic reaction in dogs

B: Both of them

C: Vitamin K deficiency in poultry

D: None of them

A

B: Both of them

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46
Q

Which agent can be given IV ?

A: Procaine benzylpenicillin

B: Benzylpenicillin sodium

C: Benzathine benzylpenicillin

D: Amoxicillin trihydrate

A

B: Benzylpenicillin sodium

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47
Q

Risk of selecting resistant bacteria is lowest at this antibiotic concentration :

A: concentration > MPC

B: concentration < MIC

C: MIC < concentration < MPC

D: None of them

A

A: concentration > MPC

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48
Q

To which antiobiotic category do III and IV generation cephalosporins belong ?

A: B (restrict)

B: A (avoid)

C: C (caution)

D: D (prudence)

A

A: B (restrict)

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49
Q

Which is the aim when ceftiofur is used

A: The drug concentration should be above MIC as long as possible

B: The drug concentration should be above MIC as much as possible

C:Both should be achieved

D: None of them is true

A

A: The drug concentration should be above MIC as long as possible

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50
Q

What is the aim when we use concentration dependent antibiotics ?

A: Giving high dose for a short time

B: Giving high dose for a long time

C: Giving low dose for a short time

D: Giving low dose for a long time

A

A: Giving high dose for a short time

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51
Q

Which sulphonamide is called “intestinal disinfectant”

A: Sulfasalazine

B: Sulfaguanidine

C: Sulfaquinoxaline

D: Sulfadimethoxine

A

B: Sulfaguanidine

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52
Q

What is the mode of action of potentatied sulphonamides ?

A: Concentration-dependent bactericidal

B: Time-dependent bactericidial

C: Bacteriostatic

D: Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

A

B: Time-dependent bactericidial

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53
Q

Which enzyme is inhibited by diaminopyrimidines ?

A: Dihydropteroate synthetase

B: Dihydrofolate reductase

C: Tetrahydrofolate reductase

D: Tetrahydropteroate reductase

A

B: Dihydrofolate reductase

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54
Q

Dysbiosis is most likely to occur in this species during sulphonamide treatment :

A: Ruminants

B. Poultry

C: Cats

D: Horses

A

D: Horses

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55
Q

Which side effect is characteristic of polymixins

A: Severe liver damage

B: Severe dysbiosis

C: All of them

D: Severe kidney damage

A

D: Severe kidney damage

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56
Q

Which substance has antiendotoxin effect ?

A: Bacitracin
B:Both of them
C: None of them
D: Polymyxin B

A

D: Polymyxin B

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57
Q

Tetracyclines can be effective in

A: Lyme disease
B: Foot rot
C: Kennel cough
D: All of them

A

D: All of them

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58
Q

Which of the following agents hast postantibiotic effect ?

A: Phenoxymethylpenicillin
B: All of them
C: Cefalexin
D: Piperacillin

A

B: All of them

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59
Q

Cefovecin belongs to the …

A: Generation cefalosporins

B: Genetarion cefalosporins

C: Generation cefalosporins

D: Generation cefalosporins

A

C: Generation cefalosporins

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60
Q

Which combination can lead to additive effect ?

A: Ceftiofur + tulathromycin

B: Metronidazole + gentamicin

C: Tylosin + tulathromycin

D: All of them

A

B: Metronidazole + gentamicin

61
Q

Which sulphonamide has relevant coccidiostatic activity ?

A: Sulfadiazine

B: Sulfaquinoxaline

C: Sulfachlorpyridazine

D: Sulfasalazine

A

B: Sulfaquinoxaline

62
Q

Rifampicin can be used in the following case.

A: Escherichia coli diarrhea in swine

B: Kennel cough

C: Rhodococcus equi infection in horses

D: Isospora canis nfection in dogs

A

C: Rhodococcus equi infection in horses

63
Q

This bacterium usually does not produce ß-lactamase enzymes.

A: Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

B: Clostridium perfringens

C: Fusobacterium necrophorum

D: Porphyromonas levii

A

A: Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

64
Q

Against which type of target do the azoles act ?

A: Unique target
B: Similar target
C: Common target
D: None of them

A

A: Unique target

65
Q

In which case can we used bacteriostatic agents ?

A: Middle aged dog, good overall health

B: Pregnant sow

C: Cat infected with Feline Leukemia Virus

D: Old horse

A

A: Middle aged dog, good overall health

66
Q

Generally, therapeutic index of chemotherapeutics is highest if they act against …

A: Unique target
B: Similar target
C: Common target
D: There’s no difference

A

A: Unique target

67
Q

Which is characteristic to phenicol’s pharamcokinetics ?

A: Bad, they are not absorbed orally

B: Good, but they can’t cross the special barriers

C: None of them

D: Excellent, they can cross the special barriers and the cell membran

A

D: Excellent, they can cross the special barriers and the cell membran

68
Q

Which agent can be used in Lawsonia intreacellularis infection ?

A: Spectinomycin
B: Both of them
C: None of them
D: Lincomycin

A

B: Both of them

69
Q

What is the combination partner of lincomycin ?

A: Spiramycin
B: Streptomycin
C: Sulbactam
D: Spectinomycin

A

D: Spectinomycin

70
Q

Inhibition of dihydropteroate-synthetase is a ………….. in antimicrobial therapy

A: unique target
B: Similar target
C: Common target
D: None of them

A

A: unique target

71
Q

Which combination can lead to additive effect ?

A: Gentamicin + oxytetracycline

B: Tobramycin + metronidazole

C: Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim

D: All of them

A

B: Tobramycin + metronidazole

72
Q

Cefapirin belongs to the…

A: 1. generation

B: 2. generation

C: 3. generation

D: 4. Genereation

A

A: 1. generation

73
Q

Lincomycin frequently show cross resistance with …

A: Spectinomycin
B: Amoxicillin
C: Sulfadiazine
D: Tylosin

A

D: Tylosin

74
Q

Dicloxacillin is effective in …

A: E. Coli urinary tract infection in dogs

B: Streptococcus uberis mastitis in cattle

C: Footrot

D: All of them

A

B: Streptococcus uberis mastitis in cattle

75
Q

What does MBC stand for ?

A: Minimum bactericidal concentration

B: Minimum bacteriostatic concentration

C: Mean bactericidal concentration

D: Mean bacteriostatic concentration

A

A: Minimum bactericidal concentration

76
Q

Which antibiotic group belongs to the CIA Highest priority antibiotics category ?

A: III generation cephalosporins

B: I generation cephalosporins

C: II generation cephalosporins

D: Phenicols

A

A: III generation cephalosporins

77
Q

Lincomycin can be used in …

A: Swine dysentery
B: Proliferative enteropathy
C: None of them
D: Both of them

A

D: Both of them

78
Q

Ceftriaxone belongs to the … A: 1. generation
B: 2. generation
C: 3. generation
D: 4. Generation

A

C: 3. generation

79
Q

Ceftazidime belongs to the … A: 1. generation
B: 2. generation
C: 3. generation
D: 4. Generation

A

C: 3. generation

80
Q

Amikcain is active against …

A: Methicillin resistant Staph aureus

B: Pasteurella multocida

C: Both of them

D: None of them

A

C: Both of them

81
Q

Amoxicillin clavulonic acid is effective in …

A: Dermatitis in dogs

B: All of them

C: Streptococcus uberis mastitis in cattle

D:bite wounds in cats

A

B: All of them

82
Q

Neomycin is active against …

A: Clostridium perfringens

B: Fusobacterium necrophorum

C: None of them

D: Both of them

A

C: None of them

83
Q

Which agent can be used in Bachyspira hyodysenteriae infection ?

A: Ceftiofur

B: Both of them

C: None og them

D: Tylvalosin

A

D: Tylvalosin

84
Q

This cephalosporin is effective in methicillin resistant Stpah pseudintermedius infections

A: Cefquinome
B: Ceftriaxone
C: None of them
D: Cefovecin

A

C: None of them

85
Q

Procaine benzylpenicillin is given …

A: In IV injection
B: In IM injection
C: Orally
D: All of them are correct

A

B: In IM injection

86
Q

There’s NO glycoside bond in the structure of this antibiotic :

A: Streptomycin
B: Amikacin
C: Spectinomycin
D: All of them have glycoside bonds

A

C: Spectinomycin

87
Q

Effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A: Cefalexin
B: Ceftazidime
C: Ampicillin + sulbactam
D: Oxytetracycline

A

B: Ceftazidime

88
Q

The bacterium doesn’t belong to the fastidious Gram-negative organisms :

A: Histophilus somni

B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C: Pasteurella multocida

D: Mannheimia hemolytica

A

B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

89
Q

What is the mode of action of ß-lactame antibiotics ?

A: Concentration-dependent bactericidal

B: Time dependent bactericidal

C: Bacteriostatic

D: Depends on the drug’s concentration

A

B: Time dependent bactericidal

90
Q

Which combination can lead to decreased efficacy ?

A: Phenoxymethylpenicillin + florfenicol

B: Doxycycline + tulathromycin

C: Amoxicillin + clavulonic acid

D: Colistin + Amoxicillin

A

B: Doxycycline + tulathromycin

91
Q

Whcich combination can lead to additive effect ?

A: Tylosin + Valnemulin

B: Amikacin + Metronidazole

C: Lincomycin + Spectinomycin

D: All of them

A

C: Lincomycin + Spectinomycin

92
Q 
Against which type of target do the ß-lactam antibiotics act ? 
A: Unique
B:Similar 
C: Common 
D: None
A

A: Unique

93
Q

What is the mode of action of sulphonamides ?

A: Concentration-dependant bactericidal

B: Bacteriostatic

C: Time-dependent bactericidal (if + DAPs)

D: Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

A

B: Bacteriostatic

C: Time-dependent bactericidal (if + DAPs)

94
Q

What is the mode of action of vancomycin generally ?

A: Bacteriostatic

B: Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

C: Bacteriocidal

D:Inhibition of protein synthesis

A

C: Bacteriocidal

95
Q

What is the mode of action of tetracyclines ?

A: Time-dependent bactericidal

B: Concentration-dependent bactericidal

C: Bacteriostatic

D: Agent-dependent bactericidal

A

C: Bacteriostatic

96
Q

Clindamycin can be used in …

A: Urinary tract infection
B: Both of them
C: None of them
D: Oral cavity infection

A

D: Oral cavity infection

97
Q

What is the mode of action of phenicols

A: Time-dependent bactericidal

B: Concentration-dependent bactericidal

C: Agent-dependent bactericidal

D: Bacteriostatic

A

D: Bacteriostatic

98
Q

Florfenicol’s 1⁄2 life is the shortest in this species :

A: Cat
B: Dog
C: Swine
D: Cattle

A

B: Dog

99
Q

Which mechanism of resistance is characteristics against sulphonamides

A: Efflux pump
B: Decreased penetration
C: Both of them
D: None of them

A

B: Decreased penetration

100
Q

This can be an indication of potentiated sulphonamides

A: Pseudomonas otitis
B: Babesiosis
C: Nocardiosis
D: Heart worm disease

A

C: Nocardiosis

101
Q

Vancomycin can be effective in this condition.

A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections

B: Proliferative enteropathy

C: Methicillin-resistant Staph aureus infection

D: Lyme disease

A

C: Methicillin-resistant Staph aureus infection

102
Q

Most nephrotoxic agent among the listed antibiotics :

A: Ampicillin
B: Cefalexin
C: Amikacin
D: Ceftiofur

A

C: Amikacin

103
Q

Which aminoglycoside is the safest among the followings ?

A: Tobramycin
B: Neomycin
C: Spectinomycin
D: Streptomycin

A

C: Spectinomycin

104
Q

Which bacterium is ab ovo resistant to ß lactame antibiotics .

A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B: Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

C: Staph aureus

D: E. coli

A

A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B: Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

105
Q

Which antibiotic is effective against methicillin resistant Staph pseudintermedius infection ?

A: Piperacillin
B: None of them
C: Cefalexin
D: Imipenem

A

D: Imipenem

106
Q

What is the mode of action of lincosamides ?

A: Time dependent bactericidal

B: Concentration dependent bactericidal

C: None of these

D: Bacteriostatic

A

D: Bacteriostatic

107
Q

Amikacin is active against …

A: Methicillin resistant Staph aureus

B: Pasteurella

C: Both of them

D: None of them

A

C: Both of them

108
Q

It has the shortest half-life from the listed agents :

A: Ceftiofur crystalline free acid

B: Ceftiofur sodium

C: Cefovecin

D: Ceftiofur hydrochloride

A

B: Ceftiofur sodium

109
Q

Mucipirocin can be given …

A: In IV injection
B: Both of them
C: None of them
D: Topically, in ointment

A

D: Topically, in ointment

110
Q

Which side effect is characteristic of tilmicosin ?

A: Both of them
B: Tissue irritation
C: Cardiotoxicity
D: None of them

A

A: Both of them

111
Q

Phenicols can be used in …

A: Bovine respiratory disease complex

B: Aeromonas Salmonidae infection

C: None of them

D: Both of them

A

D: Both of them

112
Q

Most effective meningitis from the listed agents :

A: Amox + calvulonic acid
B: Ceftriaxone
C: Cefovecin
D: Pivampicicillin

A

B: Ceftriaxone

113
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is effectine in swine proliferative enteropathy ?

A: Both of them
B: Tylosin
C: Lincomycin
D: None of them

A

A: Both of them

114
Q

What is the mechanism of action of phenicols ?

A: Inhibition of peptidoglycane synthesis

B: Inhibition of deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis

C: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 30S ribosome subunit

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

A

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

115
Q

Which combination can lead to decreased efficacy ?

A: Amox + tetracycline

B: Spectinomycin + lincomycin

C: Ampicillin + sulbactam

D: Streptomycin + benzylpenicillin procaine

A

A: Amox + tetracycline

116
Q

Acetyl-sulpha cyrstals are dissoved in this pH.

A: Acidic

B: Alkalic

C: They can be dissolved on every pH level

D:Neutral

A

B: Alkalic

117
Q

Which agent belongs to glycopeptide antibiotics ?

A: Valnemulin
B: Colistin
C: Vancomycin
D: Mupirocin

A

C: Vancomycin

118
Q

Which combination can lead to antagonistic effect?

A: Amikacin + metronidazole

B: Tylosin + valnemulin

C: Lincomycin + spectinomycin

D: All of them

A

B: Tylosin + valnemulin

119
Q

Which combination can lead to decreased efficacy ?

A: Tiamulin + lincomycin

B: Tobramycin + cefadroxil

C: Metronidazole + gentamicin

D: Ceftriaxone + amikacin

A

A: Tiamulin + lincomycin

120
Q

Which statement is true ?

A: MBC > MIC
B: MBC < MPC
C: MIC > MPC
D: None of them are correct

A

D: None of them are correct

121
Q

This side effect is NOT characteristic to phenicols

A: Dose-dependent anemia
B: Immunosupression
C: Tissue irritation
D: Kidney damage

A

D: Kidney damage

122
Q

Clindamycin can be used in …

A: Bite wounds
B; Toxoplasmosis
C: None of them
D: Both of them

A

A: Bite wounds

123
Q

Which agent can be used in Brachyspira hyodysenteriae infection ?

A: Ceftiofur
B: Both
C: None
D: Tylvalosin

A

D: Tylvalosin

124
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is effective in Campylobacter infection in dogs?

A: Both of them
B: Clindamycin
C: Erythromycin
D: None of them

A

C: Erythromycin

125
Q

Phenoxymethylpenicillin in NOT effective in …

A: Tetanus
B: Dermatitis in dogs
C: Botulism
D: Necrotic enteritis in poultry

A

B: Dermatitis in dogs

126
Q

This can be an indication of potentiated sulphonamides :

A: Keratoconjunctivits sicca
B: Toxoplasmosis
C: Tuberculosis
D: Botulism

A

B: Toxoplasmosis

127
Q

Crystalluria is most likely to occur in this species during sulphonamide treatment :

A: Dogs
B: Cats
C: Horses
D: Sulphonamides can’t cause crystalluria

A

B: Cats

128
Q

Aminoglycosides are eliminated …
A: In inactive form, via kidney

B: In active form, via bile

C: In active form, via kidney

D: None of them

A

C: In active form, via kidney

129
Q

How can Tylosin be administrated ?

A: Both of them
B: None
C: Orally
D: In injection

A

C: Orally

130
Q

What is the mode of action of rifamycins

A: Inhibition of protein synthesis

B: Bacteriostatic

C: Bactericidal

D: Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

A

C: Bactericidal

131
Q

Which side effect can occur during sulphonamide treatment ?

A:Severe dysbiosis in horses

B: Irreversible keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dogs

C: Both

D: None

A

C: Both

132
Q

What is the mechanism of action ß-lactame antibiotics ?

A: Inhibition of protein synthesis

B: Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis

C: Inhibition of deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis

D: None of them are correct

A

B: Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis

133
Q

Phenicols can be used in …

A: Urinary tract infection
B: Both
C: None
D: Swine respiratory disease complex

A

D: Swine respiratory disease complex

134
Q

Cefacetril belongs to the …

A: 3. generation
B: 2. generation
C: 1. generation
D:4. Generation

A

C: 1. generation

135
Q

Which statement is true for phenicols ?

A: They can’t be given to food producing animals because they belong to Table 2

B: They have narrow spectrum, they are not effective against Pseudomonas

C: They are eliminated with urine in active form, so they are effective in UTI

D: Their half-life is different in different species

A

D: Their half-life is different in different species

136
Q

What does MPC stand for ?

A:Mutant prevention concentration

B: Minimum preventive concentration

C: Minimum postantibiotic concentration

D: Maximum postantibiotic concentration

A

A:Mutant prevention concentration

137
Q

Aminoglycosides are …

A: Nephro- and hepatotoxic, and they can cause convulsion

B: Nephro- and ototoxic, and they can increase the risk of convulsion

C: Oto- and nephrotoxic, and they can cause paralysis

D: Oto- and neurotoxic, and they can severely damage the kidneys if administered orally

A

C: Oto- and nephrotoxic, and they can cause paralysis

138
Q

Which agent would you use in a E. coli UTI ?

A: Phenocymethylpenicillin
B: Amox
C: Oxacillin
D: None of them

A

B: Amox

139
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lincosamides ?

A: Time-dependent bactericidal

B: Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

C: Cell wall synthesis inhibition

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis

A

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis

140
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is effective in Rhodococcus equi infection ?

A: Erythromycin

B: Tylosin

C: Lincomycin

D: Gentamicin

A

A: Erythromycin

141
Q

Amoxicillin’s oral distribution is the worst in this species:

A:Dog
B: Pig
C: Chicken
D: Cat

A

B: Pig

142
Q

Which statement is false :

A: MPC > MBC
B: MBC > MIC
C: MPC > MIC
D: MBC > MPC

A

D: MBC > MPC

143
Q

Which substance does NOT belong to the CIA highest priority antibiotics category

A: Amox
B: Cequinome
C: Cefoperazon
D: Colistin

A

A: Amox

144
Q

Rifampicin can be used in the following case

A: Atrophic rhinitis in Su
B: Lyme disease
C: Mycobacteriosis
D: Swine dysentery

A

C: Mycobacteriosis

145
Q 
Florenfenicol half-life is longuest in this species :
A: Dog
B: Cattle 
C: Swine 
D: Cat
A

B: Cattle

146
Q

Which side effect is not likely to occur during sulfonamide treatment ?

A: Bone marrow damage
B: Dysbacteriosis
C: Allergic reaction
D: Kidney damage

A

A: Bone marrow damage

147
Q

Which sulfonamide can be given topically ?

A: Sulfachlorpyrazine
B: Sulfadiazine
C: Sulfasalazine
D: All of them can be used topically

A

D: All of them can be used topically

148
Q

What is true about resistance to sulphonamides ?

A: Resistance is frequent, but it’s only chromosomal

B: Both chromosomal and plasmid encoded resistance are frequent

C: Resistance is frequent, but only in plasmid and integron mediated form

D: Resistance is very rare due to special mechanism of action

A

B: Both chromosomal and plasmid encoded resistance are frequent

149
Q 
This cefalosporin has the best distribution among the listed substances
A: Cefuroxime
B: Cefalexin 
C: Ceftriaxone 
D: Cefapirin
A

C: Ceftriaxone

pharmacology 2 Midterm (5 decks)

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