Midterm Flashcards

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1
Q

Healthy People 2020 Goal for Environmental Health

A

“Promote health for all through a healthy environment”

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2
Q

Principle Determinants of Health Worldwide (Three P’s)

A

Population
Pollution
Poverty

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3
Q

Three Factors of Population Growth

A

Fertility
Infant Mortality
Longevity

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4
Q

How many Earth’s to maintain current population size and consumption rates?

A

1.5 Earth’s

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5
Q

TFR (Total fertility rate)

A

The number children a woman has given birth to by the end of childbearing

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6
Q

Estimated natural population replacement rate

A

2.1 births per woman

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7
Q

Demographic transition

A

Alterations over time in a population’s fertility, mortality, and make-up

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8
Q

Five stages of demographic transition

A

Stage 1: High fertility and mortality rates (small population)
Stage 2: High fertility and decreasing mortality rates (increasing population
Stage 3: Decreasing fertility rates, more even distribution of population
Stage 4: Fertility continues to drop
Stage 5: Population slowly decreases

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9
Q

Carrying capacity

A

The population that an area will support without undergoing environmental deterioration (tends to limit population size)

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10
Q

Population crashes

A

Animal populations experience population crashes when population growth exceeds carrying capacity

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11
Q

Hippocrates (three points)

A
  • Greek philosopher often referred to as the “father of medicine”
  • Emphasized influence of the environment on people’s health and health status
  • Promoted doctrine of maintaining equilibrium among the body’s four humors (blood, yellow bile, black bile, and phlegm)
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12
Q

What did Ancient Romans do for environmental health?

A

Developed first infrastructure for maintaining public health (transport of water and sewage, heating devices for water and for rooms, communal baths)

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13
Q

Ramazzini (two points)

A
  • Italian physician who was the founder of the fields of occupational medicine
  • Highlighted the risks posed by hazardous chemicals, dusts, and metals used in the workplace
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14
Q

Public Health Act 1848

A

Clean water and control infectious disease

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15
Q

Walter Reed

A

Confirmed that yellow fever caused by mosquitoes rather than direct contact

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16
Q

Upton Sinclair

A

Food and Drug Act guy

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17
Q

Love Canal

A

Toxic waste burial

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18
Q

Fracking (what does it stand for, what is it, environmental consequences)

A
  1. Hydraulic fracturing
  2. Fracturing fluid pumped into well, causes rock surrounding pipe to crack
  3. Leads to groundwater contamination/air quality degradation + mini-earthquakes
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19
Q

Involved with design and installation of control systems/responsible for control of hazards that may affect workers/community

A

Industrial hygienist

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20
Q

Specializes in effects of toxic chemicals on the environment and living creatures

A

Toxicologist

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21
Q

Monitors and enforces government regulations

A

Environmental health inspector

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22
Q

Involved with cleanliness and safety of foods and beverages consumed by public

A

Food inspector/food safety specialist

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23
Q

Enforces various public health laws, sanitary codes, and regulations related to spread of disease by vectors

A

Vector control specialist

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24
Q

Ecological system

A

Theory that people encounter different environments which influence behavior

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25
Q

What is healthy People 2010/2020?

A

It is a 10-year agenda for improving the nations’ health

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26
Q

Boom-bust curve (population)

A

Boom in the population when it grows rapidly but it is followed by a bust when population falls back to minimal levels when carrying capacity is reached

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27
Q

What is environmental epidemiology?

A

The study of diseases and health conditions linked to environmental factors

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28
Q

Morbidity vs Mortality

A

Morbidity - Rate of illness in a population
Mortality - Rate of deaths from illness in a population

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29
Q

Two Classes of Epidemiological Studies (identify them and state the difference)

A

Descriptive: depiction of the occurrence of disease in populations according to classification by person, place, and time variables

Analytic: examines causal hypotheses regarding the association between exposures and health conditions

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30
Q

Prevalence vs Point prevalence (define difference, give formula)

A

Prevalence is the number of existing cases/deaths from disease at a designated period of time, point prevalence is the number of cases/deaths form disease at a particular point in time

Formula: number of ill persons at a point in time/Total number in group

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31
Q

Incidence vs incidence rate (defined and give formula)

A

Incidence is the occurrence of new disease/mortality in a defined period of observation

Formula for incidence rate: # of new cases over time period/total population at risk x multiplier

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32
Q

Cross-sectional studies

A

Observational, give snapshot of characteristics at single point in time, generally used to assess prevalence

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33
Q

Ecological studies

A

Study done at population levels, generally used in public health research and when data at individual level is unavailable

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34
Q

Case-control study

A

Retrospective studies done on those who already have disease compared to those who don’t

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35
Q

Cohort study

A

Study where individuals are followed over time to see who develops disease; groups exposed compared to non-exposed groups

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36
Q

Case-control study (Odds Ratio or Relative Risk)

A

Odds ratio

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37
Q

Cohort study (Odds Ratio or Relative Risk)

A

Relative Risk

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38
Q

Case-Control (issues, benefits)

A

Negatives: Often subject to recall bias
Positives: inexpensive, efficient, suitable for rare diseases with long latency periods

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39
Q

Cohort (issues, benefits)

A

Negatives: high selection bias, bad for studying rare diseases, expensive and inefficient
Positives: low recall bias, multiple outcomes can be studies simultaenously

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40
Q

Epidemiological triangle (host, vector, agent, environment)

A

Host: harbors the disease
Vector: spreads the disease
Agent: causes the disease
Environment

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41
Q

What is the criteria for causal association with diseases called?

A

Bradford Hill

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42
Q

Strength of association

A

Measured by relative risk (odds ratio)

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43
Q

Dose-response relationship

A

As dose increases, risk of disease also increases

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44
Q

Lack of temporal ambiguity

A

Exposure to factor must have occurred before disease developed

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45
Q

Biological plausibility

A

Coherence with current body of biological knowledge

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46
Q

Coherence of evidence

A

If a relationship is causal, findings expected to be consistent with other data

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47
Q

Specificity of association

A

When a certain exposure is associated with only one disease

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48
Q

Sir Percival Pott

A

London surgeon thought to be the first individual to describe an environmental cause of cancer (chimney sweeps had high incidence of scrotal cancer due to contact with soot)

49
Q

Texas Sharpshooter Effect

A

Epidemiological correlations are overemphasized when it could be by chance

50
Q

What are the limitations of environmental epidemiology? (3 things)

A
  • Long latency periods
  • Difficulties in exposure assessment
  • Nonspecific effects
51
Q

What are the three major requirements for a successful epidemiological investigation?

A
  • Direct and accurate estimates of exposures
  • Direct and accurate determination of the disease status of the individual members of the study group
  • Appropriate statistical summary and analysis of the data pertaining to disease and exposure
52
Q

How does the environment play a role in human health?

A

Chemical exposures and air pollution can cause health problems (such as respiratory, heart, diseases, etc.)

53
Q

What is the estimated global burden of disease linked to environmental sources?

A

25-33%

54
Q

What was the cumulative case fatality rate of the H5N1 virus?

A

50-70%

55
Q

By what percentage has the mortality from asthma in the U.S. increased since 1980?

A

A decrease in 23.1% until now but from 1980 to 1989 it was 46%

56
Q

What is the number of years required for the world’s population to double?

A

Approximately 43 years

57
Q

What will the percentage of urban residents be by 2030?

A

66%

58
Q

Zoonosis

A

An infection or infectious disease transmissible under natural conditions from vertebrate animals to humans

59
Q

Arthropods

A

Mosquitoes, ticks, sand flies, biting midges

60
Q

What percentage of world’s population at risk from malaria?

A

Over 40%

61
Q

Annual death toll for malaria

A

More than 1 million people

62
Q

Malaria vector

A

Female anopheles mosquitoes

63
Q

Most deadly malaria agent?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

64
Q

Agent of malaria

A

Plasmodium parasite

65
Q

Malaria symptoms

A

Spleen enlargement, flu-like fever, muscular fatigue, chills/sweating, dry cough

66
Q

Estimated global direct economic costs of malaria

A

$12 billion US annually

67
Q

Mosquito control measures (4 ways)

A
  1. Anti larval measures
  2. Anti adult measures
  3. Protection against mosquito bites
  4. Legislative control
68
Q

Sickle cell disease

A

Inherited disease of red blood cells that affects hemoglobin and interrupts blood flow by blocking small blood vessels

69
Q

Hand Foot Syndrome-Dactylitis

A

The sickle red calls cause painful swelling of the hands and feet

70
Q

Connection between Malaria and Sickle cell

A

People inherit malaria if they inherit two faulty copies of the gene for hemoglobin

71
Q

Leishmaniasis agent

A

Parasite Leishmania

72
Q

Leishmaniasis vector

A

Sandfly

73
Q

Forms of leishmaniasis

A

Cutaneous leishmaniasis (one or more sores on skin, swollen glands near sores)

Visceral leishmaniasis (fever, weight loss, spleen/liver enlargement, abnormal blood tests, low blood counts)

74
Q

Plague agent

A

Bacterium Yersinia pestis

75
Q

Plague vector

A

Bite of a flea harbored by rodents and prairie dogs in the U.S.

76
Q

Most common vector-borne disease in the United States

A

Lyme disease

77
Q

Lyme disease agent

A

Bacterium

78
Q

How is lyme disease transmitted to humans?

A

Black-legged ticks puncturing skin of the host

79
Q

Lyme disease symptoms

A

Characteristic bulls-eye skin rash, febrile symptoms

80
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) agent

A

Bacterium

81
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) case fatality rate

A

Up to 25% among untreated patients

82
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) vector

A

Infected tick

83
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) treatment

A

Antibiotic doxycycline

84
Q

Who exposed DDT issues?

A

Rachel Carlson (Silent Spring)

85
Q

Difference between bioaccumulation and biomagnification

A

Bioaccumulation is the process by which toxins enter the food chain through individual organisms whereas biomagnification is the process by which toxins pass from one trophic level to another within a food web

86
Q

What is one example of a vector-borne disease?

A

Malaria/leishmaniasis/plague/lyme disease/RMSF

87
Q

Alphonse Laveran

A

The guy that found the plasmodium for malaria

88
Q

Explain how climate change may be helping the expansion of zoonotic and vector borne disease.

A

It alters the conditions for pathogens and vectors of zoonotic diseases and can improve many characteristics of the arthropod life cycle (arthropods oftentimes being the vectors of many diseases)

89
Q

What are arboviral diseases?

A

Group of viral diseases that can be acquired through blood-feeding arthropod vector

90
Q

Four main clinical symptoms of arboviral diseases

A
  • Acute CNS illness
  • Acute benign fevers of short duration
  • Hemorrhagic fevers
  • Polyarthiritis and rash
91
Q

Arboviral encephalitides

A

Virus that produces an acute inflammation of sections of the brain, spinal cord, meninges

92
Q

Arboviral encephalitides transmitted how?

A

Through bite of mosquitoes from the reservoir (wild birds/small animals) to human host

93
Q

West Nile virus agent

A

Flavivirus

94
Q

West Nile virus vector

A

Culex mosquitoes who become carriers after feeding on infected birds

95
Q

Are there any vaccines for West Nile Virus?

A

No

96
Q

West Nile symptoms percentage

A

1 in 5 develop febrile symptoms

1 in 150 develop a serious, sometimes fatal, illness

97
Q

Name two factors associated with the rise of emerging zoonoses

A
  1. Ecological changes that result from agricultural practices (deforestation, conversion of grasslands, irrigation)
  2. Wars, migration, urbanization
98
Q

Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS) agent

A

Viral family Bunyaviridae

99
Q

Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS) transmission

A

Inhaled airborne urine and droppings from infected rodents

100
Q

Hantavirus host

A

Deer mouse

101
Q

Dengue fever agent

A

Flaviviruses

102
Q

Dengue fever vector

A

Aedes aegypti mosquito

103
Q

Dengue fever stages

A

Febrile phase
Critical phase
Recovery phase

104
Q

Zika virus vector

A

Aedes mosquito

105
Q

Are there vaccines or medicine for Zika?

A

No

106
Q

What are the two ways ebola can be transmitted?

A

Direct contact with an infected animal or a sick or dead person infected with Ebola virus

107
Q

Where was ebola virus discovered?

A

DRC/West Africa

108
Q

Anthrax agent

A

Bacteria known as Bacillus anthracis

109
Q

4 kinds of anthrax

A

Cutaneous anthrax
Inhalation anthrax
Gastrointestinal anthrax
Injection anthrax

110
Q

Psittacosis agent

A

Bacteria chlamydia psittaci

111
Q

Psittacosis transmission

A

Exposure to infected birds

112
Q

Psittacosis affects?

A

Lungs and may cause pneumonia

113
Q

What animals are Rift Valley Fever most commonly seen in?

A

Domesticated ones in sub-Saharan Africa

114
Q

Rift Valley Fever vectors

A

Mosquitoes and contact with infected animals

115
Q

Monkeypox agent

A

Virus

116
Q

Tualaremia agent

A

Bacterium

117
Q

Who transmits tualaremia?

A

Tick and deer fly bites

118
Q

Rabies agent

A

Virus

119
Q

What animal transmit rabies?

A

Bats, all mammals