Midterm Flashcards
(323 cards)
1
Q
Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH), which is a system of delivering health care that utilizes the prehospital spectrum, has evolved as a result of which piece of legislation, with the goal to facilitate improved access to health care at an affordable price?
The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
The Medical Practice Act
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
A
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
2
Q
Who authorizes the authority for an AEMT to provide patient care in the field?
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
The EMS agency’s Medical Director
The state EMS office
The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT)
A
The EMS agency’s Medical Director
3
Q
In most states, a person may be denied certification as an AEMT if he or she:
is older than 45 years of age.
is certified in another state.
has been convicted of a felony.
is not a certified firefighter.
A
has been convicted of a felony.
4
Q
Helmets and seatbelts are an example of which of the following?
Primary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Quaternary prevention
Secondary prevention
A
Secondary prevention
5
Q
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
reassure your patient everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
demand that the patient be quiet and cooperative during transport.
ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.
A
continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
6
Q
What is the difference between certification and licensure?
Certification refers to the process of proving competency in providing care, whereas licensure refers to being granted a right to practice by an authority
Certification applies only to EMS providers, whereas licensure applies only to medical doctors
Certification refers to being granted a right to practice by an authority, whereas licensure refers to the process of proving competency in providing care
The two words refer to the same thing
A
Certification refers to the process of proving competency in providing care, whereas licensure refers to being granted a right to practice by an authority
7
Q
Which certification level requires 1000-2000 hours of class and internship time, contains a large number of advanced life support (ALS) skills, and is often associated with a college-level associate’s or bachelor’s degree?
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)
Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT)
Paramedic
Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)
A
Paramedic
8
Q
Which of the following scenarios does not involve an ALS skill?
Applying oxygen and injecting a medication
Performing CPR and using a manual defibrillator
Using an AED and performing rescue breathing
Administering oxygen and starting an IV
A
Using an AED and performing rescue breathing
9
Q
A circular system of ongoing internal and external reviews is known as:
retrospective patient care analysis.
quarterly audits of EMS systems.
advanced life support review.
continuous quality improvement.
A
continuous quality improvement.
10
Q
AEMT training follows National EMS Education Standards, as recommended by the:
state EMS office or EMS regulatory agency.
National Registry of EMTs.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.
National Association of EMTs.
A
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.
11
Q
Continuous quality improvement (CQI) involves all of the following components, except:
discussion of needs for improvement.
negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call.
periodic review of run reports.
remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director.
A
negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call.
12
Q
Being aware and thoughtful about the needs of your patient describes the attribute of:
patient advocacy.
sympathy.
empathy.
integrity.
A
empathy.
13
Q
To become a licensed AEMT, a candidate must:
obtain permission from the state in which he or she will function.
have been a licensed EMT for a period of at least 3 years.
successfully complete a healthcare provider CPR course.
be capable of lifting and carrying at least 150 pounds.
A
successfully complete a healthcare provider CPR course.
14
Q
Which of the following certification levels has the least depth and breadth of knowledge and the most restrictive scope of practice?
Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT)
Paramedic
Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)
A
Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)
15
Q
Critical incident stress management is a program designed to:
debrief press and media on details of a critical incident.
evaluate personnel performance during a critical incident.
confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.
investigate civilian complaints during a critical incident.
A
confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.
16
Q
he 5 Stages of Grieving include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Overcoming
Bargaining
Acceptance
Denial
A
Overcoming
17
Q
The aspects of critical incident stress management (CISM) do NOT include:
One-on-one crisis intervention
Family crisis intervention
Emergency funding
Pre-crisis preparation
A
Emergency funding
18
Q
During a crisis, you are able to focus and function, but after things have calmed down, you are left with nervous, excited energy that continues to build and becomes a distraction. This is an example of which type of stress reaction?
Prolonged stress reaction
Acute stress reaction
Cumulative stress reaction
Delayed stress reaction
A
Delayed stress reaction
19
Q
Warning signs of stress include which of the following?
Increased sexual drive
Willingness to work extra shifts
Indecisiveness
Increased appetite
A
Indecisiveness
20
Q
You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement “He has a gun!” At this point, you should:
carefully enter the apartment to assess for injured patients.
stay where you are and ask the person to drop the weapon.
call for law enforcement and carefully enter the apartment.
retreat immediately and call for law enforcement assistance.
A
retreat immediately and call for law enforcement assistance.
21
Q
Which of the following bodily fluids has the least chance of transmitting an infectious disease?
Cerebrospinal fluid
Blood
Amniotic fluid
Saliva
A
Saliva
22
Q
When you suction a patient’s airway, the minimum personal protective equipment the AEMT should wear is:
gloves, eye protection, and a face shield.
gloves, a HEPA respirator, and a gown.
examination gloves only.
gloves and eye protection.
A
gloves, eye protection, and a face shield.
23
Q
The AEMT should wear double gloves when caring for a patient who:
is coughing and has a history of tuberculosis.
is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration.
has widespread abrasions and capillary bleeding.
is infected with HIV or hepatitis B.
A
is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration.
24
Q
Which of the following is not a typical warning sign of stress?
Increased appetite
Isolation
Irritability toward coworkers
Inability to concentrate
A
Increased appetite
25
Your department has been short-handed. You have willingly stepped up to help cover needed shifts but find yourself becoming overworked, tired, and stressed. You should:
Relax after each shift with several beers and pizza
Talk with your supervisor about you starting to become burned out and cut back on your overtime hours
Take a couple "personal days" by calling in sick
Power through, everyone has been working hard and the department needs you
Talk with your supervisor about you starting to become burned out and cut back on your overtime hours
26
Critical incident stress management is a program designed to:
investigate civilian complaints during a critical incident.
debrief press and media on details of a critical incident.
evaluate personnel performance during a critical incident.
confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.
Confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.
27
ou arrive at the scene of an overturned semi-trailer truck. There is an odd odor in the air and you can see material leaking from the truck. After ensuring that fire department and law enforcement personnel are notified, you should:
rapidly extricate the driver from the truck.
carefully assess the driver of the truck.
decontaminate the driver of the truck.
use binoculars to try to read the placard.
use binoculars to try to read the placard.
28
While caring for a 40-year-old male with shortness of breath and a history of tuberculosis, the AEMT should place a:
surgical mask on him- or herself and a nasal cannula on the patient.
HEPA respirator on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.
HEPA respirator on the patient and a surgical mask on him- or herself.
surgical mask on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.
HEPA respirator on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.
29
Inhaling which by-product of combustion, in sufficiently high concentrations, causes signs and symptoms of shock and severe hypoxia leading to death?
Cyanide
Asbestos
Carbon monoxide
Carbon dioxide
Cyanide
30
What does the root word "gastr" mean?
pancreas
liver
lungs
stomach
stomach
31
What color is referred to with the root word "melan"?
red
black
yellow-orange
blue
black
32
Myasthenia means:
muscle weakness.
heart weakening.
muscle paralysis.
heart enlargement.
muscle weakness.
33
What does the positional prefix "para-" mean?
near, beside, beyond, apart from
to, toward
out, outside
inside, within
near, beside, beyond, apart from
34
What does the positional prefix "sub-" mean?
under, beneath
away from
outside, in addition
above
under, beneath
35
A patient who was stung on the left leg by a scorpion develops a rash on the ipsilateral side. This means that the rash is:
on the right side of the body.
above and below the sting.
to the left and right of the sting.
on the left side of the body.
on the left side of the body.
36
A patient has a condition called dextrocardia. This means that:
the heart is abnormally inverted in the chest.
the coronary arteries are abnormally dilated.
the coronary arteries are abnormally narrowed.
the heart is on the right side of the chest.
the heart is on the right side of the chest.
37
The wrist is ________ to the elbow.
medial
lateral
distal
proximal
distal
38
What does the prefix "pre-" mean?
rapid, fast
slow
before
after
before
39
What does the prefix "hypo-" mean?
slow
over, excessive, high
under, below normal, low
rapid, fast
under, below normal, low
40
One meter equals how many millimeters?
1,000
100
10
10,000
1,000
41
What color is referred to with the root word "poli"?
black
white
gray
green
gray
42
The prefix ortho- means:
deform.
forward.
straight.
bone.
straight.
43
hat does the root word "cardi" mean?
liver
heart
lungs
kidney
heart
44
Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that:
is moved in or out of the lungs following maximal expiration.
is exhaled from the lungs following a forceful exhalation.
remains in the lungs following expiration.
is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.
is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.
45
Calcitonin is secreted by the:
adrenal glands.
parathyroid glands.
pituitary gland.
thyroid gland.
Correct Answer
pituitary gland.
46
What occurs during the initial phase of hemostasis?
Thromboplastin activates clotting proteins.
Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
Fibrin binds to a platelet plug and forms a clot.
Local vasoconstriction and platelet activation occur.
Local vasoconstriction and platelet activation occur.
47
The first cervical vertebra (C1), referred to as the _______, articulates with the occipital condyles at the base of the skull at the atlanto-occipital joint?
dens
axis
atlas
odontoid
atlas
48
The pneumotaxic center is located in the _______, and functions by _______.
pons; inhibiting the dorsal respiratory group and increasing the speed and depth of breathing
medulla oblongata; causing inspiration when stimulated
medulla oblongata; causing forced inspiration or expiration
pons; exciting the dorsal respiratory group, prolonging inspiration, and decreasing the respiratory rate
pons; inhibiting the dorsal respiratory group and increasing the speed and depth of breathing
49
The ilium is defined as the:
lower part of the small intestine.
structure that overlies the bladder.
ligament that overlies the femoral vessels.
bony prominence of the pelvis.
bony prominence of the pelvis.
50
Cardiac output is equal to:
blood pressure multiplied by heart rate.
stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.
systole minus diastole.
heart rate minus systolic blood pressure.
.
stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.
51
The heart's primary pacemaker, which is located in the right atrium, is the:
bundle of His.
AV node.
AV junction.
SA node
SA node
52
Stimulation of alpha receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in:
bronchodilation.
tachycardia.
peripheral vasodilation.
peripheral vasoconstriction.
peripheral vasoconstriction.
53
he term inotropy refers to the:
control of electrical conduction.
strength of myocardial contraction.
rate of cardiac contraction.
degree of ventricular irritability.
strength of myocardial contraction.
54
Which of the following statements regarding interstitial fluid is correct?
It accounts for approximately 30% of total body weight.
It is equal to approximately 15% to 20% of total body weight.
It is located in the extracellular space and in between the cells.
It is located within the blood vessels in the form of plasma.
It is located in the extracellular space and in between the cells.
55
How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum?
8
12
6
10
10
56
Which of the following is not a peripheral pulse in the adult?
Femoral
Brachial
Popliteal
Radial
Femoral
57
Which organs are located primarily in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen?
Stomach and spleen
Large intestine
Stomach, spleen and gallbladder
Liver and kidney
Stomach and spleen
58
The myocardium is the only muscle that can generate its own electrical impulses. This process is called:
dromotropy.
excitability.
conductivity.
automaticity.
automaticity.
59
A certified AEMT is a prehospital care provider who has:
been granted permission to engage in emergency medical care.
met certain predetermined standards to ensure safe and ethical practice.
received authorization to practice from the local EMS administrator.
the authority to practice emergency medicine without physician oversight.
met certain predetermined standards to ensure safe and ethical practice.
60
A direct relationship between a patient's injury and the AEMT's actions or inactions is called:
slander.
libel.
gross negligence.
proximate cause.
proximate cause.
61
You respond to the home of a 75-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest. The family states that the patient is terminally ill and has an advance directive; however, they are unable to locate it. How should you manage this situation?
Initiate full resuscitative measures and transport promptly.
Allow the family to locate the document and then decide on further action.
Honor the family's wishes and call the coroner.
Begin CPR and contact medical control.
Begin CPR and contact medical control.
62
Which of the following is the definition of "scope of practice"?
An outline of the care that an AEMT is authorized to provide
A set of rules that define what level of training an AEMT must receive
Written, acceptable levels of care written by legal or professional organizations
The number of times an AEMT must perform a skill before being passed off by an instructor in their EMT program
An outline of the care that an AEMT is authorized to provide
63
What must be true before a patient is considered capable of consenting to or refusing treatment?
The patient must be under the age of 18
The patient must not exhibit any signs/symptoms of a heart attack
The patient must exhibit decision-making capacity
The patient must have been the one who placed the 911 call
The patient must exhibit decision-making capacity
64
You arrive at the scene of a 34-year-old woman with abdominal pain. As you begin talking to the patient, she extends her arm to allow your partner to take her blood pressure. What type of consent is this patient's action consistent with?
Informed consent
Passive consent
Expressed consent
Implied consent
Expressed consent
65
The Good Samaritan law is designed to afford legal protection for providers who:
act inconsistently with the standard of care.
accept payment in exchange for providing care.
provide good faith care while not on duty.
exceed their respective scope of practice.
provide good faith care while not on duty.
66
What are standing orders?
A set of guidelines that are produced and signed by the medical director, authorizing specific care for certain situations
Instructions provided by a local physician which outlines the training that an AEMT must have in order to gain licensure
Procedures for which the medical director must provide direct authorization over the phone or radio
A document written by OSHA that outlines how many hours an AEMT is allowed to work consecutively
A set of guidelines that are produced and signed by the medical director, authorizing specific care for certain situations
67
Which of the following information is not considered confidential?
The time of dispatch
Treatment provided
Patient history
Assessment findings
The time of dispatch
68
In most states, a minor can be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to emergency care and transport if he or she is:
at least 16 years old.
in possession of a valid driver's license.
living with his or her parents.
in the armed forces.
in the armed forces.
69
Which principle, also known as the emergency doctrine, allows EMS personnel to act in critical situations without danger of recrimination?
Implied consent
Expressed consent
Verbal consent
Informed consent
Implied consent
70
The manner in which you are required to act or behave while providing emergency care is called:
standard of care.
local protocol adherence.
scope of practice.
duty to act.
standard of care.
71
Which of the following situations is not one that may require special mandatory reporting?
Childbirth
Injury during commission of a felony
All of the following are situations that may require mandatory reporting, depending on local laws
Suspected or witnessed child abuse
All of the following are situations that may require mandatory reporting, depending on local laws
72
What could an AEMT be charged with if they terminate care without the patient's consent or without handing care off to another medical professional of equal or greater competence?
Kidnapping
Abandonment
Battery
Slander
Abandonment
73
Any radio hardware that contains a transmitter and receiver and is located in a fixed location is called a:
repeater.
base station.
dedicated line.
UHF receiver.
base station.
74
Your assessment of a 40-year-old male with an altered mental status (AMS) reveals the obvious odor of alcohol on his breath. When documenting the events of the call, you should state that:
the patient's blood alcohol concentration is high.
alcohol cannot be ruled out as the cause of his AMS.
the smell of alcohol was noted on the patient's breath.
the patient appeared to be acutely intoxicated.
the smell of alcohol was noted on the patient's breath.
75
A child is brought into the emergency department with red marks on his back from a traditional Asian healing practice called “coining.” The treating physician accuses the parents of poor parenting and insists their practices are harmful, although they are not. This accusation reflects which of the following?
Malfeasance
Cultural imposition
Self-awareness
Empathy
Cultural imposition
76
When communicating with your patient, you want to place yourself:
Sitting next to them
At eye level
Standing next to them
Outside of arms reach
At eye level
77
You must be careful when speaking to the family members about a patient because:
the patient may misinterpret what you said.
it is a violation of the patient's rights.
the family may sue you for slander.
they are not a reliable source of information.
the patient may misinterpret what you said
78
A 66-year-old female's daughter called EMS because her mother was having chest pain. When you arrive, the patient states that she does not need EMS and will not go to the hospital on her own. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented and will not sign a refusal form. You should:
have your partner sign the form verifying the patient's refusal.
have the daughter sign the form verifying her mother's refusal.
sign the refusal form yourself and document any care given.
advise the patient that the law requires her to sign the refusal form.
have the daughter sign the form verifying her mother's refusal.
79
When communicating with medical control, you are able to speak to the physician and send an ECG tracing at the same time. What type of radio system is required to do this?
Uniplex system
Simplex system
Trunking system
Full duplex mode
Full duplex mode
80
The National EMS Information System (NEMSIS) has identified minimum data to be included in a patient care report. Which of the following is not included in the minimum data?
Level of consciousness or mental status
Chief complaint and vital signs
Time and date that you were dispatched
Weather forecast at the time of dispatch
Weather forecast at the time of dispatch
81
You are dispatched to a residence for a 5-year-old child with a fever. During your assessment, the child becomes irritable and starts crying. You should:
encourage a parent or caregiver to hold the child.
ask the parent or caregiver to leave the room.
carefully restrain the child and continue your assessment.
limit your assessment to a visual inspection of the child.
encourage a parent or caregiver to hold the child.
82
Which of the following statements regarding age, culture, and personal experience is correct?
Generally speaking, a person's age has little or no influence on their behavior.
The thoughts of people are greatly influenced by their personal experiences.
An elderly person with chronic pain usually cannot cope with their condition.
Regardless of culture, people are taught to openly express their emotions.
The thoughts of people are greatly influenced by their personal experiences.
83
After medical control has ordered you to start an IV and administer normal saline at 125 mL/hr, you should:
question the order if it seems inappropriate.
repeat the order, word for word.
document the physician's name.
administer the medication as ordered.
repeat the order, word for word.
84
Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
“Does anything make your shortness of breath better or worse?”
“Does your shortness of breath get worse when you lie down?”
“Have you been seen by a physician for your abdominal pain?”
“Do you have a history of heart problems, diabetes, or stroke?”
“Does anything make your shortness of breath better or worse?”
85
When you first approach your patient, you should use which type of questions as they allow a free flow of conversation?
Leading questions
Open-ended questions
Closed-ended questions
Rhetorical questions
Open-ended questions
86
You are assessing a middle-aged man who complains of nausea and a headache. Before you physically move closer to him, it is important to remember that:
a greater sense of trust must be established first.
he will take this as a sign of your compassion.
eye contact will likely make him uncomfortable.
most people's intimate space is between 18 inches and 4 feet.
a greater sense of trust must be established first.
87
When assessing an anxious 55-year-old male with chest pain, you should:
use medical terms to ensure he understands.
avoid eye contact to minimize anxiety.
ask him how he prefers to be addressed.
avoid unpleasant answers to his questions.
ask him how he prefers to be addressed.
88
All patient moves should be:
Done with special equipment
Done in coordination with your team
Done fast and fluidly
Executed on the count of 3
Done in coordination with your team
89
When would the use of an emergency move be most applicable?
When you don't have enough man power
When the patient complains of neck and back pain
When the scene has become unsafe
When the patient is unresponsive
When the scene has become unsafe
90
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should:
direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.
apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.
apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient.
direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
91
he direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
with multiple long bone injuries.
from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
with a possible cervical spine injury.
who cannot be placed on a backboard.
from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
92
In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the most appropriate method of moving a patient?
A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall
An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke
A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car
A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
93
The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient:
without a spinal injury.
with forearm lacerations.
who complains of nausea.
with a deformed humerus.
with a deformed humerus.
94
A folding or portable stretcher is most beneficial when:
an injured patient cannot be placed on a long board due to severe back pain.
a conscious, alert patient must be carried down several flights of steep stairs.
a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.
a patient requires full spinal immobilization when spinal injury is suspected.
a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.
95
When carrying a patient on a backboard up or down stairs:
carry the patient headfirst.
keep the head end elevated.
keep the foot end elevated.
keep your palms facing down.
keep the head end elevated.
96
In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated?
A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock.
The AEMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.
A significant mechanism of injury is involved.
The AEMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle.
The AEMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards
97
Urgent moves are used under which circumstances?
When there is more than one patient
When the patient has an altered LOC
When the patient's vehicle is on fire
When the patient is bleeding
When the patient has an altered LOC
98
Moving a patient when spinal precautions are being taken should always be coordinated by who?
Your captain
Whoever is in charge of patient care
The person who is moving most of the weight
The person maintain cervical spinal stabilization
The person maintain cervical spinal stabilization
99
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
flex at the waist instead of the hips.
avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.
use a direct carry whenever possible.
keep the weight close to your body.
keep the weight close to your body.
100
The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
with multiple long bone injuries.
who cannot be placed on a backboard.
from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
with a possible cervical spine injury.
from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
101
When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the:
spinal column.
shoulder girdle.
pelvic girdle.
thigh muscles.
shoulder girdle.
102
When lifting a patient, you should always remember:
Keep your back straight
Bend at the waist
Keep your legs straight
Have a firm grip with palms facing down
Keep your back straight
103
A 29-year-old female experiences shortness of breath, urticaria, and bilateral wheezing shortly after you start an IV of normal saline. How should you manage this situation?
Place her on her left side with her head down.
Change the IV tubing and continue the IV.
Leave the catheter in place and remove the solution.
Discontinue the IV and remove the catheter.
Leave the catheter in place and remove the solution.
104
A stable patient requires an IV line in the event that medication therapy is needed. When selecting the appropriate vein, you should first attempt to cannulate the:
antecubital vein.
lateral forearm vein.
medial forearm vein.
vein on the hand.
vein on the hand.
105
Which type of IV solutions may be needed for a patient on dialysis when diuretic therapy dehydrates the cells?
Crystalloid solutions
Hypertonic solutions
Hypotonic solutions
Isotonic solutions
Hypotonic solutions
106
Which of the following is an example of an AEMT medication administered via the buccal route?
Saline
Glucose
Epinephrine
Nitroglycerin
Glucose
107
An intraosseous line should be inserted in a critical patient if:
vascular access is not needed for fluid administration.
the patient will require a whole blood transfusion.
you cannot establish IV access within six attempts.
IV access cannot be achieved within 90 seconds.
IV access cannot be achieved within 90 seconds.
108
Reconstituting a drug, such as glucagon, involves:
placing at least 10 mL of saline into a vial that contains powdered medication.
injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.
injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that contains liquid medication.
diluting a medication with at least 20 mL of saline prior to administration.
injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.
109
What physiologic response causes a vasovagal reaction?
Vasoconstriction and a decrease in blood pressure
Vasoconstriction and an increase in heart rate
Vasodilation and an increase in blood pressure
Vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure
Vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure
110
A microdrip administration set features a small, needle-like orifice inside the drip chamber and delivers:
100 gtt/mL.
15 gtt/mL.
60 gtt/mL.
10 gtt/mL.
60 gtt/mL.
111
What role does phosphorus play in the body?
It is the principle cation needed for bone development.
It is an important component in the formation of adenosine triphosphate.
It is responsible for the distribution of water throughout the body.
It is the primary buffer in the body.
It is an important component in the formation of adenosine triphosphate.
112
Once the “pigtail” that covers the access port of a bag of IV fluid has been removed, the fluid must be used:
within 36 hours.
within 24 hours.
immediately.
within 12 hours.
immediately.
113
In order to prevent catheter shear when starting an IV, you should:
never rethread the needle into the catheter.
use an 18-gauge or smaller catheter.
insert the IV in a vein where the catheter cannot bend.
place the patient on their side prior to starting the IV.
never rethread the needle into the catheter.
114
Which of the following represents a “standard” drug dose?
0.25 mg/kg
1 mg
0.5 g/kg
1 mg/kg
1 mg
115
After administration, D5W is quickly metabolized and the solution becomes:
protonic.
hypotonic.
isotonic.
hypertonic.
hypotonic.
116
Common sites for intraosseous cannulation include all of the following, except the:
lateral femur.
humerus.
proximal tibia
sternum.
lateral femur.
117
While starting an IV on a patient, you see bright red blood quickly traveling up the IV tubing. You should:
secure the IV line and apply direct pressure.
lower the IV bag to ensure viability of the IV line.
evaluate the puncture site for signs of infiltration.
remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.
remove the catheter and apply direct pressure
118
The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:
upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.
as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.
once the patient's baseline vital signs are known.
after the primary assessment has been completed.
after the primary assessment has been completed.
119
Which of the following medications would the AEMT be least likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?
Aspirin
Naloxone
Atropine
Albuterol
Atropine
120
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:
contact medical control.
quickly access the patient.
take standard precautions.
notify law enforcement.
take standard precautions.
121
Factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA include:
failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis.
prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.
a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks.
prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.
122
In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:
is not as complex for the AEMT, because most patients typically present with classic symptoms.
almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem.
requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems.
is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and the patient's symptoms.
is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and the patient's symptoms.
123
Jaundice is a sign of what kind of infection?
Influenza
Hepatitis
Herpes simplex
HIV
Hepatitis
124
Which type of hepatitis is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis A
125
All of the following are true regarding responding to a medical call, EXCEPT:
Many medical calls do not involve life-threatening conditions and therefore do not require lights and sirens
Medical calls should never include a head-to-toe assessment
Medical calls can often take longer on-scene than trauma calls
Sometimes the nearest hospital is not the best choice for a medical patient
Medical calls should never include a head-to-toe assessment
126
Kidney stones are an example of what type of medical condition?
Urologic
Hematologic
Neurologic
Gastrointestinal
Urologic
127
Index of suspicion is most accurately defined as:
your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms.
determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms.
your prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched.
your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
128
For which of the following types of hepatitis is the route of infection fecal or oral?
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis A
129
You and your partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary survey reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:
manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation, and consider requesting a paramedic unit.
administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.
perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly.
load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.
manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation, and consider requesting a paramedic unit.
130
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:
reassessing the nature of the illness.
repeating the primary survey.
taking another set of vital signs.
reviewing all treatment performed.
repeating the primary survey.
131
A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having:
tuberculosis.
meningitis.
hantavirus.
hepatitis.
meningitis.
132
Upon encountering an ill patient with a recent travel history, you should:
contact medical control.
place a mask on the patient.
don two pairs of gloves.
transport immediately.
place a mask on the patient.
133
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
becomes acutely anxious at the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings.
reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net.
clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted.
shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.
shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.
134
Which of the following is defined as the reflex that happens when a neonate is startled and makes them open their arms wide, spread their fingers, and perform a grabbing motion?
Palmar grasp reflex
Rooting reflex
Moro reflex
Sucking reflex
Moro reflex
135
More than 60% of people older than 65 have atherosclerosis. What is atherosclerosis?
A. A condition where cholesterol builds up inside the walls of blood vessels
B. A condition where the joints become stiff, painful, and inflamed
C. A condition where the bones become less dense and more porous
D. A condition where the heart cannot adequately pump blood, causing fluid buildup in the lungs
A. A condition where cholesterol builds up inside the walls of blood vessels
136
Breathing is often more labor intensive in older adults because the:
overall size of the airway decreases.
surface area of the alveoli increases.
diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge.
elasticity of the lungs decreases.
elasticity of the lungs decreases.
137
Changes in sleep patterns experienced by elderly patients are mostly caused by:
a loss of neurons in the brain.
decreased metabolism in the brain.
decreased brain size.
medication interactions.
a loss of neurons in the brain.
138
Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's.
An infant's head accounts for less body weight than an adult's.
The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult's.
The ribcage of an infant is less flexible than an adult's.
An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's.
139
Which type of psychosocial attachment is exhibited by an infant that shows little emotional response to their parents or caregivers and treat them like they are strangers?
Secure attachment
Caregiver attachments
Anxious-avoidant attachment
None of the above
Anxious-avoidant attachment
140
Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the early adolescent age group?
The normal pulse rate steadily increases.
Secondary sexual development begins.
The systolic blood pressure decreases.
Muscle and bone growth both decrease.
Secondary sexual development begins.
141
In which type of reasoning do children act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want?
Postconventional reasoning
Cognitive reasoning
Preconventional reasoning
Conventional reasoning
Preconventional reasoning
142
Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue.
Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.
Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.
Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
143
The high normal body temperature for an infant is:
99.6
100.3
98.5
97.9
99.6
144
The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
21 and 30 years.
19 and 25 years.
25 and 35 years.
18 and 22 years.
19 and 25 years
145
Age-related changes in the renal system result in:
a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.
the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%.
a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body.
dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function.
a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.
146
The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is most directly related to:
shrinkage of the brain.
a decrease in neurons.
meningeal deterioration.
blood vessel dilation.
shrinkage of the brain.
147
Aging is often associated with diminished proprioception, which is defined as:
the ability to know where various parts of the body are located in relation to each other.
the movement of the small bones in the middle ear, which transmits sound to the inner ear.
the ability to involuntarily preserve body heat through vasoconstriction of the peripheral vessels.
the amount of time it takes the skin to sense a stimulus and the brain to respond accordingly.
the ability to know where various parts of the body are located in relation to each other.
148
What protective function does the Hering-Breuer reflex serve?
It prevents atrophy of the respiratory muscles.
It prevents collapse of the alveoli.
It prevents overexpansion of the lungs.
It protects the abdominal organs when the diaphragm descends.
It prevents overexpansion of the lungs.
149
Which of the following signs is most indicative of adequate breathing in an adult?
Shallow depth of breathing
An altered mental status
Avoidance of a supine position
Respirations of 20 breaths/min
Respirations of 20 breaths/min
150
When the diaphragm moves downward, what happens?
It relaxes, causing exhalation
It contracts, causing exhalation
It relaxes, causing inhalation
It contracts, causing inhalation
It contracts, causing inhalation
151
When ventilation is compromised but perfusion continues:
the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen, but it cannot diffuse into the blood.
blood passes over some alveolar membranes without gas exchange taking place.
more CO2 diffuses across the pulmonary capillary membrane and is eliminated.
air movement into and out of the lungs is adequate, but diffusion is impaired.
blood passes over some alveolar membranes without gas exchange taking place.
152
Slow, shallow, irregular respirations or occasional gasps are most indicative of:
intracranial pressure.
narcotic drug overdose.
cerebral anoxia.
brainstem injury.
cerebral anoxia.
153
The condition in which the alveoli collapse is called:
pneumothorax.
atelectasis.
bronchitis.
pleuritis.
atelectasis
154
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) increases when:
a patient is hyperventilated with a bag-mask device.
excessive carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma.
carbon dioxide moves across the pulmonary capillaries.
a person's respiratory rate is significantly increased.
excessive carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma.
155
Partial pressure is the term used to describe the amount of gas that is:
in venous blood.
in arterial blood.
exchanged in the lungs.
dissolved in fluid.
dissolved in fluid
156
The entire process of inspiration is focused on delivering oxygen to which structures?
Pleura
Bronchioles
Bronchi
Alveoli
Alveoli
157
When using the bag-mask device to ventilate an apneic patient who has dentures, you should:
periodically reassess the airway to ensure the dentures are not loose.
avoid the use of an oropharyngeal airway because this may dislodge the dentures.
remove the dentures, even if they are tight-fitting, and insert a King airway.
leave loose dentures in place in order to maintain a better mask seal.
periodically reassess the airway to ensure the dentures are not loose.
158
Which action could be a compensatory response of the body to a decrease in the pH of the blood, such as what occurs with hyperglycemic ketoacidosis or aspirin overdose?
Hypocapnia
Hypoventilation
Hyperventilation
Hypercapnia
Hyperventilation
159
What do snoring respirations in an unconscious patient indicate?
Severe upper airway obstruction from a foreign body
Spasm of the larynx and closure of the vocal cords
Blood or other secretions in the upper airway
Partial occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue
Partial occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue
160
When your suction tube is clamped it should generate a vacuum pressure of at least:
300 mmHg
150 mmHg
500 mmHg
350 mmHg
300 mmHg
161
The normal respiration rate for a child is:
12-20
15-30
25-50
8-18
15-30
162
In order for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to be beneficial, the patient must:
weigh more than 110 pounds.
not have a history of asthma.
have a slow respiratory rate.
be able to follow commands.
be able to follow commands.
163
Which of the following is a late sign of tension pneumothorax?
Muffled heart sounds
Tracheal deviation
Jugular venous distention
Cyanosis
Tracheal deviation
164
Shock is also known as:
Hypoxia
Hypothermia
Hyperperfusion
Hypoperfusion
Hypoperfusion
165
Why does the clinical presentation of neurogenic shock differ from that of hypovolemic shock?
Profound stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system occurs.
The vascular space is relatively smaller compared to the blood volume.
Spinal cord injury stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system.
The sympathetic nervous system does not release catecholamines.
The sympathetic nervous system does not release catecholamines.
166
There are three main causes of shock. They include:
Blood loss, allergic reactions and trauma
Pump failure, poor vessel function and low fluid volume
Tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade and pulmonary embolism
Septic, anaphylactic and neurogenic
Pump failure, poor vessel function and low fluid volume
167
Definitive signs of anaphylactic shock are:
Localized itching, redness, swelling
Positive exposure to an allergen, localized swelling
Positive exposure to an allergen, low blood pressure and respiratory distress
Wheezing, pedal edema, tracheal deviation
Positive exposure to an allergen, low blood pressure and respiratory distress
168
You and your partner Jose respond to the home of a 58-year-old male. Upon arrival, his wife tells you that he had chest pain that started 3 days prior and has now just been feeling under the weather, fatigued, and it has become increasingly hard to breathe. Upon assessment, you find a blood pressure of 102/68, a pulse of 98, and crackling in the lungs. This patient is most likely suffering from:
Cardiogenic shock
Cardiac arrest
Distributive shock
Obstructive shock
Cardiogenic shock
169
Your patient is a 29-year-old male who presents with signs and symptoms of shock. However, your assessment reveals no obvious external signs of injury. You should suspect:
a severe closed head injury.
bleeding within the chest.
an infectious condition.
intraabdominal bleeding.
intraabdominal bleeding.
170
A patient who presents with hypotension, jugular venous distention, and tachycardia should be suspected of experiencing:
neurogenic shock.
obstructive shock.
distributive shock.
hypovolemic shock.
obstructive shock.
171
You receive a call for a 66-year-old female who was found unresponsive by her husband. Your primary survey reveals that the patient is responsive to painful stimuli and has rapid, shallow respirations. Her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, and her pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular. The patient's husband tells you that she complained of chest pressure the previous day, but would not allow him to call EMS. This patient is:
significantly hypovolemic and requires 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask as well as several crystalloid fluid boluses.
experiencing cardiogenic shock and requires assisted ventilation, IV therapy, and rapid transport.
in shock due to a cardiac dysrhythmia and requires assisted ventilation as well as a 2-liter bolus of an isotonic crystalloid.
likely experiencing an acute myocardial infarction. She requires 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and rapid transport.
experiencing cardiogenic shock and requires assisted ventilation, IV therapy, and rapid transport.
172
Perfusion depends on adequate cardiac output, which is calculated as:
heart rate times stroke volume.
preload times heart rate.
afterload times blood pressure.
blood pressure minus heart rate.
heart rate times stroke volume.
173
In which part of the assessment should you determine whether your patient may be in shock?
Scene size-up
Secondary assessment
Primary survey
History taking
Primary survey
174
All of the following can lead to shock (hypoperfusion), except:
decreased contractility of the heart muscle.
inadequate oxygen in the arterial blood.
increased venous return to the right atrium.
decreased systemic vascular resistance.
increased venous return to the right atrium.
175
Pulse oximetry readings are unreliable in patients who were exposed to which substance?
Asbestos
Carbon monoxide
Beryllium
Cyanide
Carbon monoxide
176
The only truly effective prehospital treatment for a severe, acute allergic reaction is to administer which medication by way of intramuscular injection?
Epinephrine
Heparin
Naloxone
Nitroglycerin
Epinephrine
177
Which of the following occurs during shock (hypoperfusion)?
Blood is diverted to the skin and gastrointestinal system.
Permanent brain damage occurs despite aggressive treatment.
All blood is shunted from other parts of the body to the kidneys.
The removal of metabolic waste products is decreased.
The removal of metabolic waste products is decreased.
178
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of:
obstruction of the airway.
a cardiac dysrhythmia.
an acute ischemic stroke.
severe blunt trauma.
a cardiac dysrhythmia.
179
What is the proper depth for adult chest compressions?
2 to 2.4 inches
1 to 1.5 inches
0.5-1 inches
4 to 4.2 inches
2 to 2.4 inches
180
During cardiac arrest, the resuscitation team should maintain a chest compression fraction of at least:
80%.
50%.
60%.
70%.
60%.
181
Which of the following is NOT one of the five links of the chain of survival?
Immediate high-quality CPR
Early administration of nitroglycerin and aspirin
Basic and advanced EMS
Recognition/activation of EMS
ALS and postarrest care
Rapid defibrillation
Early administration of nitroglycerin and aspirin
182
After an advanced airway has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should:
increase rescue breathing to a rate of 14 breaths/min.
deliver ventilations at a rate of 10 breaths/min.
pause compressions to deliver ventilations.
decrease the compression rate to about 80/min.
deliver ventilations at a rate of 10 breaths/min.
183
You should deliver chest compressions to an adult patient in cardiac arrest by:
depressing the sternum between 1 inch and 2 inches.
placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid.
compressing over the lower half of the sternum.
compressing quickly and releasing slowly.
compressing over the lower half of the sternum
184
The fourth link in the chain of survival includes:
immediate high-quality CPR.
basic and advanced EMS care.
activation of the EMS system.
postarrest care in the hospital.
basic and advanced EMS care.
185
After an advanced airway device has been inserted during cardiac arrest, you should ventilate an infant or child:
by giving one breath every 5 to 6 seconds.
with greater force to enhance chest compressions.
by giving one breath every 2 to 3 seconds.
at a rate of at least 40 breaths/min.
by giving one breath every 2 to 3 seconds.
186
In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression-to-ventilation ratio of:
5:2.
15:2.
30:2.
5:1.
30:2.
187
When checking for a pulse on an infant, which artery should be used?
Carotid artery
Femoral artery
Radial artery
Brachial artery
Brachial artery
188
During CPR, how long should each ventilation last?
8 seconds
10 seconds
5 seconds
1 second
1 second
189
Which of the following is not a BLS intervention?
Abdominal thrusts
Chest compressions
Automated defibrillation
Cardiac monitoring
Cardiac monitoring
190
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
respiratory arrest.
an ingested poison.
a cardiac dysrhythmia.
severe chest trauma.
respiratory arrest.
191
During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.
move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
192
What is the correct ratio of compressions to breaths for two-rescuer infant CPR?
15:2
30:1
15:4
30:2
15:2
193
Stridor and a seal-bark cough are hallmark signs of which of the following conditions?
Pneumonia
Epiglottitis
Bronchiolitis
Croup
Croup
194
Which of the following symptoms line up with influenza type A?
Nausea, vomiting, fatigue, loss of appetite
Low-grade fever, “seal-bark” cough, stridor
Fever, cough, sore throat, muscle aches, headache, fatigue
Sudden onset sharp chest pain, tachycardia, dyspnea, clear breath sounds
Fever, cough, sore throat, muscle aches, headache, fatigue
195
Signs and symptoms of: Asthma
Wheezing on ispiration/expiration, bronchospasms
196
Signs and symptoms of: anaphylaxis
Flushed skin, hives, hypotension, wheezing or stridor
197
Signs and symptoms of: bronchitis
Chronic cough with sputum, wheezing, cyanosis, tachypnea
198
Signs and symptoms of: congestive heart failure
Dependent edema, cradles (pulmonary edema), orthopnea
199
Signs and symptoms of: common cold
Cough, runny or stuffy nose, sore throat
200
Signs and symptoms of: Croup
fever, seal-bark cough, stridor, mainly seen in pediatric patients
201
Signs and symptoms of: Pertusssis
Coughing spells, “whooping” sound, fever
202
Signs and symptoms of: pneumonia
Fever, chill, localized wheezing or crackles, cough, green- red- or rust colored sputum
203
Signs and symptoms of: pneumothorax
Sudden chest pain or dyspnea, decreased breath sounds, subcutaneous emphysema, tracheal deviation and/or jugular vein distention (in severe cases)
204
Signs and symptoms of: pulmonary embolism
Sudden onset, sharp chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, clear breath sounds
205
In cases of pulmonary edema, diffusion is impaired primarily because of:
widespread atelectasis.
decreased cardiac contractility.
fluid-filled alveoli.
severe pulmonary vasoconstriction.
fluid-filled alveoli.
206
You arrive on the scene of a 17-year-old male who is 6 foot 7 inches tall and had been lifting weights at the school gym when he suddenly developed dyspnea and a sharp, stabbing pain on the right side of his chest. Upon auscultation, you notice that his breath sounds are less clear on the right side than they are on the left. You should suspect:
An exercise-induced asthma attack
A pulmonary embolism
A spontaneous pneumothorax
An anaphylactic reaction
A spontaneous pneumothorax
207
A 59-year-old female with a history of poorly controlled hypertension becomes acutely dyspneic, develops profound cyanosis to the upper chest, and becomes unresponsive. She is pulseless and apneic upon your arrival. As you and your partner are performing the appropriate treatment interventions, you discuss the possible cause of her condition, which is most likely a(n):
massive atraumatic hemothorax.
massive pulmonary embolism.
acute myocardial infarction.
large tension pneumothorax.
massive pulmonary embolism.
208
he best definition of respiration is:
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
The amount of oxygen that is getting to the heart
The movement of air into and out of the lungs
The maximum volume of air that the lungs can hold
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
209
When assessing the severity of nocturnal dyspnea in a patient with a chronic respiratory disease, you should determine:
how far he or she can walk before dyspnea occurs.
if he or she uses a beta2 agonist at least twice per day.
if he or she sleeps on the stomach or back.
how many pillows he or she sleeps with at night.
how many pillows he or she sleeps with at night.
210
You are dispatched for an elderly male with dyspnea. When you arrive, you find the patient sitting in a chair. He is semiconscious and unable to effectively communicate with you. As you perform a primary survey, your partner applies 100% oxygen and a pulse oximeter, which reads 85%. The most reliable indicator of cerebral hypoxia in this patient is his:
decreased oxygen saturation.
inability to communicate.
mental status alteration.
complaint of dyspnea.
mental status alteration.
211
What acid-base derangement initially occurs in a tachypneic patient without a physiologic demand for increased oxygen?
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
212
Internal respiration is the gas exchange that occurs:
Between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart
Between the blood in the body’s capillaries and the surrounding tissues
Between the air in the bronchioles and the air in the alveoli
Between the air inside the alveoli and the capillaries surrounding them
Between the blood in the body’s capillaries and the surrounding tissues
213
A 30-year-old male presents with respiratory distress that began within minutes of being exposed to an unknown chemical at an industrial site. When caring for this patient, it is most important to remember that:
he must be properly decontaminated first.
aggressive airway management may be needed.
inhalation injuries can cause aspiration pneumonia.
he will likely require frequent suctioning.
he must be properly decontaminated first.
214
All of the following are commonly prescribed medications for patients with a respiratory disease, except:
Intal.
Singulair.
Beclovent.
Inderal.
Inderal.
215
Emphysema is caused by:
surfactant destruction and increased alveolar surface tension.
widespread constriction of the bronchioles and air trapping.
cancerous changes in the smooth muscle of the bronchioles.
excessive mucous production by beta2 cells in the bronchi.
surfactant destruction and increased alveolar surface tension.
216
When a healthy person's carbon dioxide levels increase, the medulla of the brain automatically senses that and causes the person to:
Breathe more shallowly and at a slower rate
Breathe more deeply and at a faster rate
Breathe more shallowly and at a faster rate
Breathe more deeply and at a slower rate
Breathe more deeply and at a faster rate
217
A 71-year-old man presents with shortness of breath, facial cyanosis, and a cough that is producing blood. His blood pressure is 144/92 mm Hg, pulse is 130 beats/min and irregular, and respirations are 28 breaths/min and labored. He is confused and is slow to follow your commands. You should:
assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device, begin transport, and consider establishing IV access en route to the hospital.
administer high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, place him in a position of comfort, insert a saline lock, and transport.
use CPAP to attempt to improve his breathing, insert a saline lock, transport, and be prepared to assist his ventilations.
insert a supraglottic airway device, ventilate him at a rate of 12 breaths/min, transport, and establish IV access en route to the hospital.
assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device, begin transport, and consider establishing IV access en route to the hospital.
218
According to the Starling law of the heart:
increased venous return stretches the ventricles, resulting in increased contractility.
damage to the right ventricle causes blood to back up in the systemic circulation.
the cardiac muscle can generate its own electrical impulses without outside influence.
decreased venous return reduces the amount of blood delivered to the lungs.
increased venous return stretches the ventricles, resulting in increased contractility.
219
From the right atrium, blood passes through which valve into the right ventricle?
Tricuspid valve
Aortic valve
Mitral valve
Pulmonic valve
Tricuspid valve
220
Chronic pedal edema may indicate which of the following conditions?
Acute myocardial infarction
Right-sided heart failure
Left-sided heart failure
Dissecting aneurysm
Right-sided heart failure
221
You are dispatched to a residence for a 4-year-old male who is not breathing. When you and your partner arrive at the scene, you find the child's father is performing mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing on him. The father tells you that his son stuck a pin in an electrical socket. After assessing the child and determining that he is pulseless and apneic, you should:
request a paramedic unit to perform defibrillation.
perform CPR and insert a pediatric-sized Combitube.
begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.
perform CPR, immobilize his spine, and transport.
begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.
222
Which of the following is the most common cause of error when operating the AED?
Failure to ensure the batteries are charged
Failure of the internal analyzing mechanism
Failure of the AED's internal memory card
Inappropriate placement of the chest pads
Failure to ensure the batteries are charged
223
Following defibrillation with the AED, you have achieved return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in a 42-year-old man. However, he remains unresponsive and apneic. You continue to ventilate him and begin immediate transport to the hospital. En route, you reassess the patient and determine that he is in cardiac arrest. You should:
analyze the patient's rhythm with the AED, defibrillate if indicated, and tell your partner to stop the ambulance.
begin CPR, tell your partner to stop the ambulance, and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm with the AED.
tell your partner to stop the ambulance, perform CPR for 2 minutes, and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm with the AED.
tell your partner to continue to the hospital, perform 2 minutes of CPR, and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm with the AED.
begin CPR, tell your partner to stop the ambulance, and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm with the AED.
224
Effectively performed CPR is a crucial treatment for a patient in cardiac arrest because it:
enhances perfusion to the body's periphery.
often converts ventricular fibrillation to a perfusing rhythm.
prevents the patient from developing asystole.
maintains myocardial and cerebral perfusion.
maintains myocardial and cerebral perfusion.
225
What cardiac rhythms are recognized as shockable by an Automated External Defibrillator (AED)?
Ventricular tachycardia & asystole
Tachycardia & bradycardia
Atrial tachycardia & atrial fibrillation
Ventricular tachycardia & ventricular fibrillation
Ventricular tachycardia & ventricular fibrillation
226
Blood enters the heart through the:
Phrenic vein
Aorta
Pulmonary artery
Superior and inferior vena cava
Superior and inferior vena cava
227
An acute myocardial infarction is more apt to occur in the left ventricle because:
it is a fairly small chamber that is quickly depleted of oxygenated blood.
it is large and thick and demands more oxygen than the right ventricle.
its coronary arteries are more susceptible to atherosclerotic disease.
its inherently low oxygen demand predisposes it to injury or infarct.
it is large and thick and demands more oxygen than the right ventricle.
228
Blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle passing through which valve?
Aortic valve
Tricuspid valve
Bicuspid valve
Pulmonic valve
Bicuspid valve
229
The primary function of the atrioventricular (AV) node is to:
serve as the backup pacemaker if the ventricular conduction system fails.
slow conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for ventricular filling.
regenerate the atrial-initiated electrical impulse before it enters the ventricles.
increase conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for atrial filling.
slow conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for ventricular filling.
230
Asystole has a high mortality rate because it:
is usually the result of a massive myocardial infarction.
reflects a prolonged period of myocardial ischemia.
is typically associated with coronary artery rupture.
most often occurs in patients with significant heart disease.
reflects a prolonged period of myocardial ischemia.
231
The presence of pulmonary edema; shortness of breath; and the coughing up of pink, frothy sputum, should make you suspect which of the following?
Thromboembolism
Heart failure
Atherosclerosis
Myocardial infarction
Heart failure
232
The ability of the body to recognize a foreign substance the next time it is encountered is called:
anaphylaxis.
immunity.
sensitivity.
phagocytosis.
sensitivity.
233
An EpiPen is administered in what location?
Proximal lateral deltoid
Proximal posterior calf
Mid lateral thigh
Mid gluteus maximus
Mid lateral thigh
234
The AEMT should transport any patient with an allergic reaction, even if he or she is able to stop the reaction with epinephrine, because:
most patients require a continuous infusion of epinephrine.
the patient's symptoms could recur up to 8 hours later.
any patient who is given a drug must be transported by law.
the effects of epinephrine last only about 10 or 15 minutes.
the patient's symptoms could recur up to 8 hours later.
235
You should attempt to remove an imbedded stinger from a patient who was stung by a bee because:
the toxicity of the venom increases when it enters the bloodstream.
it is likely to cause severe local swelling and intense pain.
it can inject venom for up to 20 minutes after the initial sting.
desensitization to the venom will occur following prolonged exposure.
it can inject venom for up to 20 minutes after the initial sting.
236
You are assessing a 32-year-old female who was stung by a scorpion. She is unresponsive and has stridorous, severely labored respirations. Your partner, who is assisting the patient's ventilations with a bag-mask device, tells you that he is meeting significant resistance with each ventilation. You should:
administer 3 to 5 mL of epinephrine 1:1,000 SC.
apply cricoid pressure to facilitate airflow into the lungs.
request a paramedic crew to perform a cricothyrotomy.
insert an advanced airway device to protect her airway.
Insert an advanced airway device to protect her airway.
237
Natural immunity occurs when a person's body:
does not produce antibodies after being exposed to or vaccinated against a particular disease.
produces antibodies to a particular disease after he or she is vaccinated against the disease.
produces antibodies after being exposed to and experiencing all the symptoms of a disease.
produces antibodies after being exposed to and experiencing all the symptoms of a disease.
238
Asking about is key to potentially understanding how serious the current reaction may be.
Duration of exospore
Prior exposures
Have they taken any Benadryl
Were there two allergens
Prior exposures
239
Allergic reactions to oral medications:
are typically mild to moderate but may last for several days.
may cause a severe reaction after 30 minutes or more following ingestion.
usually occur without prior sensitization to the medication.
rarely cause anaphylaxis because digestive enzymes destroy the antigen.
may cause a severe reaction after 30 minutes or more following ingestion.
240
Treatment for anaphylactic shock secondary to an insect sting may include all of the following, except:
giving IV fluid boluses.
assisting ventilations.
leaving the stinger in place.
rapid transport.
leaving the stinger in place.
241
A 30-year-old man presents with widespread urticaria after being bitten numerous times by fire ants. He is conscious and alert and denies respiratory distress. Further assessment reveals that his breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. He tells you that his wife has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector because she is allergic to hornets. However, he does not have a prescribed auto-injector of his own. You should:
assist him in self-administering his wife's epinephrine.
administer oxygen as needed and transport promptly.
refer him to his primary care physician for epinephrine.
request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine.
administer oxygen as needed and transport promptly.
242
A 29-year-old male experienced multiple fire ant bites to his lower extremities. He is conscious and alert and denies respiratory distress. His skin is warm, dry, and without urticaria, and his breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Appropriate management for this patient includes:
assisting the patient with an epinephrine auto-injector if he has one.
administering 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and starting an IV.
administering prophylactic epinephrine in a dose of 0.3 to 0.5 mg IM.
applying ice to the bites and observing for signs of an allergic reaction.
applying ice to the bites and observing for signs of an allergic reaction.
243
Decreases in cardiac output and blood pressure in a patient with anaphylactic shock are the result of:
profound tachycardia.
increased cardiac preload.
systemic vasodilation.
internal fluid loss.
systemic vasodilation.
244
______________ often accompany allergens that have been ingested, but not allergens that are introduced to the body via other routes.
Gastrointestinal complaints
Swelling of the upper airway
Urticaria and hives
Abdominal swelling
Gastrointestinal complaints
245
Epinephrine is a critical treatment for patients with severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) because it:
works rapidly to raise the BP by constricting the vasculature and improves ventilation by dilating the bronchioles.
does not increase myocardial oxygen demand and consumption as if it were given to patients with other conditions.
directly blocks the endogenous chemicals that are responsible for the negative effects of the allergic reaction.
markedly increases the patient's heart rate and improves perfusion to the brain, kidneys, and myocardium.
works rapidly to raise the BP by constricting the vasculature and improves ventilation by dilating the bronchioles.
246
A biphasic response to an antigen occurs when:
an acute response is followed later by a delayed response.
there is no acute response but a delayed response hours later.
the acute response is sustained despite appropriate care.
the acute response is rapidly corrected by the immune system.
an acute response is followed later by a delayed response.
247
Which of the following pain patterns is most consistent with kidney stones?
Retropubic pain without radiation
Flank pain with referred pain to the shoulders
Flank pain that radiates to the groin
Localized costovertebral angle tenderness
Flank pain that radiates to the groin
248
Which of the following statements regarding the geriatric patient with an acute abdomen is correct?
Most geriatric patients with abdominal pain seek immediate medical care.
Geriatric patients commonly present with fever due to organ inflammation.
Severe abdominal organ dysfunction may present with mild or absent pain.
Increased pain sensitivity causes severe pain from even minor conditions.
Severe abdominal organ dysfunction may present with mild or absent pain.
249
A young female with severe lower abdominal pain presents with a decreased level of consciousness, tachypnea, and shallow breathing. Her blood pressure is 88/48 mm Hg, and her pulse is 130 beats/min and weak. You should:
administer 20 mL/kg normal saline boluses.
cover her with a blanket to keep her warm.
elevate her legs and reassess her blood pressure.
assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
250
Renal failure can cause what kind of issue?
Metabolic acidosis
Hernia
Hematemesis
Kidney stones
Metabolic acidosis
251
A 27-year-old male complains of an acute onset of abdominal pain. He is found curled in a fetal position with his right knee drawn up into his abdomen. This position is most commonly seen in patients with acute:
cholecystitis.
pancreatitis.
gastroenteritis.
appendicitis.
appendicitis.
252
Esophagitis is associated with which type of white blood cell?
Eosinophils
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Basophils
Eosinophils
253
Signs and symptoms that are most commonly associated with an acute abdomen include:
back pain, constipation, and high fever.
low-grade fever, back pain, and diarrhea.
nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.
nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
254
A young female complains of acute pain located in the left lower quadrant of her abdomen. When palpating her abdomen for tenderness, and rigidity, you should first palpate the:
right upper quadrant.
right lower quadrant.
left upper quadrant.
right upper quadrant.
255
It is important to avoid giving anything by mouth to a patient with acute abdominal pain because:
IV analgesia given by paramedics typically causes nausea.
the stomach must be empty prior to surgical intervention.
food or drink will irritate the gastric lining of the stomach.
absent peristalsis will cause rapid digestion and diarrhea.
the stomach must be empty prior to surgical intervention.
256
You are treating a 50-year-old female with severe abdominal pain. She is conscious but restless, and is begging you for pain medication. Her blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg, pulse is 120 beats/min and strong, and respirations are 24 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should:
give her small sips of water, but only if she is not nauseated.
administer 20 mL/kg fluid boluses through two large-bore IVs.
start a large-bore IV and set it at a keep-vein-open rate.
request a paramedic to administer analgesia to the patient.
start a large-bore IV and set it at a keep-vein-open rate.
257
Which of the following causes of an acute abdomen would be least likely to present with fever?
Appendicitis prior to rupture and abscess formation
Inflammation of the small pockets in the large intestine
Acute pancreatitis secondary to an infectious process
Acute cholecystitis caused by the presence of gallstones
Appendicitis prior to rupture and abscess formation
258
Shortly following a meal, a 49-year-old female complains of acute pain to the right upper quadrant of her abdomen with referred pain to her right shoulder. This is most suggestive of acute:
cholecystitis.
pancreatitis.
appendicitis.
pyelonephritis.
cholecystitis.
259
You and your partner have responded to a patient who is complaining of severe upper abdominal pain and has been vomiting blood. They mention that they are a recovering alcoholic. They are most likely suffering from what?
Esophagitis
Pancreatitis
Ulcers
Mallory-Weiss tear
Mallory-Weiss tear
260
The liver secretes ________, which is an enzyme that the body uses to ________.
hydrochloric acid; break down foods
bile; dissolve fats into solution
glucagon; convert glycogen to glucose
chyme; remove waste products
bile; dissolve fats into solution
261
A 45-year-old female is found semiconscious by a neighbor. She is incontinent of urine and is bleeding from her mouth. Which of the following medications found in her residence would lead you to suspect that she experienced a seizure?
Lamictal
Elavil
Valium
Ativan
Lamictal
262
You respond to a residence for a 27-year-old male with an altered mental status. As you are assessing him, his girlfriend tells you that he does not have any medical problems that she is aware of; however, he did fall two days ago and strike his head. These clinical and historical findings should make you most suspicious for:
acute hypoglycemia.
subdural hemorrhaging.
epidural hemorrhaging.
meningeal artery rupture.
subdural hemorrhaging
263
A 30-year-old male presents with a partial seizure to his left arm. His wife denies that he has ever had seizures in the past. Which of the following conditions would be the least likely cause of this patient's seizure?
Idiopathic epilepsy
Intracranial hemorrhage
A serious cerebral infection
An intracerebral tumor
Idiopathic epilepsy
264
When performing the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, you should remember:
It is not considered abnormal if the patient slurs their speech, it is only abnormal if they are completely unable to speak or if they answer your questions incorrectly
There are no other medical conditions that would cause the patient to show abnormal responses on this test
The patient’s palms should face upward, and their eyes should be closed when evaluating arm drift
Two or more of the signs must be abnormal in order for you to suspect a possible stroke is occurring
The patient’s palms should face upward, and their eyes should be closed when evaluating arm drift
265
The clonic phase of a generalized motor seizure is characterized by:
muscle contraction and relaxation occurring in rapid succession.
continuous and unremitting total body muscular contractions.
paralysis of the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm.
total body muscle flaccidity immediately following the seizure.
muscle contraction and relaxation occurring in rapid succession.
266
When treating and transporting a patient who has had a transient ischemic attack (TIA), it is important to remember that:
TIAs are completely harmless, and you should avoid transporting the patient if possible
TIAs are caused by massive brain hemorrhage and typically cause death within four hours of symptom onset if not treated
TIAs are associated with an increased risk of tonic-clonic seizures within 24 hours
TIAs are often a precursor to a full stroke and the patient needs a full evaluation by a physician
TIAs are often a precursor to a full stroke and the patient needs a full evaluation by a physician
267
The _______, which is present wherever a nerve cell terminates, connects to the next cell via _______.
axon; catecholamines
synapse; neurotransmitters
neuron; catecholamines
dendrite; nerve fibers
synapse; neurotransmitters
268
To minimize the amount of brain-cell damage that occurs following an ischemic stroke, fibrinolytic therapy must be administered within:
3 hours after the call is received.
3 hours after the onset of symptoms.
2 hours after assessing the patient.
5 hours after arriving at the hospital.
3 hours after the onset of symptoms.
269
Which of the following statements regarding the 12 cranial nerves is correct?
Their primary function is to send messages to and from the brain.
They arise from the brain and innervate the head and face.
All twelve nerves exit the brain through the foramen magnum.
They branch out from between each of the spinal vertebrae.
They arise from the brain and innervate the head and face.
270
Patients with a hemorrhagic stroke typically experience a rapidly declining level of consciousness because of:
increasing intracranial pressure.
global anoxia of the cerebrum.
pressure on the brain stem.
blood in the subarachnoid space.
increasing intracranial pressure.
271
Which kind of seizure is characterized by generalized full-body twitching and abnormal electrical activity in large parts of the brain?
Focal seizures
Status epilepticus
Tonic-clonic seizures
Pseudoseizures
Tonic-clonic seizures
272
What does the FAST mnemonic stand for?
Face Arms Speech Transport
Face Arms Smile Time
Face Arms Smile Transport
Face Arms Speech Time
Face Arms Speech Time
273
You are assessing a 59-year-old male with an altered mental status. You should suspect an acute ischemic stroke versus hypoglycemia if the patient:
attempts to communicate with you.
has a prescription for phenobarbital.
rapidly loses consciousness.
is incontinent of urine and feces.
attempts to communicate with you.
274
Which of the following is the definition of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke?
An interruption of blood flow to a part of the lungs, causing a decrease in function
An interruption of blood flow to a part of the heart, causing a decrease in function
An interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain, causing a decrease in function
An interruption of blood flow to a part of the kidneys, causing a decrease in function
An interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain, causing a decrease in function
275
A 68-year-old male presents with confusion, left-sided hemiparesis, and facial droop. En route, the patient becomes more coherent and slowly regains use of his left arm. These findings are most suggestive of:
an impending massive stroke within 24 hours.
a transient infarct to the right side of the brain.
temporary ischemia to the right side of the brain.
permanent injury to the left side of the brain.
temporary ischemia to the right side of the brain.
276
Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism include:
an irregular pulse, weight gain, and flushed skin.
bradycardia, weight loss, and muscle weakness.
tachycardia, weight loss, and hyperactive reflexes.
tachycardia, cool skin, and sluggish reflexes.
tachycardia, weight loss, and hyperactive reflexes.
277
If a person who has sickle cell disease develops a clot due to misshapen cells, it can result in a blockage called:
Anemia
Vasoocclusive crisis
Pulmonary embolism
Hemophilia
Vasoocclusive crisis
278
A common clinical finding in patients with hypo- or hyperglycemic crisis is:
diaphoresis and pale skin.
rapid and shallow breathing.
profound dehydration.
an altered mental status.
an altered mental status
279
By what route should oral glucose be given?
Sublingual
Transcutaneous
Intranasal
Buccal
Buccal q
280
Type I diabetes mellitus is also known as what?
Adult-onset diabetes
Insulin-dependent diabetes
Gestational diabetes
Insulin-resistant diabetes
Insulin-dependent diabetes
281
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) occurs when:
the kidneys excrete large amounts of glucose from the body.
the body's cells metabolize fat as an immediate energy source.
excessive amounts of cellular glucose cause ketone production.
lactic acid is produced within the cell in the absence of glucose.
the body's cells metabolize fat as an immediate energy source.
282
A young male with sickle cell disease presents with chest pain, fever, and a cough. His vital signs are stable, although he is experiencing mild respiratory distress. You should suspect:
a pneumothorax.
an aplastic crisis.
acute aspiration.
pneumonia.
pneumonia.
283
Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?
Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly.
In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.
The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin A.
Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel.
In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.
284
You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 425 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes:
dextrose.
oxygen.
insulin.
glucagon.
insulin.
285
Which of the following statements regarding hyperglycemic crisis (diabetic coma) is correct?
It is typically associated with overhydration.
Fat metabolism results in severe lactic acidosis.
It usually progresses over hours or days.
Insulin overdose is the most common cause.
It usually progresses over hours or days.
286
Which of the following is classified as a Schedule I substance with high potential for abuse and no currently accepted medical use in the United States?
Mescaline
Ketamine
Marijuana
Morphine
Mescaline
287
During your assessment of a 19-year-old male who has abused an unknown type of drug, you note severe deformity to his hand. The patient, who is very agitated, states that he bent his fingers back in an attempt to break them. This abnormal behavior is most consistent with the use of:
LSD.
PCP.
marijuana.
cocaine.
PCP.
288
Which of the following medication routes should you use to administer naloxone to an IV drug abuser when IV access is not possible?
Intramuscular administration
Topical administration
Oral administration
Intranasal administration
Intranasal administration
289
Upon entering the residence of a young female with a possible toxic exposure, you begin surveying the scene. Which of the following findings would provide you with the least amount of information regarding the type of exposure?
General condition of the living area
An unpleasant odor in the residence
Presence of empty medication bottles
Needles or syringes in the residence
General condition of the living area
290
Which of the following is not considered a hallucinogen?
Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Phencyclidine (PCP)
Marijuana
Phenobarbital
Phenobarbital
291
Carbon monoxide (CO) causes severe tissue hypoxia because it:
produces excess carbon dioxide when it binds to the red blood cells.
causes anemia by destroying the body's circulating red blood cells.
obstructs the pulmonary capillary bed and prevents gas exchange.
binds to the hemoglobin molecule and inhibits cellular oxygenation.
binds to the hemoglobin molecule and inhibits cellular oxygenation.
292
Which of the following is not a recommended resource for treating a patient who has been exposed to a plant, chemical, or poison that you do not know anything about?
Poison Control
Medical control
All of these are good resources
Material safety data sheets (MSDS)
All of these are good resources
293
Which of the following clinical signs would suggest significant exposure to an anticholinergic substance?
Severe hypotension
Pupillary constriction
Excessive salivation
Profound tachycardia
Profound tachycardia
294
The self-administration of licit or illicit substances in a manner that is not consistent with approved medical or social practice is called:
unintentional poisoning.
drug addiction.
substance abuse.
psychological dependence.
substance abuse.
295
A 67-year-old female complains of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that woke her from her sleep. As you and your partner enter her residence, you immediately note the smell of natural gas. Suspecting carbon monoxide toxicity, you quickly remove the patient from her home and place her in the ambulance. When assessing her, it is important to remember that:
breathing room air will not eliminate any carbon monoxide from the bloodstream.
hyperbaric oxygen must be given within 20 minutes in order to prevent death.
a pulse oximetry reading that is high does not rule out significant hypoxemia.
definitive airway management is the most effective treatment for her condition.
a pulse oximetry reading that is high does not rule out significant hypoxemia.
296
You should not administer emergency care to a patient who inhaled a toxic substance until:
it has been determined how the exposure occurred.
you have assessed his or her oxygen saturation.
he or she has been properly decontaminated.
an antidote, if available, has been given.
he or she has been properly decontaminated.
297
Which of the following is NOT an opioid/opiate?
Morphine
Oxycodone
Heroin
Toradol
Toradol
298
When caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency, it is important for you to:
let the patient tell you what happened in his or her own words.
spend minimal time at the scene and transport the patient quickly.
qualify the patient's hallucinations in order to gain his or her trust.
clearly identify yourself as being in charge and set ground rules.
let the patient tell you what happened in his or her own words.
299
You are dispatched to a residence for an elderly female with “mental status changes.” During your assessment of the patient, you should first:
rule out hypoglycemia by administering glucose.
perform serial Cincinnati Stroke Scale assessments.
ask the husband if she has Alzheimer disease.
determine the patient's baseline mental status.
determine the patient's baseline mental status.
300
Which of the following conditions would be least likely to cause an alteration in behavior?
Hypoglycemia
Brain injury
Hypertension
Hypoxemia
Hypertension
301
Which of the following conditions would be the least likely cause of mental incapacitation?
Acute hypoglycemia
CNS-depressant drugs
Chronic hyperthyroidism
Hypoxia and hypercarbia
Chronic hyperthyroidism
302
Which of the following would provide you with the least amount of information about the emotional state of a 20-year-old male who will not respond to any of your questions?
Respirations
Pulse rate
Facial expression
Hair length
Hair length
303
As an AEMT, you may legally restrain a patient if he or she:
presents harm to you, your partner, or bystanders.
is acutely intoxicated and verbally abusive to you.
is under the influence of a CNS-depressant drug.
refuses to allow you to begin treatment or transport.
presents harm to you, your partner, or bystanders.
304
The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is:
financial setback.
marital discord.
recent loss of a job.
significant depression.
significant depression.
305
Things to watch for in potential violent patient all of the following except.
Quiet clear sentences.
Clenched fists.
Have they previous acted out during the call.
Staring intently.
Quiet clear sentences.
306
Which of the following findings does not indicate the potential for violence?
Withdrawn or detached
Uncoordinated movements
Agitated or depressed
Large physical body size
Large physical body size
307
You arrive at the residence of a young female who is experiencing an apparent psychotic episode. Law enforcement is on scene and has ensured that it is safe. You find the patient sitting in a chair, rocking back and forth. You should:
remain calm as you gently place your hand on her shoulder.
kneel down in front of the patient and ask her what is troubling her.
reassure her that everything will be okay and ask her if she can walk.
clearly identify yourself and your partner and tell her you are there to help.
clearly identify yourself and your partner and tell her you are there to help.
308
A behavioral crisis occurs when:
a reaction to an event interferes with daily living activities.
a person experiences stress without other people's knowledge.
an individual reacts violently when faced with danger.
an individual suppresses feelings of anger, guilt, or depression.
a reaction to an event interferes with daily living activities.
309
“Normal” behavior is basically classified as what:
your protocols dictate.
the patient perceives.
is acceptable by society.
is agreed upon by psychiatrists.
is acceptable by society.
310
When a patient is not mentally competent to grant consent for emergency medical care, consent to treat is:
implied.
expressed.
unanimous.
informed.
implied.
311
When performing your assessment of a 40-year-old male who is agitated and displaying bizarre behavior, you should:
have at least four personnel around the patient.
ask a police officer to assess the patient first.
put your hand on the patient's arm or shoulder.
limit the number of personnel around the patient.
limit the number of personnel around the patient.
312
Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would most likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph.
10
15
30
20
30
313
Which of the following is a guideline for safe ambulance driving?
If you park the ambulance facing traffic, keep your headlights on.
Do not turn on your siren if you have the emergency lights on.
Select the longest and least congested route to the scene.
Avoid driving down one-way streets whenever possible.
Avoid driving down one-way streets whenever possible.
314
Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped.
300
100
400
200
300
315
The least practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is:
on the ambulance stretcher.
in the driver's compartment.
near the side or rear door.
inside the jump kit.
in the driver's compartment
316
When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance:
100 feet past the scene on the same side of the road.
alongside the scene to rapidly access the patient(s).
50 feet before the scene on the same side of the road.
50 feet past the scene on the opposite side of the road.
100 feet past the scene on the same side of the road.
317
Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, except:
apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.
obtaining additional information from the dispatcher.
fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.
assigning tasks to each member of the response team.
apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.
318
You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should:
remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.
pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder.
quickly pass the vehicle on the left side.
use your public address (PA) system to alert the driver.
remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.
319
When a helicopter is used during nighttime operations, you should avoid:
directing light toward the ground at the landing site.
using any lights, whether on the ground or in the air.
placing flares within 25 feet of the aircraft after it has landed.
shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter.
shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter.
320
When a helicopter is used during nighttime operations, you should avoid:
shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter.
directing light toward the ground at the landing site.
placing flares within 25 feet of the aircraft after it has landed.
using any lights, whether on the ground or in the air.
shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter.
321
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:
sterilization.
high-level disinfection.
disinfection.
cleaning.
cleaning.
322
When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should:
approach the aircraft from the downhill side.
approach the aircraft from the uphill side.
attempt to approach the aircraft from behind.
move the patient to the aircraft as soon as it lands.
approach the aircraft from the downhill side.
323
The most common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at:
stop lights.
railroad crossings.
intersections.
stop signs.
intersections.
