Midterm

Question 1

Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH), which is a system of delivering health care that utilizes the prehospital spectrum, has evolved as a result of which piece of legislation, with the goal to facilitate improved access to health care at an affordable price?
The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
The Medical Practice Act
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

Answer 1

The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

Question 2

Who authorizes the authority for an AEMT to provide patient care in the field?
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
The EMS agency’s Medical Director
The state EMS office
The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT)

Answer 2

The EMS agency’s Medical Director

Question 3

In most states, a person may be denied certification as an AEMT if he or she:
is older than 45 years of age.
is certified in another state.
has been convicted of a felony.
is not a certified firefighter.

Answer 3

has been convicted of a felony.

Question 4

Helmets and seatbelts are an example of which of the following?
Primary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Quaternary prevention
Secondary prevention

Answer 4

Secondary prevention

Question 5

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
reassure your patient everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
demand that the patient be quiet and cooperative during transport.
ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.

Answer 5

continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

Question 6

What is the difference between certification and licensure?
Certification refers to the process of proving competency in providing care, whereas licensure refers to being granted a right to practice by an authority
Certification applies only to EMS providers, whereas licensure applies only to medical doctors
Certification refers to being granted a right to practice by an authority, whereas licensure refers to the process of proving competency in providing care
The two words refer to the same thing

Answer 6

Certification refers to the process of proving competency in providing care, whereas licensure refers to being granted a right to practice by an authority

Question 7

Which certification level requires 1000-2000 hours of class and internship time, contains a large number of advanced life support (ALS) skills, and is often associated with a college-level associate’s or bachelor’s degree?
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)
Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT)
Paramedic
Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)

Answer 7

Paramedic

Question 8

Which of the following scenarios does not involve an ALS skill?
Applying oxygen and injecting a medication
Performing CPR and using a manual defibrillator
Using an AED and performing rescue breathing
Administering oxygen and starting an IV

Answer 8

Using an AED and performing rescue breathing

Question 9

A circular system of ongoing internal and external reviews is known as:
retrospective patient care analysis.
quarterly audits of EMS systems.
advanced life support review.
continuous quality improvement.

Answer 9

continuous quality improvement.

Question 10

AEMT training follows National EMS Education Standards, as recommended by the:
state EMS office or EMS regulatory agency.
National Registry of EMTs.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.
National Association of EMTs.

Answer 10

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.

Question 11

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) involves all of the following components, except:
discussion of needs for improvement.
negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call.
periodic review of run reports.
remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director.

Answer 11

negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call.

Question 12

Being aware and thoughtful about the needs of your patient describes the attribute of:
patient advocacy.
sympathy.
empathy.
integrity.

Answer 12

empathy.

Question 13

To become a licensed AEMT, a candidate must:
obtain permission from the state in which he or she will function.
have been a licensed EMT for a period of at least 3 years.
successfully complete a healthcare provider CPR course.
be capable of lifting and carrying at least 150 pounds.

Answer 13

successfully complete a healthcare provider CPR course.

Question 14

Which of the following certification levels has the least depth and breadth of knowledge and the most restrictive scope of practice?
Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT)
Paramedic
Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)

Answer 14

Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)

Question 15

Critical incident stress management is a program designed to:
debrief press and media on details of a critical incident.
evaluate personnel performance during a critical incident.
confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.
investigate civilian complaints during a critical incident.

Answer 15

confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.

Question 16

he 5 Stages of Grieving include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Overcoming
Bargaining
Acceptance
Denial

Answer 16

Overcoming

Question 17

The aspects of critical incident stress management (CISM) do NOT include:
One-on-one crisis intervention
Family crisis intervention
Emergency funding
Pre-crisis preparation

Answer 17

Emergency funding

Question 18

During a crisis, you are able to focus and function, but after things have calmed down, you are left with nervous, excited energy that continues to build and becomes a distraction. This is an example of which type of stress reaction?
Prolonged stress reaction
Acute stress reaction
Cumulative stress reaction
Delayed stress reaction

Answer 18

Delayed stress reaction

Question 19

Warning signs of stress include which of the following?
Increased sexual drive
Willingness to work extra shifts
Indecisiveness
Increased appetite

Answer 19

Indecisiveness

Question 20

You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement “He has a gun!” At this point, you should:
carefully enter the apartment to assess for injured patients.
stay where you are and ask the person to drop the weapon.
call for law enforcement and carefully enter the apartment.
retreat immediately and call for law enforcement assistance.

Answer 20

retreat immediately and call for law enforcement assistance.

Question 21

Which of the following bodily fluids has the least chance of transmitting an infectious disease?
Cerebrospinal fluid
Blood
Amniotic fluid
Saliva

Answer 21

Saliva

Question 22

When you suction a patient’s airway, the minimum personal protective equipment the AEMT should wear is:
gloves, eye protection, and a face shield.
gloves, a HEPA respirator, and a gown.
examination gloves only.
gloves and eye protection.

Answer 22

gloves, eye protection, and a face shield.

Question 23

The AEMT should wear double gloves when caring for a patient who:
is coughing and has a history of tuberculosis.
is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration.
has widespread abrasions and capillary bleeding.
is infected with HIV or hepatitis B.

Answer 23

is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration.

Question 24

Which of the following is not a typical warning sign of stress?
Increased appetite
Isolation
Irritability toward coworkers
Inability to concentrate

Answer 24

Increased appetite

Question 25

Your department has been short-handed. You have willingly stepped up to help cover needed shifts but find yourself becoming overworked, tired, and stressed. You should:
Relax after each shift with several beers and pizza
Talk with your supervisor about you starting to become burned out and cut back on your overtime hours
Take a couple “personal days” by calling in sick
Power through, everyone has been working hard and the department needs you

Answer 25

Talk with your supervisor about you starting to become burned out and cut back on your overtime hours

Question 26

Critical incident stress management is a program designed to:
investigate civilian complaints during a critical incident.
debrief press and media on details of a critical incident.
evaluate personnel performance during a critical incident.
confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.

Answer 26

Confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.

Question 27

ou arrive at the scene of an overturned semi-trailer truck. There is an odd odor in the air and you can see material leaking from the truck. After ensuring that fire department and law enforcement personnel are notified, you should:
rapidly extricate the driver from the truck.
carefully assess the driver of the truck.
decontaminate the driver of the truck.
use binoculars to try to read the placard.

Answer 27

use binoculars to try to read the placard.

Question 28

While caring for a 40-year-old male with shortness of breath and a history of tuberculosis, the AEMT should place a:
surgical mask on him- or herself and a nasal cannula on the patient.
HEPA respirator on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.
HEPA respirator on the patient and a surgical mask on him- or herself.
surgical mask on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.

Answer 28

HEPA respirator on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.

Question 29

Inhaling which by-product of combustion, in sufficiently high concentrations, causes signs and symptoms of shock and severe hypoxia leading to death?
Cyanide
Asbestos
Carbon monoxide
Carbon dioxide

Answer 29

Cyanide

Question 30

What does the root word “gastr” mean?
pancreas
liver
lungs
stomach

Answer 30

stomach

Question 31

What color is referred to with the root word “melan”?
red
black
yellow-orange
blue

Answer 31

black

Question 32

Myasthenia means:
muscle weakness.
heart weakening.
muscle paralysis.
heart enlargement.

Answer 32

muscle weakness.

Question 33

What does the positional prefix “para-“ mean?
near, beside, beyond, apart from
to, toward
out, outside
inside, within

Answer 33

near, beside, beyond, apart from

Question 34

What does the positional prefix “sub-“ mean?
under, beneath
away from
outside, in addition
above

Answer 34

under, beneath

Question 35

A patient who was stung on the left leg by a scorpion develops a rash on the ipsilateral side. This means that the rash is:
on the right side of the body.
above and below the sting.
to the left and right of the sting.
on the left side of the body.

Answer 35

on the left side of the body.

Question 36

A patient has a condition called dextrocardia. This means that:
the heart is abnormally inverted in the chest.
the coronary arteries are abnormally dilated.
the coronary arteries are abnormally narrowed.
the heart is on the right side of the chest.

Answer 36

the heart is on the right side of the chest.

Question 37

The wrist is ________ to the elbow.
medial
lateral
distal
proximal

Answer 37

distal

Question 38

What does the prefix “pre-“ mean?
rapid, fast
slow
before
after

Answer 38

before

Question 39

What does the prefix “hypo-“ mean?
slow
over, excessive, high
under, below normal, low
rapid, fast

Answer 39

under, below normal, low

Question 40

One meter equals how many millimeters?
1,000
100
10
10,000

Answer 40

1,000

Question 41

What color is referred to with the root word “poli”?
black
white
gray
green

Answer 41

gray

Question 42

The prefix ortho- means:
deform.
forward.
straight.
bone.

Answer 42

straight.

Question 43

hat does the root word “cardi” mean?
liver
heart
lungs
kidney

Answer 43

heart

Question 44

Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that:
is moved in or out of the lungs following maximal expiration.
is exhaled from the lungs following a forceful exhalation.
remains in the lungs following expiration.
is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.

Answer 44

is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.

Question 45

Calcitonin is secreted by the:
adrenal glands.
parathyroid glands.
pituitary gland.
thyroid gland.

Answer 45

Correct Answer
pituitary gland.

Question 46

What occurs during the initial phase of hemostasis?
Thromboplastin activates clotting proteins.
Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
Fibrin binds to a platelet plug and forms a clot.
Local vasoconstriction and platelet activation occur.

Answer 46

Local vasoconstriction and platelet activation occur.

Question 47

The first cervical vertebra (C1), referred to as the _______, articulates with the occipital condyles at the base of the skull at the atlanto-occipital joint?
dens
axis
atlas
odontoid

Answer 47

atlas

Question 48

The pneumotaxic center is located in the _______, and functions by _______.
pons; inhibiting the dorsal respiratory group and increasing the speed and depth of breathing
medulla oblongata; causing inspiration when stimulated
medulla oblongata; causing forced inspiration or expiration
pons; exciting the dorsal respiratory group, prolonging inspiration, and decreasing the respiratory rate

Answer 48

pons; inhibiting the dorsal respiratory group and increasing the speed and depth of breathing

Question 49

The ilium is defined as the:
lower part of the small intestine.
structure that overlies the bladder.
ligament that overlies the femoral vessels.
bony prominence of the pelvis.

Answer 49

bony prominence of the pelvis.

Question 50

Cardiac output is equal to:
blood pressure multiplied by heart rate.
stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.
systole minus diastole.
heart rate minus systolic blood pressure.
.

Answer 50

stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.

Question 51

The heart’s primary pacemaker, which is located in the right atrium, is the:
bundle of His.
AV node.
AV junction.
SA node

Answer 51

SA node

Question 52

Stimulation of alpha receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in:
bronchodilation.
tachycardia.
peripheral vasodilation.
peripheral vasoconstriction.

Answer 52

peripheral vasoconstriction.

Question 53

he term inotropy refers to the:
control of electrical conduction.
strength of myocardial contraction.
rate of cardiac contraction.
degree of ventricular irritability.

Answer 53

strength of myocardial contraction.

Question 54

Which of the following statements regarding interstitial fluid is correct?
It accounts for approximately 30% of total body weight.
It is equal to approximately 15% to 20% of total body weight.
It is located in the extracellular space and in between the cells.
It is located within the blood vessels in the form of plasma.

Answer 54

It is located in the extracellular space and in between the cells.

Question 55

How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum?
8
12
6
10

Answer 55

10

Question 56

Which of the following is not a peripheral pulse in the adult?
Femoral
Brachial
Popliteal
Radial

Answer 56

Femoral

Question 57

Which organs are located primarily in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen?
Stomach and spleen
Large intestine
Stomach, spleen and gallbladder
Liver and kidney

Answer 57

Stomach and spleen

Question 58

The myocardium is the only muscle that can generate its own electrical impulses. This process is called:
dromotropy.
excitability.
conductivity.
automaticity.

Answer 58

automaticity.

Question 59

A certified AEMT is a prehospital care provider who has:
been granted permission to engage in emergency medical care.
met certain predetermined standards to ensure safe and ethical practice.
received authorization to practice from the local EMS administrator.
the authority to practice emergency medicine without physician oversight.

Answer 59

met certain predetermined standards to ensure safe and ethical practice.

Question 60

A direct relationship between a patient’s injury and the AEMT’s actions or inactions is called:
slander.
libel.
gross negligence.
proximate cause.

Answer 60

proximate cause.

Question 61

You respond to the home of a 75-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest. The family states that the patient is terminally ill and has an advance directive; however, they are unable to locate it. How should you manage this situation?
Initiate full resuscitative measures and transport promptly.
Allow the family to locate the document and then decide on further action.
Honor the family’s wishes and call the coroner.
Begin CPR and contact medical control.

Answer 61

Begin CPR and contact medical control.

Question 62

Which of the following is the definition of “scope of practice”?
An outline of the care that an AEMT is authorized to provide
A set of rules that define what level of training an AEMT must receive
Written, acceptable levels of care written by legal or professional organizations
The number of times an AEMT must perform a skill before being passed off by an instructor in their EMT program

Answer 62

An outline of the care that an AEMT is authorized to provide

Question 63

What must be true before a patient is considered capable of consenting to or refusing treatment?
The patient must be under the age of 18
The patient must not exhibit any signs/symptoms of a heart attack
The patient must exhibit decision-making capacity
The patient must have been the one who placed the 911 call

Answer 63

The patient must exhibit decision-making capacity

Question 64

You arrive at the scene of a 34-year-old woman with abdominal pain. As you begin talking to the patient, she extends her arm to allow your partner to take her blood pressure. What type of consent is this patient’s action consistent with?
Informed consent
Passive consent
Expressed consent
Implied consent

Answer 64

Expressed consent

Question 65

The Good Samaritan law is designed to afford legal protection for providers who:
act inconsistently with the standard of care.
accept payment in exchange for providing care.
provide good faith care while not on duty.
exceed their respective scope of practice.

Answer 65

provide good faith care while not on duty.

Question 66

What are standing orders?
A set of guidelines that are produced and signed by the medical director, authorizing specific care for certain situations
Instructions provided by a local physician which outlines the training that an AEMT must have in order to gain licensure
Procedures for which the medical director must provide direct authorization over the phone or radio
A document written by OSHA that outlines how many hours an AEMT is allowed to work consecutively

Answer 66

A set of guidelines that are produced and signed by the medical director, authorizing specific care for certain situations

Question 67

Which of the following information is not considered confidential?
The time of dispatch
Treatment provided
Patient history
Assessment findings

Answer 67

The time of dispatch

Question 68

In most states, a minor can be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to emergency care and transport if he or she is:
at least 16 years old.
in possession of a valid driver’s license.
living with his or her parents.
in the armed forces.

Answer 68

in the armed forces.

Question 69

Which principle, also known as the emergency doctrine, allows EMS personnel to act in critical situations without danger of recrimination?
Implied consent
Expressed consent
Verbal consent
Informed consent

Answer 69

Implied consent

Question 70

The manner in which you are required to act or behave while providing emergency care is called:
standard of care.
local protocol adherence.
scope of practice.
duty to act.

Answer 70

standard of care.

Question 71

Which of the following situations is not one that may require special mandatory reporting?
Childbirth
Injury during commission of a felony
All of the following are situations that may require mandatory reporting, depending on local laws
Suspected or witnessed child abuse

Answer 71

All of the following are situations that may require mandatory reporting, depending on local laws

Question 72

What could an AEMT be charged with if they terminate care without the patient’s consent or without handing care off to another medical professional of equal or greater competence?
Kidnapping
Abandonment
Battery
Slander

Answer 72

Abandonment

Question 73

Any radio hardware that contains a transmitter and receiver and is located in a fixed location is called a:
repeater.
base station.
dedicated line.
UHF receiver.

Answer 73

base station.

Question 74

Your assessment of a 40-year-old male with an altered mental status (AMS) reveals the obvious odor of alcohol on his breath. When documenting the events of the call, you should state that:
the patient’s blood alcohol concentration is high.
alcohol cannot be ruled out as the cause of his AMS.
the smell of alcohol was noted on the patient’s breath.
the patient appeared to be acutely intoxicated.

Answer 74

the smell of alcohol was noted on the patient’s breath.

Question 75

A child is brought into the emergency department with red marks on his back from a traditional Asian healing practice called “coining.” The treating physician accuses the parents of poor parenting and insists their practices are harmful, although they are not. This accusation reflects which of the following?
Malfeasance
Cultural imposition
Self-awareness
Empathy

Answer 75

Cultural imposition

Question 76

When communicating with your patient, you want to place yourself:
Sitting next to them
At eye level
Standing next to them
Outside of arms reach

Answer 76

At eye level

Question 77

You must be careful when speaking to the family members about a patient because:
the patient may misinterpret what you said.
it is a violation of the patient’s rights.
the family may sue you for slander.
they are not a reliable source of information.

Answer 77

the patient may misinterpret what you said

Question 78

A 66-year-old female’s daughter called EMS because her mother was having chest pain. When you arrive, the patient states that she does not need EMS and will not go to the hospital on her own. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented and will not sign a refusal form. You should:
have your partner sign the form verifying the patient’s refusal.
have the daughter sign the form verifying her mother’s refusal.
sign the refusal form yourself and document any care given.
advise the patient that the law requires her to sign the refusal form.

Answer 78

have the daughter sign the form verifying her mother’s refusal.

Question 79

When communicating with medical control, you are able to speak to the physician and send an ECG tracing at the same time. What type of radio system is required to do this?
Uniplex system
Simplex system
Trunking system
Full duplex mode

Answer 79

Full duplex mode

Question 80

The National EMS Information System (NEMSIS) has identified minimum data to be included in a patient care report. Which of the following is not included in the minimum data?
Level of consciousness or mental status
Chief complaint and vital signs
Time and date that you were dispatched
Weather forecast at the time of dispatch

Answer 80

Weather forecast at the time of dispatch

Question 81

You are dispatched to a residence for a 5-year-old child with a fever. During your assessment, the child becomes irritable and starts crying. You should:
encourage a parent or caregiver to hold the child.
ask the parent or caregiver to leave the room.
carefully restrain the child and continue your assessment.
limit your assessment to a visual inspection of the child.

Answer 81

encourage a parent or caregiver to hold the child.

Question 82

Which of the following statements regarding age, culture, and personal experience is correct?
Generally speaking, a person’s age has little or no influence on their behavior.
The thoughts of people are greatly influenced by their personal experiences.
An elderly person with chronic pain usually cannot cope with their condition.
Regardless of culture, people are taught to openly express their emotions.

Answer 82

The thoughts of people are greatly influenced by their personal experiences.

Question 83

After medical control has ordered you to start an IV and administer normal saline at 125 mL/hr, you should:
question the order if it seems inappropriate.
repeat the order, word for word.
document the physician’s name.
administer the medication as ordered.

Answer 83

repeat the order, word for word.

Question 84

Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
“Does anything make your shortness of breath better or worse?”
“Does your shortness of breath get worse when you lie down?”
“Have you been seen by a physician for your abdominal pain?”
“Do you have a history of heart problems, diabetes, or stroke?”

Answer 84

“Does anything make your shortness of breath better or worse?”

Question 85

When you first approach your patient, you should use which type of questions as they allow a free flow of conversation?
Leading questions
Open-ended questions
Closed-ended questions
Rhetorical questions

Answer 85

Open-ended questions

Question 86

You are assessing a middle-aged man who complains of nausea and a headache. Before you physically move closer to him, it is important to remember that:
a greater sense of trust must be established first.
he will take this as a sign of your compassion.
eye contact will likely make him uncomfortable.
most people’s intimate space is between 18 inches and 4 feet.

Answer 86

a greater sense of trust must be established first.

Question 87

When assessing an anxious 55-year-old male with chest pain, you should:
use medical terms to ensure he understands.
avoid eye contact to minimize anxiety.
ask him how he prefers to be addressed.
avoid unpleasant answers to his questions.

Answer 87

ask him how he prefers to be addressed.

Question 88

All patient moves should be:
Done with special equipment
Done in coordination with your team
Done fast and fluidly
Executed on the count of 3

Answer 88

Done in coordination with your team

Question 89

When would the use of an emergency move be most applicable?
When you don’t have enough man power
When the patient complains of neck and back pain
When the scene has become unsafe
When the patient is unresponsive

Answer 89

When the scene has become unsafe

Question 90

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should:
direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient’s head.
slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.
apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.
apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient.

Answer 90

direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient’s head.

Question 91

he direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
with multiple long bone injuries.
from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
with a possible cervical spine injury.
who cannot be placed on a backboard.

Answer 91

from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.

Question 92

In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the most appropriate method of moving a patient?
A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall
An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke
A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car

Answer 92

A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain

Question 93

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient:
without a spinal injury.
with forearm lacerations.
who complains of nausea.
with a deformed humerus.

Answer 93

with a deformed humerus.

Question 94

A folding or portable stretcher is most beneficial when:
an injured patient cannot be placed on a long board due to severe back pain.
a conscious, alert patient must be carried down several flights of steep stairs.
a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.
a patient requires full spinal immobilization when spinal injury is suspected.

Answer 94

a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.

Question 95

When carrying a patient on a backboard up or down stairs:
carry the patient headfirst.
keep the head end elevated.
keep the foot end elevated.
keep your palms facing down.

Answer 95

keep the head end elevated.

Question 96

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated?
A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock.
The AEMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.
A significant mechanism of injury is involved.
The AEMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle.

Answer 96

The AEMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards

Question 97

Urgent moves are used under which circumstances?
When there is more than one patient
When the patient has an altered LOC
When the patient’s vehicle is on fire
When the patient is bleeding

Answer 97

When the patient has an altered LOC

Question 98

Moving a patient when spinal precautions are being taken should always be coordinated by who?
Your captain
Whoever is in charge of patient care
The person who is moving most of the weight
The person maintain cervical spinal stabilization

Answer 98

The person maintain cervical spinal stabilization

Question 99

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
flex at the waist instead of the hips.
avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.
use a direct carry whenever possible.
keep the weight close to your body.

Answer 99

keep the weight close to your body.

Question 100

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
with multiple long bone injuries.
who cannot be placed on a backboard.
from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
with a possible cervical spine injury.

Answer 100

from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.

Question 101

When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the:
spinal column.
shoulder girdle.
pelvic girdle.
thigh muscles.

Answer 101

shoulder girdle.

Question 102

When lifting a patient, you should always remember:
Keep your back straight
Bend at the waist
Keep your legs straight
Have a firm grip with palms facing down

Answer 102

Keep your back straight

Question 103

A 29-year-old female experiences shortness of breath, urticaria, and bilateral wheezing shortly after you start an IV of normal saline. How should you manage this situation?
Place her on her left side with her head down.
Change the IV tubing and continue the IV.
Leave the catheter in place and remove the solution.
Discontinue the IV and remove the catheter.

Answer 103

Leave the catheter in place and remove the solution.

Question 104

A stable patient requires an IV line in the event that medication therapy is needed. When selecting the appropriate vein, you should first attempt to cannulate the:
antecubital vein.
lateral forearm vein.
medial forearm vein.
vein on the hand.

Answer 104

vein on the hand.

Question 105

Which type of IV solutions may be needed for a patient on dialysis when diuretic therapy dehydrates the cells?
Crystalloid solutions
Hypertonic solutions
Hypotonic solutions
Isotonic solutions

Answer 105

Hypotonic solutions

Question 106

Which of the following is an example of an AEMT medication administered via the buccal route?
Saline
Glucose
Epinephrine
Nitroglycerin

Answer 106

Glucose

Question 107

An intraosseous line should be inserted in a critical patient if:
vascular access is not needed for fluid administration.
the patient will require a whole blood transfusion.
you cannot establish IV access within six attempts.
IV access cannot be achieved within 90 seconds.

Answer 107

IV access cannot be achieved within 90 seconds.

Question 108

Reconstituting a drug, such as glucagon, involves:
placing at least 10 mL of saline into a vial that contains powdered medication.
injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.
injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that contains liquid medication.
diluting a medication with at least 20 mL of saline prior to administration.

Answer 108

injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.

Question 109

What physiologic response causes a vasovagal reaction?
Vasoconstriction and a decrease in blood pressure
Vasoconstriction and an increase in heart rate
Vasodilation and an increase in blood pressure
Vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure

Answer 109

Vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure

Question 110

A microdrip administration set features a small, needle-like orifice inside the drip chamber and delivers:
100 gtt/mL.
15 gtt/mL.
60 gtt/mL.
10 gtt/mL.

Answer 110

60 gtt/mL.

Question 111

What role does phosphorus play in the body?
It is the principle cation needed for bone development.
It is an important component in the formation of adenosine triphosphate.
It is responsible for the distribution of water throughout the body.
It is the primary buffer in the body.

Answer 111

It is an important component in the formation of adenosine triphosphate.

Question 112

Once the “pigtail” that covers the access port of a bag of IV fluid has been removed, the fluid must be used:
within 36 hours.
within 24 hours.
immediately.
within 12 hours.

Answer 112

immediately.

Question 113

In order to prevent catheter shear when starting an IV, you should:
never rethread the needle into the catheter.
use an 18-gauge or smaller catheter.
insert the IV in a vein where the catheter cannot bend.
place the patient on their side prior to starting the IV.

Answer 113

never rethread the needle into the catheter.

Question 114

Which of the following represents a “standard” drug dose?
0.25 mg/kg
1 mg
0.5 g/kg
1 mg/kg

Answer 114

1 mg

Question 115

After administration, D5W is quickly metabolized and the solution becomes:
protonic.
hypotonic.
isotonic.
hypertonic.

Answer 115

hypotonic.

Question 116

Common sites for intraosseous cannulation include all of the following, except the:
lateral femur.
humerus.
proximal tibia
sternum.

Answer 116

lateral femur.

Question 117

While starting an IV on a patient, you see bright red blood quickly traveling up the IV tubing. You should:
secure the IV line and apply direct pressure.
lower the IV bag to ensure viability of the IV line.
evaluate the puncture site for signs of infiltration.
remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.

Answer 117

remove the catheter and apply direct pressure

Question 118

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:
upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.
as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.
once the patient’s baseline vital signs are known.
after the primary assessment has been completed.

Answer 118

after the primary assessment has been completed.

Question 119

Which of the following medications would the AEMT be least likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?
Aspirin
Naloxone
Atropine
Albuterol

Answer 119

Atropine

Question 120

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:
contact medical control.
quickly access the patient.
take standard precautions.
notify law enforcement.

Answer 120

take standard precautions.

Question 121

Factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA include:
failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis.
prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.
a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks.
prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Answer 121

prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.

Question 122

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:
is not as complex for the AEMT, because most patients typically present with classic symptoms.
almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem.
requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems.
is focused on the nature of illness, the patient’s chief complaint, and the patient’s symptoms.

Answer 122

is focused on the nature of illness, the patient’s chief complaint, and the patient’s symptoms.

Question 123

Jaundice is a sign of what kind of infection?
Influenza
Hepatitis
Herpes simplex
HIV

Answer 123

Hepatitis

Question 124

Which type of hepatitis is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis D

Answer 124

Hepatitis A

Question 125

All of the following are true regarding responding to a medical call, EXCEPT:
Many medical calls do not involve life-threatening conditions and therefore do not require lights and sirens
Medical calls should never include a head-to-toe assessment
Medical calls can often take longer on-scene than trauma calls
Sometimes the nearest hospital is not the best choice for a medical patient

Answer 125

Medical calls should never include a head-to-toe assessment

Question 126

Kidney stones are an example of what type of medical condition?
Urologic
Hematologic
Neurologic
Gastrointestinal

Answer 126

Urologic

Question 127

Index of suspicion is most accurately defined as:
your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms.
determining the underlying cause of a patient’s medical condition based on signs and symptoms.
your prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched.

Answer 127

your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.

Question 128

For which of the following types of hepatitis is the route of infection fecal or oral?
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E

Answer 128

Hepatitis A

Question 129

You and your partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary survey reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:
manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation, and consider requesting a paramedic unit.
administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.
perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly.
load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.

Answer 129

manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation, and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

Question 130

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:
reassessing the nature of the illness.
repeating the primary survey.
taking another set of vital signs.
reviewing all treatment performed.

Answer 130

repeating the primary survey.

Question 131

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having:
tuberculosis.
meningitis.
hantavirus.
hepatitis.

Answer 131

meningitis.

Question 132

Upon encountering an ill patient with a recent travel history, you should:
contact medical control.
place a mask on the patient.
don two pairs of gloves.
transport immediately.

Answer 132

place a mask on the patient.

Question 133

In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
becomes acutely anxious at the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings.
reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net.
clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted.
shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.

Answer 133

shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.

Question 134

Which of the following is defined as the reflex that happens when a neonate is startled and makes them open their arms wide, spread their fingers, and perform a grabbing motion?
Palmar grasp reflex
Rooting reflex
Moro reflex
Sucking reflex

Answer 134

Moro reflex

Question 135

More than 60% of people older than 65 have atherosclerosis. What is atherosclerosis?
A. A condition where cholesterol builds up inside the walls of blood vessels
B. A condition where the joints become stiff, painful, and inflamed
C. A condition where the bones become less dense and more porous
D. A condition where the heart cannot adequately pump blood, causing fluid buildup in the lungs

Answer 135

A. A condition where cholesterol builds up inside the walls of blood vessels

Question 136

Breathing is often more labor intensive in older adults because the:
overall size of the airway decreases.
surface area of the alveoli increases.
diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge.
elasticity of the lungs decreases.

Answer 136

elasticity of the lungs decreases.

Question 137

Changes in sleep patterns experienced by elderly patients are mostly caused by:
a loss of neurons in the brain.
decreased metabolism in the brain.
decreased brain size.
medication interactions.

Answer 137

a loss of neurons in the brain.

Question 138

Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
An infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s.
An infant’s head accounts for less body weight than an adult’s.
The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult’s.
The ribcage of an infant is less flexible than an adult’s.

Answer 138

An infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s.

Question 139

Which type of psychosocial attachment is exhibited by an infant that shows little emotional response to their parents or caregivers and treat them like they are strangers?
Secure attachment
Caregiver attachments
Anxious-avoidant attachment
None of the above

Answer 139

Anxious-avoidant attachment

Question 140

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the early adolescent age group?
The normal pulse rate steadily increases.
Secondary sexual development begins.
The systolic blood pressure decreases.
Muscle and bone growth both decrease.

Answer 140

Secondary sexual development begins.

Question 141

In which type of reasoning do children act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want?
Postconventional reasoning
Cognitive reasoning
Preconventional reasoning
Conventional reasoning

Answer 141

Preconventional reasoning

Question 142

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue.
Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.
Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.

Answer 142

Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.

Question 143

The high normal body temperature for an infant is:
99.6
100.3
98.5
97.9

Answer 143

99.6

Question 144

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
21 and 30 years.
19 and 25 years.
25 and 35 years.
18 and 22 years.

Answer 144

19 and 25 years

Question 145

Age-related changes in the renal system result in:
a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.
the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%.
a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body.
dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function.

Answer 145

a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

Question 146

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is most directly related to:
shrinkage of the brain.
a decrease in neurons.
meningeal deterioration.
blood vessel dilation.

Answer 146

shrinkage of the brain.

Question 147

Aging is often associated with diminished proprioception, which is defined as:
the ability to know where various parts of the body are located in relation to each other.
the movement of the small bones in the middle ear, which transmits sound to the inner ear.
the ability to involuntarily preserve body heat through vasoconstriction of the peripheral vessels.
the amount of time it takes the skin to sense a stimulus and the brain to respond accordingly.

Answer 147

the ability to know where various parts of the body are located in relation to each other.

Question 148

What protective function does the Hering-Breuer reflex serve?
It prevents atrophy of the respiratory muscles.
It prevents collapse of the alveoli.
It prevents overexpansion of the lungs.
It protects the abdominal organs when the diaphragm descends.

Answer 148

It prevents overexpansion of the lungs.

Question 149

Which of the following signs is most indicative of adequate breathing in an adult?
Shallow depth of breathing
An altered mental status
Avoidance of a supine position
Respirations of 20 breaths/min

Answer 149

Respirations of 20 breaths/min

Question 150

When the diaphragm moves downward, what happens?
It relaxes, causing exhalation
It contracts, causing exhalation
It relaxes, causing inhalation
It contracts, causing inhalation

Answer 150

It contracts, causing inhalation

Question 151

When ventilation is compromised but perfusion continues:
the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen, but it cannot diffuse into the blood.
blood passes over some alveolar membranes without gas exchange taking place.
more CO2 diffuses across the pulmonary capillary membrane and is eliminated.
air movement into and out of the lungs is adequate, but diffusion is impaired.

Answer 151

blood passes over some alveolar membranes without gas exchange taking place.

Question 152

Slow, shallow, irregular respirations or occasional gasps are most indicative of:
intracranial pressure.
narcotic drug overdose.
cerebral anoxia.
brainstem injury.

Answer 152

cerebral anoxia.

Question 153

The condition in which the alveoli collapse is called:
pneumothorax.
atelectasis.
bronchitis.
pleuritis.

Answer 153

atelectasis

Question 154

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) increases when:
a patient is hyperventilated with a bag-mask device.
excessive carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma.
carbon dioxide moves across the pulmonary capillaries.
a person’s respiratory rate is significantly increased.

Answer 154

excessive carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma.

Question 155

Partial pressure is the term used to describe the amount of gas that is:
in venous blood.
in arterial blood.
exchanged in the lungs.
dissolved in fluid.

Answer 155

dissolved in fluid

Question 156

The entire process of inspiration is focused on delivering oxygen to which structures?
Pleura
Bronchioles
Bronchi
Alveoli

Answer 156

Alveoli

Question 157

When using the bag-mask device to ventilate an apneic patient who has dentures, you should:
periodically reassess the airway to ensure the dentures are not loose.
avoid the use of an oropharyngeal airway because this may dislodge the dentures.
remove the dentures, even if they are tight-fitting, and insert a King airway.
leave loose dentures in place in order to maintain a better mask seal.

Answer 157

periodically reassess the airway to ensure the dentures are not loose.

Question 158

Which action could be a compensatory response of the body to a decrease in the pH of the blood, such as what occurs with hyperglycemic ketoacidosis or aspirin overdose?
Hypocapnia
Hypoventilation
Hyperventilation
Hypercapnia

Answer 158

Hyperventilation

Question 159

What do snoring respirations in an unconscious patient indicate?
Severe upper airway obstruction from a foreign body
Spasm of the larynx and closure of the vocal cords
Blood or other secretions in the upper airway
Partial occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue

Answer 159

Partial occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue

Question 160

When your suction tube is clamped it should generate a vacuum pressure of at least:
300 mmHg
150 mmHg
500 mmHg
350 mmHg

Answer 160

300 mmHg

Question 161

The normal respiration rate for a child is:
12-20
15-30
25-50
8-18

Answer 161

15-30

Question 162

In order for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to be beneficial, the patient must:
weigh more than 110 pounds.
not have a history of asthma.
have a slow respiratory rate.
be able to follow commands.

Answer 162

be able to follow commands.

Question 163

Which of the following is a late sign of tension pneumothorax?
Muffled heart sounds
Tracheal deviation
Jugular venous distention
Cyanosis

Answer 163

Tracheal deviation

Question 164

Shock is also known as:
Hypoxia
Hypothermia
Hyperperfusion
Hypoperfusion

Answer 164

Hypoperfusion

Question 165

Why does the clinical presentation of neurogenic shock differ from that of hypovolemic shock?
Profound stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system occurs.
The vascular space is relatively smaller compared to the blood volume.
Spinal cord injury stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system.
The sympathetic nervous system does not release catecholamines.

Answer 165

The sympathetic nervous system does not release catecholamines.

Question 166

There are three main causes of shock. They include:
Blood loss, allergic reactions and trauma
Pump failure, poor vessel function and low fluid volume
Tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade and pulmonary embolism
Septic, anaphylactic and neurogenic

Answer 166

Pump failure, poor vessel function and low fluid volume

Question 167

Definitive signs of anaphylactic shock are:
Localized itching, redness, swelling
Positive exposure to an allergen, localized swelling
Positive exposure to an allergen, low blood pressure and respiratory distress
Wheezing, pedal edema, tracheal deviation

Answer 167

Positive exposure to an allergen, low blood pressure and respiratory distress

Question 168

You and your partner Jose respond to the home of a 58-year-old male. Upon arrival, his wife tells you that he had chest pain that started 3 days prior and has now just been feeling under the weather, fatigued, and it has become increasingly hard to breathe. Upon assessment, you find a blood pressure of 102/68, a pulse of 98, and crackling in the lungs. This patient is most likely suffering from:
Cardiogenic shock
Cardiac arrest
Distributive shock
Obstructive shock

Answer 168

Cardiogenic shock

Question 169

Your patient is a 29-year-old male who presents with signs and symptoms of shock. However, your assessment reveals no obvious external signs of injury. You should suspect:
a severe closed head injury.
bleeding within the chest.
an infectious condition.
intraabdominal bleeding.

Answer 169

intraabdominal bleeding.

Question 170

A patient who presents with hypotension, jugular venous distention, and tachycardia should be suspected of experiencing:
neurogenic shock.
obstructive shock.
distributive shock.
hypovolemic shock.

Answer 170

obstructive shock.

Question 171

You receive a call for a 66-year-old female who was found unresponsive by her husband. Your primary survey reveals that the patient is responsive to painful stimuli and has rapid, shallow respirations. Her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, and her pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular. The patient’s husband tells you that she complained of chest pressure the previous day, but would not allow him to call EMS. This patient is:
significantly hypovolemic and requires 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask as well as several crystalloid fluid boluses.
experiencing cardiogenic shock and requires assisted ventilation, IV therapy, and rapid transport.
in shock due to a cardiac dysrhythmia and requires assisted ventilation as well as a 2-liter bolus of an isotonic crystalloid.
likely experiencing an acute myocardial infarction. She requires 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and rapid transport.

Answer 171

experiencing cardiogenic shock and requires assisted ventilation, IV therapy, and rapid transport.

Question 172

Perfusion depends on adequate cardiac output, which is calculated as:
heart rate times stroke volume.
preload times heart rate.
afterload times blood pressure.
blood pressure minus heart rate.

Answer 172

heart rate times stroke volume.

Question 173

In which part of the assessment should you determine whether your patient may be in shock?
Scene size-up
Secondary assessment
Primary survey
History taking

Answer 173

Primary survey

Question 174

All of the following can lead to shock (hypoperfusion), except:
decreased contractility of the heart muscle.
inadequate oxygen in the arterial blood.
increased venous return to the right atrium.
decreased systemic vascular resistance.

Answer 174

increased venous return to the right atrium.

Question 175

Pulse oximetry readings are unreliable in patients who were exposed to which substance?
Asbestos
Carbon monoxide
Beryllium
Cyanide

Answer 175

Carbon monoxide

Question 176

The only truly effective prehospital treatment for a severe, acute allergic reaction is to administer which medication by way of intramuscular injection?
Epinephrine
Heparin
Naloxone
Nitroglycerin

Answer 176

Epinephrine

Question 177

Which of the following occurs during shock (hypoperfusion)?
Blood is diverted to the skin and gastrointestinal system.
Permanent brain damage occurs despite aggressive treatment.
All blood is shunted from other parts of the body to the kidneys.
The removal of metabolic waste products is decreased.

Answer 177

The removal of metabolic waste products is decreased.

Question 178

Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of:
obstruction of the airway.
a cardiac dysrhythmia.
an acute ischemic stroke.
severe blunt trauma.

Answer 178

a cardiac dysrhythmia.

Question 179

What is the proper depth for adult chest compressions?
2 to 2.4 inches
1 to 1.5 inches
0.5-1 inches
4 to 4.2 inches

Answer 179

2 to 2.4 inches

Question 180

During cardiac arrest, the resuscitation team should maintain a chest compression fraction of at least:
80%.
50%.
60%.
70%.

Answer 180

60%.

Question 181

Which of the following is NOT one of the five links of the chain of survival?
Immediate high-quality CPR
Early administration of nitroglycerin and aspirin
Basic and advanced EMS
Recognition/activation of EMS
ALS and postarrest care
Rapid defibrillation

Answer 181

Early administration of nitroglycerin and aspirin

Question 182

After an advanced airway has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should:
increase rescue breathing to a rate of 14 breaths/min.
deliver ventilations at a rate of 10 breaths/min.
pause compressions to deliver ventilations.
decrease the compression rate to about 80/min.

Answer 182

deliver ventilations at a rate of 10 breaths/min.

Question 183

You should deliver chest compressions to an adult patient in cardiac arrest by:
depressing the sternum between 1 inch and 2 inches.
placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid.
compressing over the lower half of the sternum.
compressing quickly and releasing slowly.

Answer 183

compressing over the lower half of the sternum

Question 184

The fourth link in the chain of survival includes:
immediate high-quality CPR.
basic and advanced EMS care.
activation of the EMS system.
postarrest care in the hospital.

Answer 184

basic and advanced EMS care.

Question 185

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during cardiac arrest, you should ventilate an infant or child:
by giving one breath every 5 to 6 seconds.
with greater force to enhance chest compressions.
by giving one breath every 2 to 3 seconds.
at a rate of at least 40 breaths/min.

Answer 185

by giving one breath every 2 to 3 seconds.

Question 186

In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression-to-ventilation ratio of:
5:2.
15:2.
30:2.
5:1.

Answer 186

30:2.

Question 187

When checking for a pulse on an infant, which artery should be used?
Carotid artery
Femoral artery
Radial artery
Brachial artery

Answer 187

Brachial artery

Question 188

During CPR, how long should each ventilation last?
8 seconds
10 seconds
5 seconds
1 second

Answer 188

1 second

Question 189

Which of the following is not a BLS intervention?
Abdominal thrusts
Chest compressions
Automated defibrillation
Cardiac monitoring

Answer 189

Cardiac monitoring

Question 190

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
respiratory arrest.
an ingested poison.
a cardiac dysrhythmia.
severe chest trauma.

Answer 190

respiratory arrest.

Question 191

During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
move to the opposite side of the patient’s chest.
give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
suction the patient’s mouth and give two more ventilations.

Answer 191

move to the opposite side of the patient’s chest.

Question 192

What is the correct ratio of compressions to breaths for two-rescuer infant CPR?
15:2
30:1
15:4
30:2

Answer 192

15:2

Question 193

Stridor and a seal-bark cough are hallmark signs of which of the following conditions?
Pneumonia
Epiglottitis
Bronchiolitis
Croup

Answer 193

Croup

Question 194

Which of the following symptoms line up with influenza type A?
Nausea, vomiting, fatigue, loss of appetite
Low-grade fever, “seal-bark” cough, stridor
Fever, cough, sore throat, muscle aches, headache, fatigue
Sudden onset sharp chest pain, tachycardia, dyspnea, clear breath sounds

Answer 194

Fever, cough, sore throat, muscle aches, headache, fatigue

Question 195

Signs and symptoms of: Asthma

Answer 195

Wheezing on ispiration/expiration, bronchospasms

Question 196

Signs and symptoms of: anaphylaxis

Answer 196

Flushed skin, hives, hypotension, wheezing or stridor

Question 197

Signs and symptoms of: bronchitis

Answer 197

Chronic cough with sputum, wheezing, cyanosis, tachypnea

Question 198

Signs and symptoms of: congestive heart failure

Answer 198

Dependent edema, cradles (pulmonary edema), orthopnea

Question 199

Signs and symptoms of: common cold

Answer 199

Cough, runny or stuffy nose, sore throat

Question 200

Signs and symptoms of: Croup

Answer 200

fever, seal-bark cough, stridor, mainly seen in pediatric patients

Question 201

Signs and symptoms of: Pertusssis

Answer 201

Coughing spells, “whooping” sound, fever

Question 202

Signs and symptoms of: pneumonia

Answer 202

Fever, chill, localized wheezing or crackles, cough, green- red- or rust colored sputum

Question 203

Signs and symptoms of: pneumothorax

Answer 203

Sudden chest pain or dyspnea, decreased breath sounds, subcutaneous emphysema, tracheal deviation and/or jugular vein distention (in severe cases)

Question 204

Signs and symptoms of: pulmonary embolism

Answer 204

Sudden onset, sharp chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, clear breath sounds

Question 205

In cases of pulmonary edema, diffusion is impaired primarily because of:
widespread atelectasis.
decreased cardiac contractility.
fluid-filled alveoli.
severe pulmonary vasoconstriction.

Answer 205

fluid-filled alveoli.

Question 206

You arrive on the scene of a 17-year-old male who is 6 foot 7 inches tall and had been lifting weights at the school gym when he suddenly developed dyspnea and a sharp, stabbing pain on the right side of his chest. Upon auscultation, you notice that his breath sounds are less clear on the right side than they are on the left. You should suspect:
An exercise-induced asthma attack
A pulmonary embolism
A spontaneous pneumothorax
An anaphylactic reaction

Answer 206

A spontaneous pneumothorax

Question 207

A 59-year-old female with a history of poorly controlled hypertension becomes acutely dyspneic, develops profound cyanosis to the upper chest, and becomes unresponsive. She is pulseless and apneic upon your arrival. As you and your partner are performing the appropriate treatment interventions, you discuss the possible cause of her condition, which is most likely a(n):
massive atraumatic hemothorax.
massive pulmonary embolism.
acute myocardial infarction.
large tension pneumothorax.

Answer 207

massive pulmonary embolism.

Question 208

he best definition of respiration is:
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
The amount of oxygen that is getting to the heart
The movement of air into and out of the lungs
The maximum volume of air that the lungs can hold

Answer 208

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

Question 209

When assessing the severity of nocturnal dyspnea in a patient with a chronic respiratory disease, you should determine:
how far he or she can walk before dyspnea occurs.
if he or she uses a beta2 agonist at least twice per day.
if he or she sleeps on the stomach or back.
how many pillows he or she sleeps with at night.

Answer 209

how many pillows he or she sleeps with at night.

Question 210

You are dispatched for an elderly male with dyspnea. When you arrive, you find the patient sitting in a chair. He is semiconscious and unable to effectively communicate with you. As you perform a primary survey, your partner applies 100% oxygen and a pulse oximeter, which reads 85%. The most reliable indicator of cerebral hypoxia in this patient is his:
decreased oxygen saturation.
inability to communicate.
mental status alteration.
complaint of dyspnea.

Answer 210

mental status alteration.

Question 211

What acid-base derangement initially occurs in a tachypneic patient without a physiologic demand for increased oxygen?
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis

Answer 211

Respiratory alkalosis

Question 212

Internal respiration is the gas exchange that occurs:
Between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart
Between the blood in the body’s capillaries and the surrounding tissues
Between the air in the bronchioles and the air in the alveoli
Between the air inside the alveoli and the capillaries surrounding them

Answer 212

Between the blood in the body’s capillaries and the surrounding tissues

Question 213

A 30-year-old male presents with respiratory distress that began within minutes of being exposed to an unknown chemical at an industrial site. When caring for this patient, it is most important to remember that:
he must be properly decontaminated first.
aggressive airway management may be needed.
inhalation injuries can cause aspiration pneumonia.
he will likely require frequent suctioning.

Answer 213

he must be properly decontaminated first.

Question 214

All of the following are commonly prescribed medications for patients with a respiratory disease, except:
Intal.
Singulair.
Beclovent.
Inderal.

Answer 214

Inderal.

Question 215

Emphysema is caused by:
surfactant destruction and increased alveolar surface tension.
widespread constriction of the bronchioles and air trapping.
cancerous changes in the smooth muscle of the bronchioles.
excessive mucous production by beta2 cells in the bronchi.

Answer 215

surfactant destruction and increased alveolar surface tension.

Question 216

When a healthy person’s carbon dioxide levels increase, the medulla of the brain automatically senses that and causes the person to:
Breathe more shallowly and at a slower rate
Breathe more deeply and at a faster rate
Breathe more shallowly and at a faster rate
Breathe more deeply and at a slower rate

Answer 216

Breathe more deeply and at a faster rate

Question 217

A 71-year-old man presents with shortness of breath, facial cyanosis, and a cough that is producing blood. His blood pressure is 144/92 mm Hg, pulse is 130 beats/min and irregular, and respirations are 28 breaths/min and labored. He is confused and is slow to follow your commands. You should:
assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device, begin transport, and consider establishing IV access en route to the hospital.
administer high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, place him in a position of comfort, insert a saline lock, and transport.
use CPAP to attempt to improve his breathing, insert a saline lock, transport, and be prepared to assist his ventilations.
insert a supraglottic airway device, ventilate him at a rate of 12 breaths/min, transport, and establish IV access en route to the hospital.

Answer 217

assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device, begin transport, and consider establishing IV access en route to the hospital.

Question 218

According to the Starling law of the heart:
increased venous return stretches the ventricles, resulting in increased contractility.
damage to the right ventricle causes blood to back up in the systemic circulation.
the cardiac muscle can generate its own electrical impulses without outside influence.
decreased venous return reduces the amount of blood delivered to the lungs.

Answer 218

increased venous return stretches the ventricles, resulting in increased contractility.

Question 219

From the right atrium, blood passes through which valve into the right ventricle?
Tricuspid valve
Aortic valve
Mitral valve
Pulmonic valve

Answer 219

Tricuspid valve

Question 220

Chronic pedal edema may indicate which of the following conditions?
Acute myocardial infarction
Right-sided heart failure
Left-sided heart failure
Dissecting aneurysm

Answer 220

Right-sided heart failure

Question 221

You are dispatched to a residence for a 4-year-old male who is not breathing. When you and your partner arrive at the scene, you find the child’s father is performing mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing on him. The father tells you that his son stuck a pin in an electrical socket. After assessing the child and determining that he is pulseless and apneic, you should:
request a paramedic unit to perform defibrillation.
perform CPR and insert a pediatric-sized Combitube.
begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.
perform CPR, immobilize his spine, and transport.

Answer 221

begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

Question 222

Which of the following is the most common cause of error when operating the AED?
Failure to ensure the batteries are charged
Failure of the internal analyzing mechanism
Failure of the AED’s internal memory card
Inappropriate placement of the chest pads

Answer 222

Failure to ensure the batteries are charged

Question 223

Following defibrillation with the AED, you have achieved return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in a 42-year-old man. However, he remains unresponsive and apneic. You continue to ventilate him and begin immediate transport to the hospital. En route, you reassess the patient and determine that he is in cardiac arrest. You should:
analyze the patient’s rhythm with the AED, defibrillate if indicated, and tell your partner to stop the ambulance.
begin CPR, tell your partner to stop the ambulance, and analyze the patient’s cardiac rhythm with the AED.
tell your partner to stop the ambulance, perform CPR for 2 minutes, and analyze the patient’s cardiac rhythm with the AED.
tell your partner to continue to the hospital, perform 2 minutes of CPR, and analyze the patient’s cardiac rhythm with the AED.

Answer 223

begin CPR, tell your partner to stop the ambulance, and analyze the patient’s cardiac rhythm with the AED.

Question 224

Effectively performed CPR is a crucial treatment for a patient in cardiac arrest because it:
enhances perfusion to the body’s periphery.
often converts ventricular fibrillation to a perfusing rhythm.
prevents the patient from developing asystole.
maintains myocardial and cerebral perfusion.

Answer 224

maintains myocardial and cerebral perfusion.

Question 225

What cardiac rhythms are recognized as shockable by an Automated External Defibrillator (AED)?
Ventricular tachycardia & asystole
Tachycardia & bradycardia
Atrial tachycardia & atrial fibrillation
Ventricular tachycardia & ventricular fibrillation

Answer 225

Ventricular tachycardia & ventricular fibrillation

Question 226

Blood enters the heart through the:
Phrenic vein
Aorta
Pulmonary artery
Superior and inferior vena cava

Answer 226

Superior and inferior vena cava

Question 227

An acute myocardial infarction is more apt to occur in the left ventricle because:
it is a fairly small chamber that is quickly depleted of oxygenated blood.
it is large and thick and demands more oxygen than the right ventricle.
its coronary arteries are more susceptible to atherosclerotic disease.
its inherently low oxygen demand predisposes it to injury or infarct.

Answer 227

it is large and thick and demands more oxygen than the right ventricle.

Question 228

Blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle passing through which valve?
Aortic valve
Tricuspid valve
Bicuspid valve
Pulmonic valve

Answer 228

Bicuspid valve

Question 229

The primary function of the atrioventricular (AV) node is to:
serve as the backup pacemaker if the ventricular conduction system fails.
slow conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for ventricular filling.
regenerate the atrial-initiated electrical impulse before it enters the ventricles.
increase conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for atrial filling.

Answer 229

slow conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for ventricular filling.

Question 230

Asystole has a high mortality rate because it:
is usually the result of a massive myocardial infarction.
reflects a prolonged period of myocardial ischemia.
is typically associated with coronary artery rupture.
most often occurs in patients with significant heart disease.

Answer 230

reflects a prolonged period of myocardial ischemia.

Question 231

The presence of pulmonary edema; shortness of breath; and the coughing up of pink, frothy sputum, should make you suspect which of the following?
Thromboembolism
Heart failure
Atherosclerosis
Myocardial infarction

Answer 231

Heart failure

Question 232

The ability of the body to recognize a foreign substance the next time it is encountered is called:
anaphylaxis.
immunity.
sensitivity.
phagocytosis.

Answer 232

sensitivity.

Question 233

An EpiPen is administered in what location?
Proximal lateral deltoid
Proximal posterior calf
Mid lateral thigh
Mid gluteus maximus

Answer 233

Mid lateral thigh

Question 234

The AEMT should transport any patient with an allergic reaction, even if he or she is able to stop the reaction with epinephrine, because:
most patients require a continuous infusion of epinephrine.
the patient’s symptoms could recur up to 8 hours later.
any patient who is given a drug must be transported by law.
the effects of epinephrine last only about 10 or 15 minutes.

Answer 234

the patient’s symptoms could recur up to 8 hours later.

Question 235

You should attempt to remove an imbedded stinger from a patient who was stung by a bee because:
the toxicity of the venom increases when it enters the bloodstream.
it is likely to cause severe local swelling and intense pain.
it can inject venom for up to 20 minutes after the initial sting.
desensitization to the venom will occur following prolonged exposure.

Answer 235

it can inject venom for up to 20 minutes after the initial sting.

Question 236

You are assessing a 32-year-old female who was stung by a scorpion. She is unresponsive and has stridorous, severely labored respirations. Your partner, who is assisting the patient’s ventilations with a bag-mask device, tells you that he is meeting significant resistance with each ventilation. You should:
administer 3 to 5 mL of epinephrine 1:1,000 SC.
apply cricoid pressure to facilitate airflow into the lungs.
request a paramedic crew to perform a cricothyrotomy.
insert an advanced airway device to protect her airway.

Answer 236

Insert an advanced airway device to protect her airway.

Question 237

Natural immunity occurs when a person’s body:
does not produce antibodies after being exposed to or vaccinated against a particular disease.
produces antibodies to a particular disease after he or she is vaccinated against the disease.
produces antibodies after being exposed to and experiencing all the symptoms of a disease.

Answer 237

produces antibodies after being exposed to and experiencing all the symptoms of a disease.

Question 238

Asking about is key to potentially understanding how serious the current reaction may be.
Duration of exospore
Prior exposures
Have they taken any Benadryl
Were there two allergens

Answer 238

Prior exposures

Question 239

Allergic reactions to oral medications:
are typically mild to moderate but may last for several days.
may cause a severe reaction after 30 minutes or more following ingestion.
usually occur without prior sensitization to the medication.
rarely cause anaphylaxis because digestive enzymes destroy the antigen.

Answer 239

may cause a severe reaction after 30 minutes or more following ingestion.

Question 240

Treatment for anaphylactic shock secondary to an insect sting may include all of the following, except:
giving IV fluid boluses.
assisting ventilations.
leaving the stinger in place.
rapid transport.

Answer 240

leaving the stinger in place.

Question 241

A 30-year-old man presents with widespread urticaria after being bitten numerous times by fire ants. He is conscious and alert and denies respiratory distress. Further assessment reveals that his breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. He tells you that his wife has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector because she is allergic to hornets. However, he does not have a prescribed auto-injector of his own. You should:
assist him in self-administering his wife’s epinephrine.
administer oxygen as needed and transport promptly.
refer him to his primary care physician for epinephrine.
request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine.

Answer 241

administer oxygen as needed and transport promptly.

Question 242

A 29-year-old male experienced multiple fire ant bites to his lower extremities. He is conscious and alert and denies respiratory distress. His skin is warm, dry, and without urticaria, and his breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Appropriate management for this patient includes:
assisting the patient with an epinephrine auto-injector if he has one.
administering 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and starting an IV.
administering prophylactic epinephrine in a dose of 0.3 to 0.5 mg IM.
applying ice to the bites and observing for signs of an allergic reaction.

Answer 242

applying ice to the bites and observing for signs of an allergic reaction.

Question 243

Decreases in cardiac output and blood pressure in a patient with anaphylactic shock are the result of:
profound tachycardia.
increased cardiac preload.
systemic vasodilation.
internal fluid loss.

Answer 243

systemic vasodilation.

Question 244

______________ often accompany allergens that have been ingested, but not allergens that are introduced to the body via other routes.
Gastrointestinal complaints
Swelling of the upper airway
Urticaria and hives
Abdominal swelling

Answer 244

Gastrointestinal complaints

Question 245

Epinephrine is a critical treatment for patients with severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) because it:
works rapidly to raise the BP by constricting the vasculature and improves ventilation by dilating the bronchioles.
does not increase myocardial oxygen demand and consumption as if it were given to patients with other conditions.
directly blocks the endogenous chemicals that are responsible for the negative effects of the allergic reaction.
markedly increases the patient’s heart rate and improves perfusion to the brain, kidneys, and myocardium.

Answer 245

works rapidly to raise the BP by constricting the vasculature and improves ventilation by dilating the bronchioles.

Question 246

A biphasic response to an antigen occurs when:
an acute response is followed later by a delayed response.
there is no acute response but a delayed response hours later.
the acute response is sustained despite appropriate care.
the acute response is rapidly corrected by the immune system.

Answer 246

an acute response is followed later by a delayed response.

Question 247

Which of the following pain patterns is most consistent with kidney stones?
Retropubic pain without radiation
Flank pain with referred pain to the shoulders
Flank pain that radiates to the groin
Localized costovertebral angle tenderness

Answer 247

Flank pain that radiates to the groin

Question 248

Which of the following statements regarding the geriatric patient with an acute abdomen is correct?
Most geriatric patients with abdominal pain seek immediate medical care.
Geriatric patients commonly present with fever due to organ inflammation.
Severe abdominal organ dysfunction may present with mild or absent pain.
Increased pain sensitivity causes severe pain from even minor conditions.

Answer 248

Severe abdominal organ dysfunction may present with mild or absent pain.

Question 249

A young female with severe lower abdominal pain presents with a decreased level of consciousness, tachypnea, and shallow breathing. Her blood pressure is 88/48 mm Hg, and her pulse is 130 beats/min and weak. You should:
administer 20 mL/kg normal saline boluses.
cover her with a blanket to keep her warm.
elevate her legs and reassess her blood pressure.
assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

Answer 249

assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

Question 250

Renal failure can cause what kind of issue?
Metabolic acidosis
Hernia
Hematemesis
Kidney stones

Answer 250

Metabolic acidosis

Question 251

A 27-year-old male complains of an acute onset of abdominal pain. He is found curled in a fetal position with his right knee drawn up into his abdomen. This position is most commonly seen in patients with acute:
cholecystitis.
pancreatitis.
gastroenteritis.
appendicitis.

Answer 251

appendicitis.

Question 252

Esophagitis is associated with which type of white blood cell?
Eosinophils
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Basophils

Answer 252

Eosinophils

Question 253

Signs and symptoms that are most commonly associated with an acute abdomen include:
back pain, constipation, and high fever.
low-grade fever, back pain, and diarrhea.
nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.

Answer 253

nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.

Question 254

A young female complains of acute pain located in the left lower quadrant of her abdomen. When palpating her abdomen for tenderness, and rigidity, you should first palpate the:
right upper quadrant.
right lower quadrant.
left upper quadrant.

Answer 254

right upper quadrant.

Question 255

It is important to avoid giving anything by mouth to a patient with acute abdominal pain because:
IV analgesia given by paramedics typically causes nausea.
the stomach must be empty prior to surgical intervention.
food or drink will irritate the gastric lining of the stomach.
absent peristalsis will cause rapid digestion and diarrhea.

Answer 255

the stomach must be empty prior to surgical intervention.

Question 256

You are treating a 50-year-old female with severe abdominal pain. She is conscious but restless, and is begging you for pain medication. Her blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg, pulse is 120 beats/min and strong, and respirations are 24 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should:
give her small sips of water, but only if she is not nauseated.
administer 20 mL/kg fluid boluses through two large-bore IVs.
start a large-bore IV and set it at a keep-vein-open rate.
request a paramedic to administer analgesia to the patient.

Answer 256

start a large-bore IV and set it at a keep-vein-open rate.

Question 257

Which of the following causes of an acute abdomen would be least likely to present with fever?
Appendicitis prior to rupture and abscess formation
Inflammation of the small pockets in the large intestine
Acute pancreatitis secondary to an infectious process
Acute cholecystitis caused by the presence of gallstones

Answer 257

Appendicitis prior to rupture and abscess formation

Question 258

Shortly following a meal, a 49-year-old female complains of acute pain to the right upper quadrant of her abdomen with referred pain to her right shoulder. This is most suggestive of acute:
cholecystitis.
pancreatitis.
appendicitis.
pyelonephritis.

Answer 258

cholecystitis.

Question 259

You and your partner have responded to a patient who is complaining of severe upper abdominal pain and has been vomiting blood. They mention that they are a recovering alcoholic. They are most likely suffering from what?
Esophagitis
Pancreatitis
Ulcers
Mallory-Weiss tear

Answer 259

Mallory-Weiss tear

Question 260

The liver secretes ________, which is an enzyme that the body uses to ________.
hydrochloric acid; break down foods
bile; dissolve fats into solution
glucagon; convert glycogen to glucose
chyme; remove waste products

Answer 260

bile; dissolve fats into solution

Question 261

A 45-year-old female is found semiconscious by a neighbor. She is incontinent of urine and is bleeding from her mouth. Which of the following medications found in her residence would lead you to suspect that she experienced a seizure?
Lamictal
Elavil
Valium
Ativan

Answer 261

Lamictal

Question 262

You respond to a residence for a 27-year-old male with an altered mental status. As you are assessing him, his girlfriend tells you that he does not have any medical problems that she is aware of; however, he did fall two days ago and strike his head. These clinical and historical findings should make you most suspicious for:
acute hypoglycemia.
subdural hemorrhaging.
epidural hemorrhaging.
meningeal artery rupture.

Answer 262

subdural hemorrhaging

Question 263

A 30-year-old male presents with a partial seizure to his left arm. His wife denies that he has ever had seizures in the past. Which of the following conditions would be the least likely cause of this patient’s seizure?
Idiopathic epilepsy
Intracranial hemorrhage
A serious cerebral infection
An intracerebral tumor

Answer 263

Idiopathic epilepsy

Question 264

When performing the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, you should remember:
It is not considered abnormal if the patient slurs their speech, it is only abnormal if they are completely unable to speak or if they answer your questions incorrectly
There are no other medical conditions that would cause the patient to show abnormal responses on this test
The patient’s palms should face upward, and their eyes should be closed when evaluating arm drift
Two or more of the signs must be abnormal in order for you to suspect a possible stroke is occurring

Answer 264

The patient’s palms should face upward, and their eyes should be closed when evaluating arm drift

Question 265

The clonic phase of a generalized motor seizure is characterized by:
muscle contraction and relaxation occurring in rapid succession.
continuous and unremitting total body muscular contractions.
paralysis of the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm.
total body muscle flaccidity immediately following the seizure.

Answer 265

muscle contraction and relaxation occurring in rapid succession.

Question 266

When treating and transporting a patient who has had a transient ischemic attack (TIA), it is important to remember that:
TIAs are completely harmless, and you should avoid transporting the patient if possible
TIAs are caused by massive brain hemorrhage and typically cause death within four hours of symptom onset if not treated
TIAs are associated with an increased risk of tonic-clonic seizures within 24 hours
TIAs are often a precursor to a full stroke and the patient needs a full evaluation by a physician

Answer 266

TIAs are often a precursor to a full stroke and the patient needs a full evaluation by a physician

Question 267

The _______, which is present wherever a nerve cell terminates, connects to the next cell via _______.
axon; catecholamines
synapse; neurotransmitters
neuron; catecholamines
dendrite; nerve fibers

Answer 267

synapse; neurotransmitters

Question 268

To minimize the amount of brain-cell damage that occurs following an ischemic stroke, fibrinolytic therapy must be administered within:
3 hours after the call is received.
3 hours after the onset of symptoms.
2 hours after assessing the patient.
5 hours after arriving at the hospital.

Answer 268

3 hours after the onset of symptoms.

Question 269

Which of the following statements regarding the 12 cranial nerves is correct?
Their primary function is to send messages to and from the brain.
They arise from the brain and innervate the head and face.
All twelve nerves exit the brain through the foramen magnum.
They branch out from between each of the spinal vertebrae.

Answer 269

They arise from the brain and innervate the head and face.

Question 270

Patients with a hemorrhagic stroke typically experience a rapidly declining level of consciousness because of:
increasing intracranial pressure.
global anoxia of the cerebrum.
pressure on the brain stem.
blood in the subarachnoid space.

Answer 270

increasing intracranial pressure.

Question 271

Which kind of seizure is characterized by generalized full-body twitching and abnormal electrical activity in large parts of the brain?
Focal seizures
Status epilepticus
Tonic-clonic seizures
Pseudoseizures

Answer 271

Tonic-clonic seizures

Question 272

What does the FAST mnemonic stand for?
Face Arms Speech Transport
Face Arms Smile Time
Face Arms Smile Transport
Face Arms Speech Time

Answer 272

Face Arms Speech Time

Question 273

You are assessing a 59-year-old male with an altered mental status. You should suspect an acute ischemic stroke versus hypoglycemia if the patient:
attempts to communicate with you.
has a prescription for phenobarbital.
rapidly loses consciousness.
is incontinent of urine and feces.

Answer 273

attempts to communicate with you.

Question 274

Which of the following is the definition of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke?
An interruption of blood flow to a part of the lungs, causing a decrease in function
An interruption of blood flow to a part of the heart, causing a decrease in function
An interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain, causing a decrease in function
An interruption of blood flow to a part of the kidneys, causing a decrease in function

Answer 274

An interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain, causing a decrease in function

Question 275

A 68-year-old male presents with confusion, left-sided hemiparesis, and facial droop. En route, the patient becomes more coherent and slowly regains use of his left arm. These findings are most suggestive of:
an impending massive stroke within 24 hours.
a transient infarct to the right side of the brain.
temporary ischemia to the right side of the brain.
permanent injury to the left side of the brain.

Answer 275

temporary ischemia to the right side of the brain.

Question 276

Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism include:
an irregular pulse, weight gain, and flushed skin.
bradycardia, weight loss, and muscle weakness.
tachycardia, weight loss, and hyperactive reflexes.
tachycardia, cool skin, and sluggish reflexes.

Answer 276

tachycardia, weight loss, and hyperactive reflexes.

Question 277

If a person who has sickle cell disease develops a clot due to misshapen cells, it can result in a blockage called:
Anemia
Vasoocclusive crisis
Pulmonary embolism
Hemophilia

Answer 277

Vasoocclusive crisis

Question 278

A common clinical finding in patients with hypo- or hyperglycemic crisis is:
diaphoresis and pale skin.
rapid and shallow breathing.
profound dehydration.
an altered mental status.

Answer 278

an altered mental status

Question 279

By what route should oral glucose be given?
Sublingual
Transcutaneous
Intranasal
Buccal

Answer 279

Buccal q

Question 280

Type I diabetes mellitus is also known as what?
Adult-onset diabetes
Insulin-dependent diabetes
Gestational diabetes
Insulin-resistant diabetes

Answer 280

Insulin-dependent diabetes

Question 281

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) occurs when:
the kidneys excrete large amounts of glucose from the body.
the body’s cells metabolize fat as an immediate energy source.
excessive amounts of cellular glucose cause ketone production.
lactic acid is produced within the cell in the absence of glucose.

Answer 281

the body’s cells metabolize fat as an immediate energy source.

Question 282

A young male with sickle cell disease presents with chest pain, fever, and a cough. His vital signs are stable, although he is experiencing mild respiratory distress. You should suspect:
a pneumothorax.
an aplastic crisis.
acute aspiration.
pneumonia.

Answer 282

pneumonia.

Question 283

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?
Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly.
In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.
The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin A.
Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel.

Answer 283

In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.

Question 284

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 425 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes:
dextrose.
oxygen.
insulin.
glucagon.

Answer 284

insulin.

Question 285

Which of the following statements regarding hyperglycemic crisis (diabetic coma) is correct?
It is typically associated with overhydration.
Fat metabolism results in severe lactic acidosis.
It usually progresses over hours or days.
Insulin overdose is the most common cause.

Answer 285

It usually progresses over hours or days.

Question 286

Which of the following is classified as a Schedule I substance with high potential for abuse and no currently accepted medical use in the United States?
Mescaline
Ketamine
Marijuana
Morphine

Answer 286

Mescaline

Question 287

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male who has abused an unknown type of drug, you note severe deformity to his hand. The patient, who is very agitated, states that he bent his fingers back in an attempt to break them. This abnormal behavior is most consistent with the use of:
LSD.
PCP.
marijuana.
cocaine.

Answer 287

PCP.

Question 288

Which of the following medication routes should you use to administer naloxone to an IV drug abuser when IV access is not possible?
Intramuscular administration
Topical administration
Oral administration
Intranasal administration

Answer 288

Intranasal administration

Question 289

Upon entering the residence of a young female with a possible toxic exposure, you begin surveying the scene. Which of the following findings would provide you with the least amount of information regarding the type of exposure?
General condition of the living area
An unpleasant odor in the residence
Presence of empty medication bottles
Needles or syringes in the residence

Answer 289

General condition of the living area

Question 290

Which of the following is not considered a hallucinogen?
Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Phencyclidine (PCP)
Marijuana
Phenobarbital

Answer 290

Phenobarbital

Question 291

Carbon monoxide (CO) causes severe tissue hypoxia because it:
produces excess carbon dioxide when it binds to the red blood cells.
causes anemia by destroying the body’s circulating red blood cells.
obstructs the pulmonary capillary bed and prevents gas exchange.
binds to the hemoglobin molecule and inhibits cellular oxygenation.

Answer 291

binds to the hemoglobin molecule and inhibits cellular oxygenation.

Question 292

Which of the following is not a recommended resource for treating a patient who has been exposed to a plant, chemical, or poison that you do not know anything about?
Poison Control
Medical control
All of these are good resources
Material safety data sheets (MSDS)

Answer 292

All of these are good resources

Question 293

Which of the following clinical signs would suggest significant exposure to an anticholinergic substance?
Severe hypotension
Pupillary constriction
Excessive salivation
Profound tachycardia

Answer 293

Profound tachycardia

Question 294

The self-administration of licit or illicit substances in a manner that is not consistent with approved medical or social practice is called:
unintentional poisoning.
drug addiction.
substance abuse.
psychological dependence.

Answer 294

substance abuse.

Question 295

A 67-year-old female complains of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that woke her from her sleep. As you and your partner enter her residence, you immediately note the smell of natural gas. Suspecting carbon monoxide toxicity, you quickly remove the patient from her home and place her in the ambulance. When assessing her, it is important to remember that:
breathing room air will not eliminate any carbon monoxide from the bloodstream.
hyperbaric oxygen must be given within 20 minutes in order to prevent death.
a pulse oximetry reading that is high does not rule out significant hypoxemia.
definitive airway management is the most effective treatment for her condition.

Answer 295

a pulse oximetry reading that is high does not rule out significant hypoxemia.

Question 296

You should not administer emergency care to a patient who inhaled a toxic substance until:
it has been determined how the exposure occurred.
you have assessed his or her oxygen saturation.
he or she has been properly decontaminated.
an antidote, if available, has been given.

Answer 296

he or she has been properly decontaminated.

Question 297

Which of the following is NOT an opioid/opiate?
Morphine
Oxycodone
Heroin
Toradol

Answer 297

Toradol

Question 298

When caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency, it is important for you to:
let the patient tell you what happened in his or her own words.
spend minimal time at the scene and transport the patient quickly.
qualify the patient’s hallucinations in order to gain his or her trust.
clearly identify yourself as being in charge and set ground rules.

Answer 298

let the patient tell you what happened in his or her own words.

Question 299

You are dispatched to a residence for an elderly female with “mental status changes.” During your assessment of the patient, you should first:
rule out hypoglycemia by administering glucose.
perform serial Cincinnati Stroke Scale assessments.
ask the husband if she has Alzheimer disease.
determine the patient’s baseline mental status.

Answer 299

determine the patient’s baseline mental status.

Question 300

Which of the following conditions would be least likely to cause an alteration in behavior?
Hypoglycemia
Brain injury
Hypertension
Hypoxemia

Answer 300

Hypertension

Question 301

Which of the following conditions would be the least likely cause of mental incapacitation?
Acute hypoglycemia
CNS-depressant drugs
Chronic hyperthyroidism
Hypoxia and hypercarbia

Answer 301

Chronic hyperthyroidism

Question 302

Which of the following would provide you with the least amount of information about the emotional state of a 20-year-old male who will not respond to any of your questions?
Respirations
Pulse rate
Facial expression
Hair length

Answer 302

Hair length

Question 303

As an AEMT, you may legally restrain a patient if he or she:
presents harm to you, your partner, or bystanders.
is acutely intoxicated and verbally abusive to you.
is under the influence of a CNS-depressant drug.
refuses to allow you to begin treatment or transport.

Answer 303

presents harm to you, your partner, or bystanders.

Question 304

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is:
financial setback.
marital discord.
recent loss of a job.
significant depression.

Answer 304

significant depression.

Question 305

Things to watch for in potential violent patient all of the following except.
Quiet clear sentences.
Clenched fists.
Have they previous acted out during the call.
Staring intently.

Answer 305

Quiet clear sentences.

Question 306

Which of the following findings does not indicate the potential for violence?
Withdrawn or detached
Uncoordinated movements
Agitated or depressed
Large physical body size

Answer 306

Large physical body size

Question 307

You arrive at the residence of a young female who is experiencing an apparent psychotic episode. Law enforcement is on scene and has ensured that it is safe. You find the patient sitting in a chair, rocking back and forth. You should:
remain calm as you gently place your hand on her shoulder.
kneel down in front of the patient and ask her what is troubling her.
reassure her that everything will be okay and ask her if she can walk.
clearly identify yourself and your partner and tell her you are there to help.

Answer 307

clearly identify yourself and your partner and tell her you are there to help.

Question 308

A behavioral crisis occurs when:
a reaction to an event interferes with daily living activities.
a person experiences stress without other people’s knowledge.
an individual reacts violently when faced with danger.
an individual suppresses feelings of anger, guilt, or depression.

Answer 308

a reaction to an event interferes with daily living activities.

Question 309

“Normal” behavior is basically classified as what:
your protocols dictate.
the patient perceives.
is acceptable by society.
is agreed upon by psychiatrists.

Answer 309

is acceptable by society.

Question 310

When a patient is not mentally competent to grant consent for emergency medical care, consent to treat is:
implied.
expressed.
unanimous.
informed.

Answer 310

implied.

Question 311

When performing your assessment of a 40-year-old male who is agitated and displaying bizarre behavior, you should:
have at least four personnel around the patient.
ask a police officer to assess the patient first.
put your hand on the patient’s arm or shoulder.
limit the number of personnel around the patient.

Answer 311

limit the number of personnel around the patient.

Question 312

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would most likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph.
10
15
30
20

Answer 312

30

Question 313

Which of the following is a guideline for safe ambulance driving?
If you park the ambulance facing traffic, keep your headlights on.
Do not turn on your siren if you have the emergency lights on.
Select the longest and least congested route to the scene.
Avoid driving down one-way streets whenever possible.

Answer 313

Avoid driving down one-way streets whenever possible.

Question 314

Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped.
300
100
400
200

Answer 314

300

Question 315

The least practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is:
on the ambulance stretcher.
in the driver’s compartment.
near the side or rear door.
inside the jump kit.

Answer 315

in the driver’s compartment

Question 316

When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance:
100 feet past the scene on the same side of the road.
alongside the scene to rapidly access the patient(s).
50 feet before the scene on the same side of the road.
50 feet past the scene on the opposite side of the road.

Answer 316

100 feet past the scene on the same side of the road.

Question 317

Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, except:
apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.
obtaining additional information from the dispatcher.
fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.
assigning tasks to each member of the response team.

Answer 317

apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.

Question 318

You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should:
remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.
pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder.
quickly pass the vehicle on the left side.
use your public address (PA) system to alert the driver.

Answer 318

remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.

Question 319

When a helicopter is used during nighttime operations, you should avoid:
directing light toward the ground at the landing site.
using any lights, whether on the ground or in the air.
placing flares within 25 feet of the aircraft after it has landed.
shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter.

Answer 319

shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter.

Question 320

When a helicopter is used during nighttime operations, you should avoid:
shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter.
directing light toward the ground at the landing site.
placing flares within 25 feet of the aircraft after it has landed.
using any lights, whether on the ground or in the air.

Answer 320

shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter.

Question 321

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:
sterilization.
high-level disinfection.
disinfection.
cleaning.

Answer 321

cleaning.

Question 322

When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should:
approach the aircraft from the downhill side.
approach the aircraft from the uphill side.
attempt to approach the aircraft from behind.
move the patient to the aircraft as soon as it lands.

Answer 322

approach the aircraft from the downhill side.

Question 323

The most common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at:
stop lights.
railroad crossings.
intersections.
stop signs.

Answer 323

intersections.