MIDTERM 06 - Hematopoietic Agents Flashcards

1
Q

Refers to a connective tissue that consists of blood plasma plus formed elements

A

Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Refers to the fluid part of the blood

A

Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Refers to plasma without clotting factors

A

Serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type of blood cell that carries oxygen

A

Erythrocytes (RBCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type of blood cell that has a role in immunity

A

Leukocytes (WBCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type of blood cell involves in blood clotting

A

Thrombocytes (Platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Refers to the process of blood cell production; occurs mainly in the red bone marrow after birth

A

Hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Refers to the process of making red blood cells (erythrocytes)

A

Erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Refers to the process of making white blood cells (leukocytes)

A

Myelopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Refers to the process of making platelets (thrombocytes)

A

Thrombopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Growth factor of erythropoiesis

A

Erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 growth factors of myelopoiesis (GG)

A

GM-CSF, G-CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2 growth factors of thrombopoiesis (IT)

A

IL-11, Thrombopoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Decreased RBC count (Examples of hematopoietic disorders)

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Decreased WBC count (Examples of hematopoietic disorders)

A

Leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Decreased platelet count (Examples of hematopoietic disorders)

A

Thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Increased RBC count (Examples of hematopoietic disorders)

A

Polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Increased WBC count (Examples of hematopoietic disorders)

A

Leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Increased platelet count (Examples of hematopoietic disorders)

A

Thrombocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A group of diseases characterized by a decrease in hemoglobin or red blood cells, resulting in the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Amount of Hb per volume of whole blood (Laboratory evaluation)

A

Hemoglobin (Hb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Actual volume of RBCs in a unit volume of whole blood (in %) (Laboratory evaluation)

A

Hematocrit (Hct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The actual count of RBCs per unit of blood (Laboratory evaluation)

A

RBC count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Average volume of RBCs (Laboratory evaluation)

A

Mean corpuscular volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Average amount of Hb in an RBC (Laboratory evaluation)

A

Mean corpuscular Hb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Concentration of Hb in a volume of RBCs (Laboratory evaluation)

A

Mean corpuscular Hb concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

An indirect assessment of new RBC production (Laboratory evaluation)

A

Reticulocyte production index (RPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Variability of RBC size (Laboratory evaluation)

A

RBC distribution width (RDW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Best indicator of iron deficiency or overload; used to estimate total body iron stores (Laboratory evaluation)

A

Serum ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Test used to diagnose pernicious anemia (Laboratory evaluation)

A

Schilling test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Test for hemolytic anemia (Laboratory evaluation)

A

Coombs test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most common cause of chronic anemia

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fe2+ in heme from __________ sources are less abundant but better absorbed

A

Animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Free Fe3+ in __________ sources are more abundant but less absorbed

A

Plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

____________ to __________ mg of dietary elemental Fe is required per day

A

10-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

10-15% or __________ to __________ mg/day of Fe is absorbed

A

1-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Absorption of dietary iron occurs in the __________ and __________ (DP)

A

Duodenum, Proximal jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fe2+ heme is absorbed on the apical surface via __________

A

Heme carrier protein (HCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Free Fe3+ is absorbed in the apical surface via __________ and enhanced by vitamin C

A

DMT-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Combination of Fe3+ combines with apotransferrin, to form and circulate as __________, which is involved in the transport of iron

A

Transferrin (Tf)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cellular uptake of iron involves the binding of transferrin-bound Fe3+ to __________ on erythroblasts and other iron-requiring cells

A

Transferrin receptors (TfR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Binding of Fe3+ to apoferritin forms __________, which is involved in the storage of iron

A

Ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In iron overload, ferritin is stored as __________, which is a form of degraded ferritin complexed with additional iron that cannot be readily mobilized

A

Hemosiderin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Exit of Fe2+ from heme degradation in macrophages is via __________ (involved in iron recycling)

A

Ferroportin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Oxidization of Fe2+ to Fe3+ is done by _________, which is Cu-containing

A

Ceruloplasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Recycled iron meets approximately __________% of daily need

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Excretion of iron is no more than __________ mg daily

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Excretion of iron is through __________ or _________; trace amounts of iron are also excreted in bile, urine, and sweat (DB)

A

Defecation, Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Regulation of iron metabolism is done by __________, which is produced in the liver

A

Hepcidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Condition where plasma iron levels are reduced

A

Hypoferremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The most common nutritional deficiency in developing and developed countries (Types of anemia)

A

Iron-deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Anemia characterized by smaller than normal RBCs due to less hemoglobin; type of iron deficiency anemia

A

Microcytic hypochromic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Corrects IDA as rapidly and completely as parenteral FE if absorption is normal; taken before meals (Treatment for iron-deficiency anemia)

A

Oral iron therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Oral iron therapy contains __________ ion, which is the most efficiently absorbed iron ion

A

Fe2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

___________ to __________ mg of elemental Fe/day is taken to correct iron deficiency most rapidly

A

200-400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Oral iron therapy is continued for ___________ to __________ months after correction of iron deficiency

A

3-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Reserved for patients who are unable to tolerate or absorb oral Fe (Treatment for iron-deficiency anemia)

A

Parenteral iron therapy

58
Q

Parenteral iron therapy contain __________ ion

59
Q

Ferric hydroxide core and a carbohydrate shell; used for IDA in patients with intolerance to oral iron (Types of parenteral iron therapy)

A

Ferric carboxymaltose

60
Q

Iron strongly bound to a chemically modified isomaltooligosaccharides; used for IDA in patients with intolerance to oral iron (Treatment for iron-deficiency anemia) (IF)

A

Iron isomaltoside/Ferric derisomaltose

61
Q

Characterized by necrotizing gastroenteritis with vomiting, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea (Types of iron toxicity)

A

Acute iron toxicity

62
Q

2 treatments for acute iron toxicity (WD)

A

Whole bowel irrigation, Deferoxamine (IV)

63
Q

Excess iron is deposited in the heart, liver, pancreas, and other organs; can lead to organ failure and death (Types of iron toxicity)

A

Chronic toxicity (Hemochromatosis)

64
Q

Treatment for chronic iron toxicity (hemochromatosis)

A

Phlebotomy weekly

65
Q

Reserved for individuals who have symptoms of anemia and require immediate intervention (Treatment for iron-deficiency anemia)

A

RBC transfusion

66
Q

Anemia caused by abnormal DNA metabolism resulting from vitamin B12 or folate deficiency (Types of anemia)

A

Megaloblastic anemia

67
Q

Megaloblastic anemia is a form of __________, which is characterized by abnormally large RBCs despite a normal amount of hemoglobin

A

Macrocytic normochromic anemia

68
Q

Vitamin whose source is microbial synthesis; is not synthesized by animals or plants

A

Vitamin B12

69
Q

Vitamin whose chief dietary source is meat (especially liver), eggs, and dairy products

A

Vitamin B12

70
Q

Bonded to 5’-carbon of 5’-deoxyadenosine (Active forms of vitamin B12)

A

5’-deoxyadenosylcobalamin

71
Q

Bonded to carbon of a methyl group (Active forms of vitamin B12)

A

Methylcobalamin

72
Q

Occurs equally through buccal, duodenal, and ileal mucosa; rapid but extremely inefficient (Types of vitamin B12 absorption)

A

Passive absorption

73
Q

Occurs through the distal ileum; efficient for small oral doses of cobalamin (Types of vitamin B12 absorption)

A

Active absorption

74
Q

Active vitamin B12 absorption is mediated by gastric __________ produced by parietal cells

A

Intrinsic factor (IF)

75
Q

Vitamin B12 is primarily stored in the __________

76
Q

The total vitamin B12 storage pool is __________ to __________ mcg

77
Q

__________ is a megaloblastic, macrocytic anemia associated with mild or moderate leukopenia or thrombocytopenia (Types of megaloblastic anemia)

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

78
Q

It would take around __________ years for all stored vitamin B12 to be exhausted and for megaloblastic anemia to develop if B12 absorption were stopped

79
Q

Due to pernicious anemia and inadequate gastric acid (Etiology of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia)

A

Malabsorption syndromes

80
Q

Is rare; occurs in strict vegans, chronic alcoholics, and elderly who have tea and toast diet (Etiology of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia)

A

Inadequate intake

81
Q

Bonded to a cyanide group (Treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency anemia)

A

Cyanocobalamin (PO, IV)

82
Q

Bonded to hydroxyl group; is more protein-bound and has longer half life (Treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency anemia)

A

Hydroxocobalamin (PO, IV)

83
Q

Vitamin required for biochemical reactions that provide precursors for synthesis of amino acids, purines, and DNA

A

Folic acid (Pteroylglutamic acid)

84
Q

Vitamin whose dietary source is yeast, liver, kidney, and green vegetables

A

Folic acid

85
Q

Absorption of folic acid is complete in the __________

A

Proximal jejunum

86
Q

Recommended amount of dietary folate per day

A

500-700 mcg

87
Q

Amount of folic acid absorbed per day

A

50-200 mcg/day

88
Q

Folic acid is stored in the ___________ and other tissues

89
Q

Folic acid is eliminated in the __________ and __________ (US)

A

Urine, Stool

90
Q

Folic acid is destroyed by __________

A

Catabolism

91
Q

__________ is an anemia that can develop within 1-6 months due to low body stores of folic acid and high daily requirements (Types of megaloblastic anemia)

A

Folic acid deficiency anemia

92
Q

Junk food, alcoholics, food faddists, the impoverished, chronically ill, and demented (Etiology of folic acid deficiency anemia)

A

Inadequate intake

93
Q

Malabsorption syndromes (Etiology of folic acid deficiency anemia)

A

Decreased absorption

94
Q

Increased rate of cell division, hemolytic anemia, myelofibrosis, malignancy, chronic inflammatory disorders, long-term dialysis, burn patients, and growth spurts (Etiology of folic acid deficiency anemia)

A

Increased folate requirements

95
Q

Use of DNA synthesis inhibitors, folate antagonists, and alcohol (Etiology of folic acid deficiency anemia)

96
Q

Treatment for folic acid deficiency anemia

A

Folate (PO)

97
Q

Anemia of chronic disease and anemia of critical illness; traditionally associated with malignant, infectious, or inflammatory conditions (Types of anemia)

A

Anemia of inflammation (AI)

98
Q

3 treatments for anemia of inflammation (AI) (IRE)

A

Iron, RBC transfusion, Erythropoietin

99
Q

A 34 to 39-kDa glycoprotein hormone produced by the kidneys; usually given with Fe

A

Erythropoietin

100
Q

Produced in a mammalian cell expression system; given 3x a week (Types of recombinant erythropoietin)

A

Epoetin alfa (rHuEPO)

101
Q

More heavily glycosylated; given weekly (Types of recombinant erythropoietin)

A

Darbepoetin alfa

102
Q

Isoform of erythropoietin; given every 2 weeks or monthly (Types of recombinant erythropoietin)

A

Methyoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta

103
Q

Hormone used in anemia in CKD, HIV-infected patients treated with zidovudine, and cancer patients treated with myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy

A

Erythropoietin

104
Q

___________’s adverse effects include hypertension and thrombotic complications

A

Erythropoietin

105
Q

___________ can be used as a performance-enhancing drug and in “blood doping”

A

Erythropoietin

106
Q

Caused by impaired Hb synthesis and accumulation of iron in the perinuclear mitochondria of erythroid precursors (ringed sideroblasts) (Types of anemias)

A

Sideroblastic anemia

107
Q

Treatment for sideroblastic anemia

A

50 mg pyridoxine PO qd

108
Q

Treated with cupric sulfate PO (Types of anemia)

A

Copper deficiency anemia

109
Q

Treatment for copper deficiency anemia

A

Cupric sulfate (PO)

110
Q

A hypoproliferative anemia treated with riboflavin (Types of anemia)

A

Riboflavin deficiency anemia

111
Q

Riboflavin deficiency anemia is treated with __________

A

Riboflavin

112
Q

Condition characterized by abnormally few neutrophils in the blood

A

Neutropenia

113
Q

Growth factors that bind to JAK/STAT receptors on myeloid progenitor cells

A

Myeloid growth factors

114
Q

Stimulates proliferation and differentiation of progenitors committed to the neutrophil lineage (Myeloid growth factors)

115
Q

Has broader biologic actions; stimulates proliferation and differentiation of early and late granulocytic progenitor cells (Myeloid growth factors)

116
Q

Includes filgrastim, Tbo-filgrastim, pegfilgrastim, and lenograstim (Recombinant myeloid growth factors)

A

G-CSF (IV, SC)

117
Q

Includes sargramostim (Recombinant myeloid growth factors)

A

GM-CSF (IV, SC)

118
Q

Produced in a bacterial expression system (G-CSF - recombinant myeloid growth factors)

A

Filgrastim

119
Q

Similar to filgrastim with minor structural differences and equivalent activity (G-CSF - recombinant myeloid growth factors)

A

Tbo-filgrastim

120
Q

Filgrastim covalent conjugated to polyethylene glycol; has longer half-life (G-CSF - recombinant myeloid growth factors)

A

Pegfilgrastim

121
Q

Glycosylated recombinant G-CSF (G-CSF - recombinant myeloid growth factors)

A

Lenograstim

122
Q

Produced in a yeast expression system (GM-CSF - recombinant myeloid growth factors)

A

Sargramostim

123
Q

__________ are used for neutropenia, stem cell/bone marrow transplantation, and mobilization of peripheral blood progenitor cells (PBPCs)

A

Myeloid growth factors

124
Q

G-CSF is __________ tolerated than GM-CSF

125
Q

A rare but serious complication for PBSC mobilization

A

Splenic rupture

126
Q

Condition that involves low platelet count in the blood

A

Thrombocytopenia

127
Q

Includes romiplostim and eltrombopag (Megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Thrombopoietin

128
Q

Includes oprelvekin (Megakaryocyte growth factors)

129
Q

Has high affinity binding to the human MpI receptor (Thrombopoietin - megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Romiplostim

130
Q

Binds to the transmembrane domain of the MpI receptor (Thrombopoietin - megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Eltrombopag

131
Q

Binds to cytokine receptors to stimulate the growth of multiple lymphoid and myeloid cells (IL-11 - megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Oprelvekin

132
Q

Produced by fibroblasts and stromal cells in the bone marrow (Recombinant megakaryocyte growth factors)

133
Q

Thrombopoietin against peptide covalently linked to antibody fragments to extend t1/2; t1/2 is 3-4 days (Thrombopoietin - recombinant megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Romiplostim (SC)

134
Q

Small nonpeptide thrombopoietin agonist molecule; t1/2 is 26-35 hours (Thrombopoietin - recombinant megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Eltrombopag (PO)

135
Q

Produced by expression of E. coli; t1/2 is 7-8 hours (IL-11 - recombinant megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Oprelvekin (Recombinant IL-11, SC)

136
Q

Used for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (Thrombopoietin - megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Romiplostim

137
Q

Used for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura and thrombocytopenia in patients with hepatitis C (Thrombopoietin - megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Eltrombopag

138
Q

Used for nonmyeloid malignancies (IL-11 - megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Oprelvekin

139
Q

Causes increased blast count and risk of progression to acute myeloid leukemia (Thrombopoietin - megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Romiplostim

140
Q

Is potentially hepatotoxic (Thrombopoietin - megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Eltrombopag

141
Q

Causes fatigue, headache, and dizziness (IL-11 - megakaryocyte growth factors)

A

Oprelvekin