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Parasitology Lab > Microscope / Microbio / Disinfect > Flashcards

Microscope / Microbio / Disinfect Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main parts of the microscope?

A
  • Eye Pieces
  • Microscope Tube
  • Nose-Piece
  • Objective
  • Mechanical Stage
  • Condensor
  • Coarse Focusing Knob
  • Light Source

See Chart in Notes

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2
Q

What are the 3 types of light microscopes?

A
  • Compound (transmitted light)
  • Dissecting
  • Electron
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3
Q

What is the magnification of the ocular lens? Are they adjustable and why?

A

10x

Yes, for eye spacing.

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4
Q

What are the objective lenses?

A
  • 4x
  • 10x
  • 40x
  • 100x
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5
Q

What is total magnification?

A

ocular magnification (10x) x objective magnification

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6
Q

What do you use to clean a microscope?

A

Only lens paper or lens cleaner with lens paper.

-NO Kimwipes or Kleenex tissue.

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7
Q

What do you clean on a microscope?

A
  • ocular lenses
  • objective lenses
  • light source
  • slide stage
  • slide
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8
Q

How do you operate a compound microscope?

A
  1. Place the slide on the stage within adjustable slide holder.
  2. Adjust condenser to raised position.
  3. Adjust diaphragm to limit amount of light.
  4. Move lowest objective into place.
  5. Move the course focus knob to adjust focus.
  6. Move successively higher magnification objectives into place and focus using fine knob.
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9
Q

What is parfocal?

A

Having corresponding focal points all in the same plane : having sets of objectives or eyepieces so mounted that they may be interchanged without varying the focus of the instrument (as a microscope) with which they are used.

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10
Q

What is parcentered?

A

To align the centers of (optical lenses or diaphragms) along one axis.

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11
Q

How does an “e” look under the microscope.

A

Flipped 180*

ə

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12
Q

How does the “e” move when adjusting it with the top knob?

A
  • Turning the top knob towards (or to the right) me moves the slide up.
  • Turning it away (or to the left) moves it down.
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13
Q

How does the “e” move when adjusting it with the bottom knob?

A
  • Turning it towards me moves it left.

- Turning it left, moves the it to the right.

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14
Q

What magnification provides you with the greatest DOF?

A

400

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15
Q

Which objective provides the greatest field of vies?

A

40x

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16
Q

Microbe / Microorganism

A

A living organism that is unable to be seen without a microscope.

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17
Q

Pathogens

A

Disease causing microorganism.

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18
Q

Infection

A

The state produced by the establishment of an infective agent in or on a suitable host.

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19
Q

Resistance

A

Ability to overcome pathogen.

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20
Q

Sepsis

A

Pathogen has succeeded to cause disease; it is now in the blood or tissue of an animal or human.

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21
Q

Nosocomial Infection

A

Hospital acquired infection.

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22
Q

Asepsis

A

Method of producing or maintaining an aseptic condition.

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23
Q

Sterile

A

Free from living organisms, especially microorganisms.

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24
Q

Sanitation

A

Promotion of hygiene and prevention of disease, by maintaining sanitary conditions.

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25
Q

Disinfection

A

Free from infection, especially by destroying harmful microorganisms. Disinfectants are used on inanimate objects.

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26
Q

Antiseptics

A

Used on living tissue.

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27
Q

Sterilization

A

To free from living organisms.

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28
Q

Cold Sterilization

A

Method of disinfecting for minor procedures, using a liquid solution.

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29
Q

Control of disease includes?

A
  • Eliminating the source of the disease. (disinfecting, sterilizing).
  • Preventing the transmission of the disease. (prevent aerosol of agents, respiratory discharge)
  • Providing a method for the host to resist the disease. (vaccination)
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30
Q

Physical methods of microbial control?

Basic Info

A
  • Washing and drying in HOT water removes a lot of the microbial load.
  • Change out of and wash dirty clothes immediately.
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31
Q

Physical methods of microbial control are (6)?

BISUMU

A 
Boiling Water
Incineration
Steam Under Pressure
Ultrasonic Vibration
Moist Heat Sterilization
Ultraviolet Radiation
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32
Q

Incineration

A

-is done to soiled, disposable items.

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33
Q

Moist Heat Sterilization

How hot does the water need to be?

A

-Water is heated to 60 C (140 F).

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34
Q

Moist Heat Sterilization

How is it most effective?

A

-Most effective if use detergent and agitation.

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35
Q

Moist Heat Sterilization

What is it good for?

A

-Good for laundry, mops, basins, trays, and food bowls.

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36
Q

Boiling Water

Is it used often?

A

No. It is not used often in vet practices. However, it may be used on site, such as on location at a farm.

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37
Q

Boiling Water

What does it NOT kill?

A

Does not kill spore forming bacteria and heat resistant viruses.

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38
Q

Boiling Water

How to aid the cleaning process?

A

Add detergent to aid in the cleaning process.

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39
Q

Boiling Water

How hot?

A

Reaches a temperature of 100 C, or 212 F.

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40
Q

Boiling Water

How long?

A

Must boil for 30 minutes.

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41
Q

Steam Under Pressure

What do you use?

A

The autoclave is used.

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42
Q

Ultrasonic Vibration

What do you do first?

A

Hand wash first!! Use distilled water if you do not know the status of the tap water (microbes and pH).

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43
Q

Ultrasonic Vibration

How does it work?

A

Sound waves produce tiny bubbles that have a scrubbing action.

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44
Q

Ultrasonic Vibration

Does it sanitize?

A

Yes, but it does NOT sterilize.

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45
Q

Ultrasonic Vibration

What do you do after using it?

A

Rinse with distilled water, and lubricate.

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46
Q

Ultraviolet Radiation

Is it used often?

A

No. Not used often in vet practice.

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47
Q

Ultraviolet Radiation

What does it do?

A

It sterilized, used for things easily destroyed by heat.

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48
Q

Chemical Control

Basic Information

A

-Follow instruction for the use of various agents.

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49
Q

-cidal

A

Indicates death of organism.

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50
Q

-static

A

Indicates inhibition of growth organisms.

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51
Q

antiseptic

A

May be a dilute form of a disinfectant.

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52
Q

Chemical Control
What are the methods (8)?

CHOP SAGA

A

Cold Sterilization
Heavy Metals
Oxidizing Agents
Phenolic Derivatives

Surfactants
Alcohols
Glutaraldehyde
Aldehydes

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53
Q

Cold Sterilization

A

Objects are soaked in disinfectant.

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54
Q

Alcohol

What concentration?

A

Concentrations above 50% are bactericidal.

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55
Q

Alcohol

Can it be used in a cold tray, why?

A

No, alcohol cannot be used in a cold try because it evaporates too quickly.

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56
Q

Alcohol

What can you not use it on?

A

Do not use it on traumatized skin.

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57
Q

Aldehyde

What?

A

Formaldehyde

-Formalin is the 10% dilution

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58
Q

Aldehyde

Used for?

A

It is used for tissue preservation.

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59
Q

Aldehyde

Do you need ventilation, why?

A

Yes, good ventilation should be used with Aldehydes. They are carcinogenic.

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60
Q

Aldehyde

Do you have to make up your own containers?

A

With biopsy samples, you can purchase already prepared containers.

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61
Q

Glutaraldehyde

What?

A

Cidex

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62
Q

Glutaraldehyde

What does it do?

A

It is sporadical if objects are left to soak for several hours.

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63
Q

Glutaraldehyde

How long to kill most microorganisms?

A

It kills most organisms in 10 minutes.

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64
Q

Oxidizing Agents

What do they do?

A

They disrupt the cell process.

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65
Q

Oxidizing Agents

What?

A
  • Chlorine
  • Iodine
  • Hydrogen Peroxide
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66
Q

Oxidizing Agents

How much to dilute bleach?

A

A 1:5 dilution with water is effective against many bacteria and viruses.

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67
Q

Oxidizing Agents

Bleach dilution with Parvo?

A

A 1:30 dilution is the most effective against parvo.

-1/2 Cup Bleach to 1 Gallon Water

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68
Q

Oxidizing Agents

What does iodine do?

A

It reacts with cells to inhibit enzyme activity.

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69
Q

Oxidizing Agents

Iodine concentration?

A

A concentration of 3.5% or higher will burn living tissue.

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70
Q

Oxidizing Agents

Do not combine bleach with?

A

Do not combine chlorine with ammonia, toxic chlorine gas is formed.

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71
Q

Surfactants

What do they do?

A

Surfactants lower the surface tension of a liquid and allow dislike substances, such as oil and water to mix more easily.

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72
Q

Surfactants

What?

A

Detergents

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73
Q

Phenolic Derivatives

What?

A
  • Lysol

- Pine-sol

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74
Q

Phenolic Derivatives

Are they effected by excess organic material?

A

No, they are not easily effected by excess organic material.

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75
Q

Heavy Metals

Is Mercury still available?

A

No, it has been removed from the market.

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76
Q

Heavy Metals

Zinc?

A

Zinc compounds are available for antiseptic use.

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77
Q

Disinfectant

A

An agent that destroys or inhibits microorganisms - typically refers to inanimate objects.

78
Q

Antiseptic

A

An agent that destroys or inhibits microorganisms - typically refers to living tissue.

79
Q

Iodophors

When are they used?

A

Used as topical antiseptics before surgical procedures and for wound care.

80
Q

Iodophors

What do they kill?

A
  • virucidal
  • bactericidal
  • protocidal
  • fungicidal
81
Q

Iodophors

Most common?

A

Iodine combined with polyvinylpyrrolidone, aka povidone-iodine

82
Q

Iodophors

What is the residual activity and is it effected by anything?

A

The residual activity of povidone-iodine is 4 to 6 hours. This is greatly diminished by the presence of organic matter such as blood. Alcohol will also destroy this residual action.

83
Q

Chlorohexidine

When are they used?

A

Can be used as an antiseptic and disinfectant.

84
Q

Chlorohexidine

Does it cause tissue damage?

A

It causes little tissue irritation.

85
Q

Chlorohexidine

What do they work against?

A
  • bacteria
  • viruses
  • molds
  • yeasts
86
Q

Chlorohexidine

How long to work, is it residual?

A

It has a rapid onset and a long residual activity that is not affected by organic material or alcohol.

87
Q

Chlorohexidine

Brand Name?

A 
Nolvasan
Nolvasan S (means scented)
88
Q

Alcohol

Most common?

A
  • Ethyl Alcohol

- Isopropyl Alcohol

89
Q

Alcohol

Are they used often?

A

Yes. They are among the most common antiseptics applied to the skin.

90
Q

Alcohol

What is a 70% solution used for?

A

To disinfect surgical sites, injection sites, and rectal thermometers.

91
Q

Alcohol

How is it effective?

A

In order for it to be effective against bacteria it must remain in contact with the skin for several seconds. Several minutes to be effective against fungi.

92
Q

Alcohol

Does a cursory swipe do anything?

A

It does little at an injection site to disinfect it.

93
Q

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

Brand Name?

A

Roccal-D

benz-all

94
Q

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

What are they used for?

A

To disinfect the surface of inanimate objects.

95
Q

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

Effective against?

A

A wide variety of bacteria, but ineffective against bacterial spores and have poor efficacy against fungi.

96
Q

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

Against viruses?

A

They can destroy enveloped viruses, ineffective against non-enveloped viruses such as parvo.

97
Q

Chlorine Compounds

Most common?

A

Household bleach.

98
Q

Chlorine Compounds

Against viruses?

A

Can kill enveloped, and non-enveloped viruses.

99
Q

Chlorine Compounds

Against Parvo?

A

The disinfectant of choice against parvo.

100
Q

Chlorine Compounds

Effective against?

A
  • viruses
  • fungi
  • algae
  • bacteria
101
Q

Chlorine Compounds

Do they work on bacterial spores?

A

No. Like many other disinfectants, chlorine bleach is not effective against bacterial spores.

102
Q

Chlorine Compounds

Effective concentration?

A

Bleach to Water

1: 30 for Parvo
1: 5 for most other situations

103
Q

Phenols

Effective against?

A

Some bacteria.

104
Q

Phenols

Not effective against?

A
  • viruses
  • fungi
  • spores
105
Q

Cold Sterilization

Brand Name

A

benz-all

Bensalkonium Chloride

106
Q

benz-all

Soluble properties

A

Soluble in:
water
acetone
alcohol

Insoluble in:
ether
benzene (slightly soluble)

107
Q

benz-all

Concentration?

A

1:750

Quart: one 10cc bottle into 1 quart water.
Gallon: one 40cc bottle into 1 gallon water.

108
Q

benz-all

What kind of water?

A

Tap is fine unless the water is hard water. Then, distilled is best.

109
Q

benz-all

Instrument storage?

A

To store some heat sterilized instruments, a 1:750 solution which has not been previously used may be employed for up to 14 days.

110
Q

benz-all

When not to use?

A

With any instrument thought to be contaminated by spore bearing organisms, mycobacterium tuberculosis, or viral hepatitis. Also not for use with optical instruments with cemented parts.

111
Q

Rocal-D

Dilution?

A

1/2 ounce to 1 Gallon

112
Q

gram-positive / gram-negative, name after who?

A

Dr. Hans Christian Gram

113
Q

pyrogens

A

burning bodies

The term given to endotoxin found in the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.

114
Q

Endotoxin Function

A

To assist in selective transport of matter into the bacterial cell. They also help to defend the bacterial cell, creating potential damage and antibodies in its host.

115
Q

Heat Fixing

Why?

A
  • Prevents sample from washing off.
  • Preserves cell morphology.
  • Kills bacteria and renders them permeable to stain.
116
Q

Gram Stain

Procedure

A
  • Crystal Violet: let stand for 30 seconds.
  • Rinse with distilled water.
  • Iodine: let stand for 30 seconds.
  • Rinse with distilled water.
  • Wash with decolorizer until no more purple washes off (10 seconds or less).
  • Rinse with distilled water.
  • Safranin: let stand 30 seconds
  • Rinse with distilled water
117
Q

Gram Stain

How do you dispose of contents of stain rack?

A

DO NOT pour into sink. Empty into jar marked for Gram Stain waste. Rinse with a small amount of tap or distilled water. Empty into jar.

118
Q

Gram Positive Bacteria retain which complex?

A

The violet-iodine and they stain purple.

119
Q

Gram Negative Bacteria stain with what?

A

They lose the crystal violet and stain red with safranin.

120
Q

Gram Variable Reaction

A

An organism that stains both Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative.

121
Q

Gram Variable Reaction

Why does this occur?

A
  • Excessive decolorization.
  • An overly thick smear.
  • Excessive heat fixation.
  • Old cultures.
  • Poor quality of stain.
122
Q

MIC

A

mean inhibitory content

-the lowest concentration of a specific drug that PREVENTS the growth of an organism.

123
Q

MBC

A

Mean Bactericidal Concentration

-the lowest concentration of a specific drug that KILLS 99.9% of a given strain of bacteria.

124
Q

Kirby Bauer Disc Diffusion Test

A

Is a routinely used test to qualitatively determine the susceptibility of a given organism to a battery of antimicrobial drugs.

125
Q

Zone of Inhibition

A

A clear zone of inhibition around a disc reflects the degree of susceptibility of an organism to the drug; the area where the bacteria has been killed off.

126
Q

Zone of Inhibition

How is it measured?

A

In mm across the complete diameter, including the disc.

127
Q

Zone of Inhibition

How do you know which drugs are effective?

A

There are special charts to correlate the size of the zone of inhibition to the susceptibility of an organism to the drug; susceptible, intermediate, or resistant.

128
Q

Types of Gram-Positive Bacteria

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Clostridium perfringens

129
Q

Staphylococcus

Morphology

A
  • Gram Pos. Cocci
  • About 2mm diameter
  • Occurring singly, in pairs, tetrads, or clusters.
  • Can show alpha, beta, or gamma haemolysis.
130
Q

Staphylococcus

Usually isolated from?

A

Wounds, dermatitis, otitis, mastitis, cystitis, and osteomyelitis.

131
Q

Streptococcus

Morphology

A
  • Gram Pos. Cocci
  • .5-1mm diameter
  • occurring in pairs, short or long chains
  • can show alpha, beta, and/or gamma haemolosis.
132
Q

Streptococcus

Most common in?

A

Horses, causes strangles. Also an important cause of bovine mastitis.

133
Q

Clostridium perfingens

Occasionally isolated from?

A

Deep wounds with extensive tissue necrosis, such as compound fractures.

134
Q

Clostridium perfingens

What type of environment does it need to grow?

A

The bacterium requires an anaerobic atmosphere for growth.

135
Q

Types of Gram-Negative Bacteria

A 
Escherichia coli
Salmonella
Proteus
Pasteurella
Pseudomonas
Bordetella
Brucella
136
Q

Escherichia coli

Frequently associated with?

A

Diarrhea in neonates (pigs, calves, lambs)

137
Q

Escherichia coli

How do you know if it is the cause of diarrhea?

A

If large number of gram-negative rods are observed in each oil immersion field, it is a strong indication that E. coli is the cause.

138
Q

Salmonella

What does it cause?

A

It can cause diarrhea and septicemia in all animals and humans.

139
Q

Proteus

They are frequently isolated as?

A

Specimen contaminants or secondary invaders.

140
Q

Proteus

They are important pathogens of?

A

The urinary tract.

141
Q

Pasteurella

What is is usually associated with?

A

Respiratory infections in most animals.

142
Q

Pseudomonas

Commonly found?

A

In soil and water.

143
Q

Pseudomonas

They are usually consider to be?

A

Opportunistic pathogens of wounds and otitis.

144
Q

Bordetella

Morphology

A

Small coccobacillus

145
Q

Bordetella

Frequently recovered from?

A

Respiratory infections of dogs.

146
Q

Brucella

Morphology

A

Small coccobacillus

147
Q

Brucella

Usually associated with?

A

Reproductive failure - abortion and infertility.

148
Q

What are 5 techniques for studying bacteria?

A
  1. Cell morphology - under grams stain (+/-).
  2. Colonial morphology
  3. Biochemistry - enzyme production
  4. Serology
  5. Animal Inoculation
149
Q

Colonial Morphology

Diameter

A

Measured in mm.

150
Q

Colonial Morphology

Shape of Colony, Plane View

A
  • circular
  • rhizoid
  • irregular
  • entire
  • lenticular
151
Q

Colonial Morphology

Shape of Colony, Cross Section

A
  • convex
  • umbonate
  • flat
152
Q

Colonial Morphology

Color Characteristics - Haemolosis

A

a. Alpha - green, gray
b. Beta - clear
c. gamma - any other type

153
Q

Colonial Morphology

Surface

A
  • dull
  • shiny
  • ground glass
154
Q

Colonial Morphology

Texture

A
  • caseous
  • hard
  • mucoid
155
Q

Colonial Morphology

Motility

A
  • motile, swarming

- non-motile

156
Q

Biochemistry

A
  1. Utilization of carbs - produce acid and/or gas.
  2. Produce indole
  3. Produce H2S from sulfa
  4. Tolerance
157
Q

What is the primary concern in veterinary bacteriology?

A

What antibiotic can be used to treat this infection, then you are concerned with what the organism is. Identification need only be made to a group type.

158
Q

Strep agalactiae

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Pos. Cocci
  • Small, translucent, bluish-white colonies.
  • Convex
  • Beta haemolysis may be seen.
159
Q

Strep dysgalactiae

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Pos. Cocci
  • Small, translucent, bluish-white colonies.
  • Convex
  • Alpha haemolysis, greening around colonies.
160
Q

Strep Group G

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Pos. Cocci
  • Small, translucent, bluish-white colonies.
  • Convex
  • Large area of Beta haemolysis
161
Q 
Strep uberis (+)
Colonial Morphology
A
  • Gram Pos. Cocci
  • Small, translucent colonies.
  • Large area of greening (alpha).
  • Positive CAMP reaction.
162
Q 
Strep uberis (-)
Colonial Morphology
A
  • Gram Pos. Cocci
  • Small, translucent colonies.
  • Large area of greening (alpha).
  • Negative CAMP reaction.
163
Q

Staph aureus

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Pos. Cocci
  • Large, opaque, orange to white colonies
  • alpha, alpha/beta, or beta haemolysis
  • Most are coagulase Pos. and ferment manitol.
164
Q

Staph spp.

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Pos. Cocci
  • Large, opaque, orange to white colonies
  • Show no haemolysis, or small alpha
  • Are NOT coagulase Pos.
165
Q

What do you do to distinguish Staph aureus from Staph spp.

A

Do a coagulase manitol test.

166
Q

E. coli

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Neg. Rod
  • Single, paired, short chains
  • Non-encapsulated, non-spore forming
  • Convex
  • Gray to whitish-yellow colonies
  • Large 2mm+
  • Ferments most carbs to acid and/or gas.
  • Citrate Neg
  • No H2S produced on TSI
  • Fecal odor
167
Q

Klebsiella

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Neg. Rod
  • Single, paired, chained
  • Convex
  • Mucoid
  • White to yellow-brown colonies
  • Large 2mm+
  • Converts most sugars to acid and/or gas
  • Citrate pos
  • No H2S
168
Q

Pseudomonas

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Neg. Rod
  • Single, pair, short chains
  • Large spreading colonies
  • Grayish-green with a dark center, and translucent, irregular edge.
  • Produces a blue-green pigment that diffuses into media - grape juice color
  • Ground glass appearance
  • Doesn’t ferment most sugars
  • Citrate Pos
169
Q

Pasteurella

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Neg. Rod
  • Small rod
  • Usually shows bipolar staining
  • Grayish-yellow
  • Smooth
  • Glistening and transparent colonies
  • Doesn’t ferment common sugars
  • Citrate Neg
  • No growth on McConkeys agar
170
Q

Proteus

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Neg. Rod
  • Single, pair, or as chains
  • Pleomorphism may be observed
  • usually 98% are motile
  • Warm chocolate cake odor
  • Citrate Pos
  • No acid or gas produced
  • Usually produces H2S
  • Large 2mm+
171
Q

Serratia

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Gram Neg. Rod
  • Single
  • Non-encapsulate, non-sporeforming
  • Smooth
  • Glistening
  • Large 2mm+
  • Pigment may be absent, usually orange to brick red
  • Citrate Pos
  • On TSI, see red slant / yellow butt
172
Q

Yeast

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Observe under methylene blue stain.
  • Ovoid forms much larger than cocci.
  • Observe for budding, entire, convex, white, sweet smelling colonies of medium size.
173
Q

Mold

Colonial Morphology

A
  • Large diffuse colonies

- Variable pigmentation

174
Q

Nocardia

A
  • Higher bacteria form
  • Dry, irregular, small, white, colonies
  • Dried toothpaste appearance
  • Under methylene blue see coccoid cells, hyphae, and.or mycelia.
175
Q

Portotheca

A
  • An achlorophyllic algae
  • Small, dull, white colonies
  • Semi-sweet smell
  • Under methylene blue see large matrix type cells
  • 6 to 8 times as large as yeast cells
  • Many will show a distinct capsule
176
Q

Coryneabacterium

A
  • Small, white colonies that don’t show up until 48 hours
  • Small, gram Pos. rods
  • May show polar staining
  • Observe Chinese Character formation
  • Bovis is non hemolytic
  • Pyogenes is Beta hemolytic
177
Q

Pure Culture

A

A culture in wich all or almost all the colonies are the same.

178
Q

Mixed Culture

A

A culture in which you have more than one type of organism, but each is a pure culture.

179
Q

Aesculin Blood Agar

A

Basic streaking media.

180
Q

Mueller-Hinton Agar

A

For sensitivity testing.

181
Q

McConkey Agar

A

Contains bile salts which inhibit Gram Pos. organisms.

182
Q

TSI Agar

A

Contains lactose, dextrose, and sucrose. Shows sugar fermentation and gas, H2S production. Use for ID of Gram Neg.

183
Q

Simmons Citrate Agar

A

Shows Gram Neg. organisms citrate utilization reactions.

184
Q

CAMP Agar

A

By reactions can distinguish between the Strep spp.

185
Q

Coagulase Manitol

A

Used to distinguish Staph aureus from Staph spp by coagulase and manitol utilization.

186
Q

TSI Tubes

A 
Start Red
Red = alkaline (Neg)
Yellow = acid produced (Pos)
Gas Production in Butt
H2S Production in Butt
187
Q

Simmons Citrate Tubes

A

Start Green
Green = No reaction (Neg)
Blue = Citrate utilized (Pos)

188
Q

OSHA is?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

189
Q

Appropriate measures that need to be taken with food or drink in practice?

A
  • Staff cannot be allowed to eat or drink when there is biological or chemical hazards present.
  • Must have a separate refrigerator for staff food only.
190
Q

What does MSDS Stand for?

A

Material Data Safety Sheet

191
Q

Where should MSDS be kept?

A

They should be kept in a centralized location in the hospital.

192
Q

Why are MSDS kept?

A

So employees can find out what to do and how to handle chemicals.

Parasitology Lab (10 decks)

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