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2nd Sem > Micropara finals > Flashcards

Micropara finals Flashcards

1
Q

Viruses

A
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2
Q

What cell type are viruses

A

Acellular

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3
Q

Viruses lack what?

A

Metabolic machinery

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4
Q

Identify the type of virus by its basic morphology:
Capsomers, Nucleic acid, Capsid

A

Naked virus

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5
Q

Identify the type of virus by its basic morphology:
Envelope, Capsid, Nucleic acid

A

Enveloped virus

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6
Q

Identify the DNA Viruses:
Parvovirus, Papovavirus, adenovirus, Iridovirus

A

Nonenveloped

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7
Q

Identify the DNA Viruses:
Hepadnavirus, Poxvirus, Herpesvirus

A

Enveloped

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8
Q

Identify the DNA Viruses:
Picornavirus, Reovirus

A

Nonenveloped

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9
Q

Identify the DNA Viruses:
Togavirus, Rhabdovirus, Orthomyxovirus, Bunyavirus, Coronavirus, Arenavirus, Retrovirus, Paramyxovirus

A

Enveloped al ss RNA

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10
Q

Enumerate the Family, Subfamily, Genus, and Species of Virus

A

Family - viridae
Subfamily - virinae
Genus - virus
Species - virus

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11
Q

What are the Primary characteristics of a virus?

A

Chemical nature, structure, Site of replication

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12
Q

What are the Secondary characteristics of a virus?

A

Host range, mode of transmission, Specific surface structures

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13
Q

Identify the characteristic of a virus:
RNA or DNA (ss or ds); + or - strand; MW

A

Chemical nature

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14
Q

Identify the characteristic of a virus:
shape, no of capsomeres, diameter of nucleocapsids

A

Structure of virion

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15
Q

Identify the characteristic of a virus:
Nucleus or cytoplasm

A

Site of replication

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16
Q

Identify the characteristic of a virus:
Host species; specific host tissues or cell types

A

Host range

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17
Q

Identify the characteristic of a virus:
e.g feces

A

Mode of transmission

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18
Q

Identify the characteristic of a virus:
e.g. antigenic properties

A

Specific surface structures

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19
Q

What icosahedral Viruses have No envelope

A

Papovaviridae, Picornaviridae

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20
Q

What Icosahedral viruses are ds DNA?

A

Herpesviridae, Hepadnaviridae

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21
Q

What icosahedral viruses have nucleus as their assembly site?

A

Papovaviridae, Herpesviridae, Hepadnaviridae

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22
Q

What are the similarities of all Helical viruses?

A

All have envelope and all have an assembly site of cytoplasm

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23
Q

Viruses that infect bacteria

A

Bacteriophages

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24
Q

Identify the type of bacteriophages:
Destroy their host cells (by lysis)

A

Lytic/Virulent

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25
Q

Identify the type of bacteriophages:
Do not destroy host cells
Integrate viral nucleic acid to host-cell genome and replicate without any cell lysis (Lysogeny)
Carried out in phages containing ds DNA

A

Temperate phages/ Avirulent

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26
Q

Enumerate the stages of virus replication

A
  1. Attachment (Adsorption)
  2. Penetration (injection)
  3. Synthesis of nucleic acid and protein 4
  4. Assembly and packaging
  5. Release (lysis)
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27
Q

Enumerate the steps of attachment of T4 bacteriophage virion to the cell wall of Escherichia coli and injection of DNA

A

(a) Unattached virion.
(b) Attachment to the
wall by the long tail
fibers interacting
with core
polysaccharide.
(c) Contact of cell wall
by the tail pins.
(d) Contraction of the
tail sheath and
injection of the DNA

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28
Q

True or False:
Unlike bacteriophages, animal viruses the entire virion is taken up into the cell

A

True

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29
Q

The Virus avoids the host’s immune response by

A

Growing inside cells

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30
Q

Viruses access to host cells because they have ______________________________ on host cells

A

attachment sites for host cells

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31
Q

Visible signs of viral infections are called

A

Cytopathic effects (CPE)

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32
Q

Is the smallest known infectious agents. Occurs only in plants, Does not posses protein coat

A

Viroids

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33
Q

Proteinaceous infectious particles. An unconventional virus

A

Prions

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34
Q

The possibility proteins are coded for by a gene found the normal host DNA

A

Altered protein

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35
Q

Medical-microbiology

A
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36
Q

Is a condition in which individuals of species live in close association with individuals of another species

A

Symbiosis

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37
Q

Identify the way in which symbiotic organisms interacts:
Form of symbiosis in which each organism benefit
e.g. bacteria in gut that aid digestion in both humans and animals and in turn obtain food from the human body

A

Mutualism

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38
Q

Identify the way in which symbiotic organisms interacts:
One organism benefits while the other organism neither benefits nor suffers from the interaction

e.g. this bacteria on epithelial surfaces such as in skin and respiratory tract

A

Commensalism

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39
Q

Identify the way in which symbiotic organisms interacts:
One organism lives in or on the body of another organism and is dependent on the host for its survival

e.g. viruses, parasitic worms, bacteria that causes strep throat, bubonic plague bacteria, cholera bacteria, etc.

A

Parasitism

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40
Q

Identify the way in which symbiotic organisms interacts:
The inhibition of one species of organisms by another

antibiotic production by microorganisms; myxobacteria and streptomycetes secreting lytic enzymes that degrade cell walls of other bacteria

A

Antagonism

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41
Q

Identify the way in which symbiotic organisms interacts:
As supply of nutrients decreases, rapidly growing species deprive those that grow slowly of food

e.g. microorganisms growing in fermented fruits/vegetables

A

Competition

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42
Q

Identify the way in which symbiotic organisms interacts:
One organism, the predator, feeds on and digests another organism, the prey

e.g. protozoa feed upon bacteria and some algae, bbdelovibrio bacteria feed upon other bacteria

A

Predation

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43
Q

Identify the characteristics of normal flora organisms:
due to chemical receptors in the body cell
e.g. proteins, polysaccharides, pili

A

Adhere to host cells

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44
Q

The detachment of host epithelial cells from body surfaces and replacement of the host cells by new cells

  • affects microbial adherence
A

Desquamation

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45
Q

Identify the characteristics of normal flora organisms:
Residents flora produce metabolic products that can inhibit other microbes

A

Production of antimicrobial substances

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46
Q

This is considered the first line of defense

A

Skin

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47
Q

Inhibitory substances in the skin include

A

Sweat, lysozyme, sebum

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48
Q

The upper respiratory tract compromises of what?

A

Mouth, teeth, gum

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49
Q

Part of the Upper Respiratory Tract that is abundant in moisture, high dissolve food and food particles, saliva (10^8 bacteria per ml)

A

Mouth

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50
Q

Part of the Upper Respiratory Tract that is anaerobic environment
-G+anae = S. mutans

A

Teeth

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51
Q

Part of the Upper Respiratory Tract that is fac. anae (S. sanguinis) to anae (Actinomyces)
G- Porphyromonas (gingivitis);
motile Treponema denticola &
Trichomonas tenax (gingivitis)

A

Gum

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52
Q

Has no normal flora due to cilia-driven flow of mucus

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

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53
Q

True or False:
Note that the plaque builds preferentially near
the gum line, first occurring directly adjacent to the mucous membranes of the
gingiva.

A

True

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54
Q

Part of the Gastrointestinal Tract that has numerous transient
- fluid < 10 bacteria per ml (due to HCl and digestive enzymes)
- Lactobacilli, Candida sp.

A

Stomach

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55
Q

Part of the Gastrointestinal Tract that has a few strong acid and bile

A

Small intestine

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56
Q

Part of the Gastrointestinal Tract that is the largest population in the human body
- 10 ^11 orgs/g wt of stool (25% feces)
- 300 diff bacterial species from feces
- 3x 10^13 daily thru defecation

A

Large intestine

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57
Q

Part of the Genitourinary that is free of microorganisms

A

Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder

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58
Q

Part of the Genitourinary
G+ = Staph. epidermidis,
Strep.faecalis,
Corynebacterium
G- cocci – Neisseria sp.
G- fac anae rods = E. coli

A

Lower urethra

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59
Q

Part of the Genitourinary
lactobacilli, enterococci,
Corynebacterium,
Candida albicans, high
anae bacteria

A

Vagina

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60
Q

A predominant organism in the vagina of women between the onset of puberty and the end of menopause.

A

Lactobacillus acidophilus

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61
Q

A pathogen that initiates response in healthy individuals

A

Primary pathogen

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62
Q

Causes infections that develop in people with low resistance, prolonged antibiotic therapy and immunosupressive therapy

A

Opportunistic pathogen

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63
Q

The degree of the ability of a pathogen to cause disease

A

Virulence

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64
Q

The microbial properties that enhance a microorganism’s pathogenicity

A

Virulence factors

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65
Q

Streptococcus pnuemoniae
w/ capsule = _______
w/o capsule = _______

A

w/ capsule = virulent
w/o capsule = avirulent

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66
Q

Identify the virulence factor:
capsules – resist phagocytosis

A

Cellular factors

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67
Q

Identify the virulence factor:
poisonous substances

A

Toxin producing

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68
Q

Toxin released in medium

A

Exotoxins

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69
Q

Toxin retained in cell

A

Endotoxins

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70
Q

Identify the virulence factor:
affects invasiveness (penetration of tissues)
Hyaluronidase produced by Strep. pyogenes in oral cavity
and Staph. aureus in skin – allows them to destroy
mucosa, affects tissue hydration & decelerates healing

A

Extracellular enzymes

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71
Q

 Excreted by Gram + &
Gram – bacteria
 Proteins
 Heat labile
 Convertible to toxoids
 Specific for a particular
type of cell function
 High toxicity ( minute
amounts)
 Eg. C. botulinum toxin

A

Exotoxin

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72
Q

 Released by lysed cells of
Gram – bacteria
 Lipopolysaccharide
 Heat stable
 Cannot form toxoids
 Generalized effect (eg.
shock & fever)
 Low toxicity (larger
amounts)
 E.coli toxin

A

Endotoxin

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73
Q

Factors Affecting Pathogenicity:
1. Cellular factors
2. Toxin producing
3. Extracellular enzymes

A

Properties inherent to the microbe

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74
Q

Factors Affecting Pathogenicity:
Resistance vs susceptibility

A

Ability of the host to resist infection

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75
Q

Steps for a pathogen to accomplish in order to cause disease

A
  1. infect the host
  2. metabolize & multiply
    in host tissue
  3. resist host defenses for
    a time
  4. damage the host
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76
Q

Type of resistance factor that is not directed at any one specific pathogen

A

Non-specific resistance factors

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77
Q

Type of resistance factors where host develops defense mechanisms in response to a specific pathogen, or specific resistance against that pathogen

A

Specific resistance factors

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78
Q

Internal defense mechanisms

A

A. Cellular mediators
B. Soluble mediators
C. Inflammation
D. Fever

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79
Q

External defense mechanisms:
chemical secretions

A

Lysozyme, sebum, lactoferrin, transferrin

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80
Q

Internal defense mechanism:
Cellular mediator that is non-phagocytic but kills tumor and virus-infected cells by binding to a target cell and releasing membrane-destroying protease and phospholipase enzymes

A

Natural killer cells

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81
Q

Internal defense mechanism:
Cellular mediator
Leukocytes (WBC)
Granulocytes – neutrophils, Eosinophils,
Basophils
Agranulocytes – lymphocytes, monocytes

A

Phagocytic cells

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82
Q

Internal defense mechanism:
Soluble mediator that 20 interacting proteins
(antimicrobial peptides) in serum – - activated by
invading mcgs or by antibody binding; some act as
protease, some act on surrounding inflammatory cells
-produced by mucous membrane cells &
phagocytes

A

Complement

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83
Q

Internal defense mechanism:
Soluble mediator that is soluble proteins produced and secreted by sensitized T lymphocytes

A

Lymphokines

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84
Q

Internal defense mechanism:
Soluble mediator are small proteins produced by eukaryotic cells in response to viral infection or foreign dsRNA

A

Interferons

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85
Q

This causes:
 loss of appetite
 headache
 raised body temperature
 raised metabolic rate
 Intensifies the effects of interferons, inhibits growth of
some microbes and speeds up body reactions that aid
repair

A

Fever

86
Q

 Not directed to a specific type of pathogen
 Skin, normal microflora, antimicrobial chemical secretions of the body (HCL
in gastric juice, lysozyme, etc)

A

Non-specific immunity

87
Q

 Directed to a specific type of pathogen
 Involves cells that specifically respond to antigens which are distinguished on the
basis of their surface markers.

A

Specific immunity

88
Q
  • mediated by antibodies (immunoglobulins); involves action of B cells
A

Humoral Immunity

89
Q

Cellular reactions directly mediated by T cells or their factors
(lymphokines)

A

Cellular Immunity

90
Q

Occur when people consume food
containing a toxin made by a microorganism
- also called Food intoxication

A

Food poisoning

91
Q

caused by heat
stable enterotoxin of Staphylococcus spp

A

Staphyloccocal food poisoning

92
Q

Caused by exotoxin-producing
bacteria (C. botulinum) acting on the central
nervous system causing respiratory failures

A

Botulism

93
Q

Caused by
mycotoxin-producing fungi (eg. ergot by
Claviceps purpurea & aflatoxin by A. flavus,
Penicillium)

A

Mycotoxin Food poisoning

94
Q

by Salmonella spp.;
abdominal pain, diarrhea

A

Salmonella gastroenteritis or Salmonellosis

95
Q

by Salmonella typhi;
infection of bloodstream; high fever

A

Typhoid fever

96
Q

by Campylobacter jejuni;
diarrhea in humans

A

Campylobacteriosis

97
Q

by Vibrio cholera;
don’t invade intestinal wall & body tissues but causes severe
diarrhea

A

Cholera

98
Q

by Yersinia enterocolitica
fever & severe abdominal pain, vomiting & diarrhea

A

Yersiniosis

99
Q

by Vibrio parahaemolyticus;
from consumption of contaminated shellfish
hemolysin & showing symptoms of “explosive” watery diarrhea;
blood poisoning (Septicemia

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis & Septicemia

100
Q

by E. coli;
from contaminated water, salads, raw vegetables

A

Traveller’s diarrhea

101
Q

by “shiga” toxin-producing bacteria, Shigella,
causing diarrhea in patients w/ blood & mucus in stools
(bacillary dysentery)

A

Shigellosis

102
Q

gastroenteritis –from raw meat & poultry

A

Clostridium perfingens

103
Q

by Listeria monocytogenes;
bacteria live in macrophages, makes hemolysin & causes
stillbirth or meningitis in infants & adults.

A

Listeriosis

104
Q

Clostridium perfingens um

A

1 um in diameter

105
Q

Listeria monocytogenes um

A

0.5 um

106
Q

by Trichinella (tiny worm)
flu-like but lasts for year or more

A

Trichinosis

107
Q

by Giardia lamblia
fatigue, nausea, intestinal gas cramps, weight loss

A

Giardiasis

108
Q

by Toxoplasma gondii (a protozoan)
can cause enlarged lymph nodes, sever muscle pain &
headaches & skin rash

A

Toxoplasmosis

109
Q

by tiny roundworm Anisakia
tingling sensation in throat, vomiting up worms, abdominal
pain, nausea

A

Anisakiasis

110
Q

Industrial Microbiology and Biotechnology

A
111
Q

The study of industrial importance/uses of microorganisms

A

Industrial Microbiology

112
Q

The use of living systems in technology

A

Biotechnology

113
Q

Makes use of genetically engineered organisms for the
production of commercially important products or
improvement of processes.

A

Recombinant DNA Technology

114
Q

Categories of Industrial Products

A
  1. Microbial cells
  2. Large molecules
  3. Primary metabolic products
  4. Secondary metabolic products
115
Q

Cells are used to chemically convert a
specific substance from one form to another

A

Bioconversion

116
Q

Essential features of an industrial microbiological process

A

Microorganism + Substrate -> Recovery and Purification of Product + Residue or Waste

117
Q

Products of
Microbial Dissimilation

A

 Alcohol & alcoholic beverages
 Vinegar- by Acetobacter,
Gluconobacter
 Lactic acid
 Organic acids- citrate, gluconate, fumarate

118
Q

Alcohol Fermentation by Saccharomyces cerevisiae

A

2 Pyruvic acid -> + 2 CO2 2 Acetaldehyde + 2NADH2 -> 2 Ethanol + 2NAD

119
Q

Lactic Acid Fermentation

A

2 Pyruvic acid + 2NADH2 -> +2NAD

120
Q

Bacterial enzymes

A

1.Streptokinase
2. DNA Polymerase/ Taq Polymerase

121
Q

Fungal enzymes

A
  1. Lipase - rhizopus
  2. Cellulase - by Trichoderma reesii
  3. Glucose oxidase - aspergillus sp, penicillium
122
Q

Identify the enzyme:
Streptococcus spp.
Treatment of patients following heart attacks

A

Streptokinase

123
Q

Identify the enzyme:
Streptomyces spp.; Bacillus spp.
Production of high-fructose syrups

A

Glucose isomerase

124
Q

Identify the enzyme:
Rhizopus spp.
Flavor improvement in processed food; improvement of cleaning action of detergents

A

Lipase

125
Q

Identify the enzyme:
Trichoderma reesii
Digestive aid

A

Cellulase

126
Q

Identify the enzyme:
Aspergiullus spp;
Penicillium spp.

Removes glucose from eggs prior to drying; removes oxygen from canned foods, soft drinks and beer; manufacture

A

Glucose oxidase

127
Q

An enzyme is bound on a solid material such as paper, wood chips, ceramic and glass beads, or ion-exchange resins. Expanded greatly the commercial uses of microbial enzymes

A

Immobilized enzyme technology

128
Q

Microbial synthesis amino acids

A

Glutamic acid by Corynebacterium glutamicum
Lysine – by mutant strain of C. glutamicum

129
Q

Microbial Synthesis Pharmaceutical Products

A

Insulin – by genetically engineered E. coli
Interferons
Streptokinase
Interleukin

130
Q
  1. Dextran –by Leuconostoc mesenteroides
    - stabilizer in food products; blood plasma substitute
  2. Xanthan gum- by Xanthomonas campestris
    - Stabilizer & emulsifying agent in foods
  3. Beta-carotene- by Blakeslea trispora
    - Yellow coloring in foods
  4. Vit. B12- Streptomyces olivaceus, Propioni freudenreichii
    - treatment of pernicious anemia; food & animal feed
    supplementation
  5. Riboflavin - by Eremothecium ashbyi
    - Vitamin supplement
  6. Giberellic acid – by Fusarium moniliforme
    - Growth hormone in plants
A
131
Q

Application in Mining and Petroleum Industry, Bioremidiation and Agriculture

A

Microbial Biotechnology

132
Q

Produce acids and oxidize ore w/ subsequent precipitation of metal

e.g. by Thiobacillus thiooxidans & Thiobacillus
ferooxidans

A

Leaching

133
Q

Recovery of oils from wells mcgs produce acid to separate rocks, decrease viscosity
e.g. Psuedomonas putida - gen. Eng’d

A

Application in Petroleum Industry

134
Q

The use of naturally occuring or genetically engineered biological agent (mcgs) to remove toxic pollutants from the environment
e.g Psuedomanas putida - gen. Eng’d

A

Bioremediation

135
Q

Used as bioinsecticides
e.g Bt toxin by Bacillus thuringensis
B. larvae, B. popilliae
 Production of transgenic plants using a binary vector
system in Agrobacterium tumefaciens

A

Application in Agriculture

136
Q

Methods of gene transfer

A

Conjugation
Transformation
Transduction

137
Q

Medical Parasitology

A
138
Q

Focuses on parasites which cause disease in humans; also of great importance in veterinary medicine

A

Medical Parasitology

139
Q

A very diverse set of eukaryotic pathogens

A

Parasites

140
Q

Unicellular eukaryotes e.g. plasmodium

A

Protozoa

141
Q

Multicellular organisms

A

Metazoa

142
Q

flatworms these include flukes and tape worms

A

Platyhelminthes

143
Q

Elongated round worms with rigid cuticula

A

Nematodes

144
Q

Insects, ticks and mites which either are parasitic or
transmit parasites as vectors

A

Arthropods

145
Q

live on, but not in
their hosts

A

Ectoparasites

146
Q

live within the body
and tissues of their hosts.

A

Endoparasite

147
Q

Most parasites are

A

obligate parasites

148
Q

Ascaris 1.5 billion
Hookworms 1.3 billion
Whipworms 1 billion
Filarial worms 657 million
Malaria 500 million
Schistosomes 210 million
Amebiasis 50 million
Taenia tapeworms 50 million
Clonorchis 20 million
Chagas’ Disease 15 million

A
149
Q

Parasites in the brain

A

Strongyloide, Ascaris, Toxoplasma, Echinostoma revolutum

150
Q

Parasites in the eyes and lungs

A

Trichinella, Loa loa, Toxoplasma, Dirofilaria, Paragonimus, Ascaris

151
Q

Parasites in the chest and liver

A

Dirofilaria - loa loa
Clonorchis
Fasciola

152
Q

Parasites in the intestine

A

Fasciolopsis, Giardia, Entamoeba, Ascaris Tapreworm, Ancylostoma, Trichinella

153
Q

Are caused by
transmittable parasitic agents including
bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa and a
variety of metazoans commonly referred
to as helminths or worms

A

Infectious diseases

154
Q

Usually implies replication of
the agent resulting in a growing number
of pathogens

A

Infection

155
Q

Are characterized by a
constant number of pathogens. Severity
of disease often depends on infection
dose.

A

Infestation

156
Q

Is by definition the one in
which the parasite reproduces sexually

A

Definitive host

157
Q

Additional hosts are then designated

A

Intermediate hosts

158
Q

Host which actively transmit parasites to humans
are often called

A

Vectors

159
Q

In _____ or transport hosts no parasite
development occurs

A

paratenic

160
Q

Are alternate animal host from
which the parasite can be transmitted to humans
(zoonosis) or domestic animals

A

Reservoir host

161
Q

Single host (no vector or intermediate host)

A

Direct Life Cycle

162
Q

Requires a vector or an intermediate host of another species

A

Indirect lifecycle

163
Q

Passive entry

A

Feeding drinking, direct contact, congenital transmission, transfussions

164
Q

Active entry

A

Direct skin penetration by a specialized form of the parasite
By using a vector

165
Q

First animal

A

Protozoan

166
Q

Vegetative state which feeds upon bacteria and particulate nutrients

A

Protozoa Trophozoite

167
Q

Some protozoa produce a protective capsule under adverse conditions

A

Protozoa Cyst

168
Q

Protozoal cells without mitochondria

A

Archaezoa

169
Q

Cells without mitochondria and microtubules

A

Microsporidia

170
Q

Protozoa exhibiting amoeboid movement with the help of indefinite number of pseudopodia

A

Rhizopoda

171
Q

Protozoa have an apical complex of some special organelles known as sporozoa

A

Apicomplexan

172
Q

Cells with numerous cilia

A

Ciliophora

173
Q

This phylum includes two different groups of flagellated protozoa

A

Euglenozoa

174
Q

World-wide distribution, lives in the small intestine and
results in malabsorption

A

Giardia lamblia

175
Q

May invade the colon and cause bloody diarrhoea –
amoebic dysentery. Also causes amoebic liver abscess

A

Entamoeba histolytica

176
Q

More prevalent in the immunocompromised

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

177
Q

Parasitizes the small intestinal mucosa and may
cause diarrhoea for several weeks

A

Cyclospora cyatenensis

178
Q

A large motile ciliated parasite that lives in the colon of
pigs, humans and rodents and can lead to colonic ulceration

A

Balantidium coli

179
Q

The cause of malaria. There are 4 species
that infect man: P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale and P.
malariae

A

Plasmodium

180
Q

Transmitted by the ingestion of
oocysts from cat faeces. Infection can lead to ocular
problems and is also a cause of neonatal toxoplasmosis

A

Toxoplasma gondi

181
Q

Transmitted by sand flies, can lead to
visceral, cutaneous and mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

A

Leishmania

182
Q

Haemoflagellates cause

A

Trypanosoma

183
Q

Multicellular
Kingdom: Metazoa
Bilaterally Symmetric animals

A

Helminthes

184
Q

 Dorsal ventral flattening & a definite head end – most obvious
feature
 Bilateral symmetry
 Unsegmented body, 3 germ layers
 No circulatory & respiratory systems, no skeleton, but with
excretory system

A

Platyhelminths (flat worms)

185
Q

Taenia (tapeworm),
Echinococcus, Diphylobotrium

A

Tape-like (Class Cestoda)

186
Q

Fasciola (liverfluke),
Schistosoma, Chlonorcis, Paragonimus

A

Leaf-like (Class Trematoda)

187
Q

Acquired by ingestion of
contaminated, uncooked beef

A

Taenia saginata

188
Q

Acquired by ingestion of
contaminated, uncooked pork
that contains cystercerci

A

Taenia solium

189
Q

A common parasite
of humans and pigs in South- east Asia.
This parasite is one of the largest
trematodes to infect man (8cm in length)
and lives in the upper intestine. Chronic
infection leads to inflammation,
ulceration and haemorrhage of the small
intestine

A

Fasciolopsis buski

190
Q

Widespread in the Far East and South east
Asia, the parasite is acquired by ingestion of
infective metacercariae in raw or pickled
crustaceans

A

Paragonimus westermani ( lung fluke)

191
Q

A parasite of sheep, humans become
infected when ingest metacercariae
that have encysted on watercress.
The adult trematode lives in the
intra-hepatic bile ducts of the liver.
______” can lead to severe
anaemia in humans

A

Fasciola Hepatica

192
Q

Widespread in China, Japan, Korea
and Taiwan, this parasite is
acquired by ingestion of infective
metacercariae in raw or pickled fish

A

Clonorchis sinensis

193
Q

 Vermiform or cylindrical, unsegmented body
 Bilateral symmetry
 Complete digestive system but lack circulatory & respiratory
systems
 Sexual reproduction
 Mostly dioecious (separate sexes), some are hermaphroditic
 Examples: Ascaris, Dracunculus, Encylostoma, Enterobius, Filaria,
Strongyloides,Trichinella

A

NEMATHELMINTHS/NEMATODES
(ROUND WORMS)

194
Q

 A soil transmitted helminth
 prevalent in warm, humid conditions
 Can cause diarrhoea, rectal prolapse and
anaemia in heavily-infected people

A

Trichuris (whipworm)

195
Q

 A major cause of anaemia in the tropics

A

Ancylostoma and Necator (hookworms)

196
Q

 inhabits the small bowel
 infection more severe in
immunospressed people (e.g.
HIV/AIDS, malnutrition, intercurrent
disease)

A

Strongyloides

197
Q

 Found world-wide in conditions
of poor hygiene, transmitted by
the faecal- oral route
 Adult worms lives in the small
intestine
 Causes eosinophilia

A

Ascaris (roundworm)

198
Q

 prevalent in cold and temperate
climates but rare in the tropics
 found mainly in children

A

Enterobius (pinworm or
threadworm)

199
Q

Transmitted by the simulium black fly,
this microfilarial parasite can cause
visual impairment, blindness and severe
itching of the skin in those infected

A

Onchocerca volvulus

FILARIA WORM

200
Q

The major causative agent of lymphatic
filariasis

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

201
Q

Another microfilarial parasite that causes
lymphatic filariasis

A

Brugia malayi

202
Q

 A world-wide infection of
dogs and cats
 Human infection occurs
when embryonated eggs
are ingested from dog or
cat faeces
 It is common in children
and can cause visceral
larva migrans (VLM)

A

Toxocara

203
Q

Can be defined as the study of disease

A

Epidemiology

204
Q

Is an infectious disease that can be transmitted from one person to another

A

Communicable disease

205
Q

Is a communicable disease that is easily transmitted from person-to-person

A

Contagious disease

206
Q

Is one that humans acquire from animal sources

A

Zoonotic disease

207
Q

___ of a particular disease is the number of new cases of that disease in a defined populating during a specific time period

A

Incidence

208
Q

Is the number of new cases of a particular disease that occurred during a specified time period per a specifically defined population

A

Morbidity rate

209
Q

Is the number of cases of the disease existing in a given population during a specific time period

A

Period prevalence

210
Q

Is the number of cases of the disease existing in a given population at a particular moment in time

A

Point Prevalence

211
Q

Is the ratio of the number of people who died of a particular disease during a specified time period per a specified population

A

Mortality rate

212
Q
A

2nd Sem (13 decks)

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