Funda Finals Flashcards

1
Q

Nutrition

A
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2
Q

Sum of all the interactions between an organism and the food it consumes. What an individual eats and how to body uses it

A

Nutrition

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3
Q

Organic and inorganic substances found in food that are required for body functioning

A

Nutrients

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4
Q

The nutrient content of a specified amount of food

A

Nutritive Value

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5
Q

Essential Nutrients

A
  1. Water
  2. Carbohydrates, Fats and Proteins
  3. Vitamins and Minerals
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6
Q

Needed in large amount is the body (hundreds of grams)

A

Macronutrients

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7
Q

Needed in small amounts to metabolize the energy-providing nutrients

A

Micronutrients

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8
Q

Types of carbohydrates

A

Simple (Sugar) and complex (starches and fiber)

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9
Q

High sugar content and solid fat foods

A

Empty calories

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10
Q

Simplest of all CHO, water soluble and produced by both plants and animals

A

Sugars

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11
Q

Glucose, fructose and galactose

A

Monosaccharides

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12
Q

Either natural or manufactured sources and have almost no calories

A

Sugar substitutes

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13
Q

Insoluble, nonsweet forms of carbohydrates. Nearly all exist naturally in plants

A

Starches

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14
Q

A complex carbohydrate derived from plants, supplies roughage or bulk to the diet

A

Fibers

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15
Q

Biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions

A

Enzymes

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16
Q

Desired end-product is monosaccharides and are absorbed in the ____

A

Small intestine

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17
Q

Major source of body energy

A

Metabolism, storage, and conversion

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18
Q

____ continues to circulate in the blood and provide readily available of energy

A

Glucose

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19
Q

Glucose is stored as either glycogen or as fat in the

A

Cells, liver, and skeletal muscles

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20
Q

Made up primarily of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen from amino acids and organic molecules

A

Proteins

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21
Q

Those that cannot be manufactured by the body and must be supplied in the diet

A

Essential amino acids

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22
Q

Those that the body can manufacture

A

Nonessential amino acid

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23
Q

Contains all the essential amino acids plus many nonessential ones

A

Complete proteins

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24
Q

Lack one or more essential amino acids and are usually from plants

A

Incomplete proteins

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25
Q

In the stomach ___ breaks down protein into smaller units

A

Pepsin

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26
Q

Building tissue

A

Anabolism

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27
Q

Breaking down tissue

A

Catabolism

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28
Q

Reflects the status of protein nutrition in the body. It is the measure of the degree of anabolism and catabolism

A

Maintaining nitrogen balance

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29
Q

Organic substances that are greasy and insoluble in water but soluble in alcohol or ether

A

Lipids

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30
Q

Lipids that are solid at room temperature

A

Fats

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31
Q

Are lipids that are liquid at room temperature

A

Oils

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32
Q

Basic structural units of lipids

A

Fatty acids

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33
Q

Fatty acids All carbon atoms are filled with hydrogen

A

Saturated

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34
Q

Fatty acid that one that could accomodate more hydrogen atoms that it currently does

A

Unsaturated

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35
Q

Unsaturated fatty acid with one double bond between 2 carbon atoms

A

Mono-unsaturated

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36
Q

Unsaturated fatty acid with more than one double bond

A

Poly-unsaturated

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37
Q

Unsaturated fatty acids that contain 1 or more unconjugated double bond in the trans configuration. Generated during industrial processing through partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils. Established a positive association between the intake of indstrial trans fatty acids

A

Trans Fatty Acids

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38
Q

Simple lipids, consisting of glycerol with 3 fatty acids attached

A

Glycerides

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39
Q

Fatlike substances that is both produced in the body and found in food of animal origin, needed for bile acids and synthesis of steroid hormones

A

Cholesterol

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40
Q

Lipid Digestion

A
  1. Begins at the stomach but mainly digested in the small intestine through bile, pancreatic lipase and enteric lipase
  2. End products are glycerol, fatty acids and cholesterol which are not water soluble
  3. The liver and intestine will convert then to stable soluble compound for use in the body called lipoproteins
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41
Q

Inorganic compounds and as free ions

A

Minerals

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42
Q

_____ and ____ make up 80% of all minerals in the body

A

Calcium and phosphorus

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43
Q

The relationship between the energy derived from the food and the energy used by the body

A

Energy Balance

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44
Q

Amount of energy that nutrients of foods supply to the body

A

Energy intake caloric value

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45
Q

Is the unit of heat energy

A

Calorie

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46
Q

The energy liberated from the metabolism of food has been determined to be

A

4 calories/ gram of carbohydrate
4 calories/ gram of protein
9 calories/ gram of fat
7 calories. gram of alcohol

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47
Q

Refers to all biochemical and physiologic process by which the body grows and maintains itself

A

Metabolism

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48
Q

Is the rate at which the body metabolized food to maintain the energy requirements of an individual who is awake and at rest

A

Basal metabolic rate

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49
Q

Is the amount of energy required to maintain basic body functions; in other words, the calories required to maintain life

A

Resting energy expenditure

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50
Q

____ is calculated by measuring the REE in the early morning, 12 hours after eating

A

BMR

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51
Q

Is the optimal weight recommended for optimal health

A

Ideal body weight

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52
Q

Is an indicator of changes in body fat stores and whether an individual’s weight is appropriate for height

A
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53
Q

Formula for BMI

A

weight in kilograms/ height in meters

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54
Q

FNRI-DOST Nutritional Guide for Filipinos

A
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55
Q

Refers to a calorie intake in excess of daily energy requirements, resulting in storage of energy in the form of adipose tissue

A

Overnutrition

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56
Q

Refers to an intake of nutrients insufficient to meet daily energy requirement

A

Malnutrition

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57
Q

Significant problem of clients with long-term deficiencies in caloric intake

A

Protein-calorie malnutrition

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58
Q

Non-invasive technique that aim to quantify body composition

A

Anthropometric measurements

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59
Q

Performed to determine fat stores

A

Skinfold measurement

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60
Q

Measure of fat, muscle and skeleton

A

Mid-arm circumference

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61
Q

Include the client’s usual eating patterns and habits

A

Dietary data
1. 24-H food recall
2. Food frequency record
3. Food diary
4. Diet history

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62
Q

This diet is limited to water, tea, coffee, clear broths, ginger ale. This diet provides the client with fluid and carbohydrate. Short term diet provided after surgeries, acute stage of infection. Major objective of this diet are to relieve stimulation of the GI tract

A

Clear Liquid Diet

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63
Q

This diet contains only liquids or foods that turn into liquid at body temperature, such as ice cream.

A

Full liquid diet

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64
Q

It is often ordered for clients who have difficulty chewing and swallowing. Low-residue diet containing very few uncooked foods

A

Soft diet

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65
Q

Ordered when the client’s appetite, ability to eat, and tolerance for certain foods may change

A

Diet as Tolerated (DAT)

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66
Q

Is provided when the client cannot ingest foods or the upper GI tract is impaired and the transport of food to the small intestine is interrupted

A

Enteral Nutrition

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67
Q

Devices are used for long-term nutritional support. Tubes are placed surgically or by laparoscopy through the abdominal wall into the stomach

A
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68
Q

Elimination

A
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69
Q

Identify the Altered urine
Production:
Production of abnormally large amounts of urine by the kidneys

A

Polyuria

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70
Q

Identify the Altered urine production:
Low urine output

A

Oliguria

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71
Q

Identify the Altered urine production:
Refers to a lack of urine production

A

Anuria

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72
Q

Identify the Altered urine production:
Voiding at frequent intervals

A

Urinary Frequency

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73
Q

Identify the Altered urine production:
Voiding 2 or more times at night

A

Nocturia

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74
Q

Identify the Altered urine production:
Sudden, strong desire to void

A

Urgency

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75
Q

Identify the Altered urine production:
Voiding that is either painful or difficult

A

Dysuria

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76
Q

Involuntary urination in children beyond age of voluntary controlb

A

Enuresis

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77
Q

When emptying of the bladder is impaired, urine accumulates and the bladder becomes overdistended

A

Urinary retention

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78
Q

Identify the urinary incontinence:
Occurs because of weak pelvic floor muscles or urethral hypermobility, causing urine leakage

A

Stress incontinence

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79
Q

Identify the urinary incontinence:
An urgent need to void and the inability to stop urine leakage, which can range from a few drops to soaking of undergarments

A

Urge incontinence

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80
Q

Identify the urinary incontinence:
Both SUI and UI

A

Mixed incontinence

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81
Q

Identify the urinary incontinence:
When the bladder overfills and urine leaks out due to pressure on the urinary sphincter

A

Overflow incontinence

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82
Q

Identify the urinary incontinence:
Results from factors outside of the urinary tract

A

Functional incontinence

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83
Q

Urine remaining in the bladder following voiding

A

Postvoid residual (PVR)

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84
Q

A behavior-oriented continence training program that may consist of bladder retaining

A

Managing Urinary Incontinence

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85
Q

Requires involvement of the nurse, client, and support. Clients must be alert and physically able to participate in the training protocol

A

Continence training

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86
Q

Identify the type of continence training:
Requires that the client postpone voiding, resist or inhibit the sensation of urgency, and void according to a timetable

A

Bladder retaining

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87
Q

Identify the type of continence training:
Timed or prompted voiding and scheduled toileting, attempts to keep clients dry by having them void at regular intervals

A

Habit training

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88
Q

Clients who have a flaccid bladder may use manual pressure on the bladder to promote bladder emptying

A

Crede’s Maneuver

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89
Q

A flushing or washing-out with a specified solution

A

Urinary irrigations

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90
Q

The surgical rerouting of urine from the kidneys to a site other than the bladder

A

Urinary diversion

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91
Q

The surgeon transplants the ureters to an isolated section of the terminal ileum

A

Conventional ileal conduit

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92
Q

The surgeon brings the detached ureter through the abdominal wall and attached it to an opening in the skin

A

Cutaneous ureterostomy

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93
Q

The surgeon sutures that bladder to the abdominal wall and creates an opening through the abdominal and bladder walls for drainage

A

Vesicostomy

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94
Q

The surgeon inserts a catheter into the renal pelvis via an incision in the flank or by percutaneous placement into the kidney

A

Nephrostomy

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95
Q

The surgeon introduces the ureters into the sigmoid colon, thereby allowing urine to flow through the colon and out of the rectum

A

Ureterosigmoidostomy

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96
Q

The expulsion of feces from the anus and rectum. Also called bowel movement

A

Defecation

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97
Q

What is used to check defecation

A

Bristol Stool Scale

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98
Q

Defined as fewer than three bowel movements a week

A

Constipation

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99
Q

A mass or collection of hardened feces in the folds of the rectum

A

Fecal impaction

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100
Q

Identify the fecal elimination problem:
Refers to the passage of liquid feces and an increased frequency of defecation

A

Diarrhea

101
Q

Identify the fecal elimination problem:
Refers to the loss of voluntary ability to control fecal and gaseous discharges through the anal sphincter

A

Bowel incontinence

102
Q

The presence of excessive flatus in the intestines and leads to stretching and inflation of the intestines

A

Flatulence

103
Q

Is a solution introduced into the rectum and large intestine

A

Enema

104
Q

Is an opening for the gastrointestinal, urinary, or respiratory tract onto the skin

A

Ostomy

105
Q

Circulation

A
106
Q

When the heart ejects the blood into pulmonary and systemic circulation

A

Systole

107
Q

Is when the ventricles fill with blood. The diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle is twice as long as the systolic phase

A

Diastole

108
Q

Beginning of ventricular systole. Closure of the atrioventricular valves, tricuspid and the mitral

A

S1 - first sound

109
Q

Beginning of the ventricular diasstole. Caused by closure of the semilunar valves, aortic and pulmonic

A

S2 - second sound

110
Q

Depolarization of atria in response to SA node triggering

A

P-wave

111
Q

Delay of AV node to allow filling of ventricles

A

PR Interval

112
Q

Depolarization of ventricles, triggers main pumping contractions

A

QRS Complex

113
Q

Beginning of ventricle repolarization, should be flat

A

ST Segment

114
Q

With each contraction, a certain amount of blood known as

A

Stroke volume

115
Q

Is the amount of blood pumped by the ventricles in 1 min Sv*HR

A

Cardiac output

116
Q

States that the length of ventricular muscle fibers at the end of diastole directly affects the strength of contraction

A

Frank-Starling Law

117
Q

Moves blood from the heart to tissues, maintaining a constant flow to the capillary beds

A

Arterial circulation

118
Q

Blood always moves from an area of _______ to ______

A

Higher to lower pressure

119
Q

Is the force exerted on arterial walls by the blood flowing within the vessel

A

Blood pressure

120
Q

Maintains blood flow to the tissues throughout the cardiac cycle

A

Mean arterial pressure

121
Q

Assisted by fall in intrathoracic pressure during breathing. Skeletal muscle activity to increase muscle contraction towards the heart

A

Venous return

122
Q

Test for inflammatory process

A

C-reactive protein

123
Q

N amino acid that has been shown to be increased in many individuals with atherosclerosis

A

Elevated Homocysteine Level

124
Q

Used for clients with undergoing surgery

A

Sequential compression devices

125
Q

Movement of the molecules through a semipermeable membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

A

Diffusion

126
Q

The movement of water molecules from a less concentrated area to a more concentraed area in an attempt to equalize the concentration of solutions on two sides of a membrane

A

Osmosis

127
Q

Regulates ECF volume and osmolality by retention and excretion of fluids

Regulation of electrolyte levels

Regulation of pH of the ECF by retention of hydrogen ions
Excretion of metabolic wastes

A

Kidneys

128
Q

Pumps blood with sufficient pressure to allow urine formation

A

Heart

129
Q

Maintains acid-balance and exhalation of moisture

A

Lungs

130
Q

Hypothalamus makes ADH > stored and released by ___ to conserve water

A

Pituitary gland

131
Q

Secretes aldosterone in the cortex to retain sodium and lose potassium

A

Adrenal gland

132
Q

Regulates calcium and phosphate

A

Parathyroid gland

133
Q

Hormone that can cause vasoconstriction

A

Angiotensin II

134
Q

Released by adrenal gland and hoes to the DCT and Collecting Ducts

A

Aldosterone

135
Q

Sympha and parasympha neural activities

A

Baroreceptors

136
Q

_____ in the hypothalamus from intracellular dehydration

A

Thirst center

137
Q

Secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus

A

Renin

138
Q

Protein in the blood produced by the liver

A

Angiotensinogen

139
Q

proteolytic enzyme in capillary beds

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme

140
Q

What are the major cations?

A

Sodium, Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium

141
Q

What are the major anions?

A

Chloride, Bicarbonate, Phospahate, Protein

142
Q

Is a substance that releases hydrogen ions

A

Acid

143
Q

Accepts hydrogen ions

A

Bases

144
Q

The relative acidity r alkalinity of a solution is measured by its pH

A

pH

145
Q

Solution with a pH lower than 7 are

A

acidic

146
Q

Solutions with a pH higher than 7 are

A

Alkaline

147
Q

Changes in pH are resisted through varied

A

buffer systems

148
Q

Influences co2 in the bloodstream, rapid regulatory measure over minutes

A

Respiration

149
Q

Control pH by secreting/retaining Hydrogen ions
Regenerates bicarbonate or reabsorbs them
Slow process, over a few days but buffer large quantities

A

Renal system

150
Q

Identify the disturbance in fluid volume:
Isotonic loss of water and electrolytes Fluid volume deficit

A

Hypovolemia

151
Q

Identify the disturbance in fluid volume:
Isotonic gain of water and electrolytes fluid volume excess

A

hypervolemia

152
Q

Identify the disturbance in fluid volume:
Hyperosmolar loss of water

A

Dehydration

153
Q

Identify the disturbance in fluid volume:
Hypo-osmolar gain of water

A

Overhydration

154
Q

Fluids shifts from vascular space to an area not readily accessible as ECF

A

Third space syndrome

155
Q

Excess interstitial fluid, apparent in areas where tissue pressure is low

A

Edema

156
Q

Edema that leaves a small depression or pit after finger pressure

A

Pitting edema

157
Q

Always secondary to an increase in total body sodium content

A

Fluid volume excess

158
Q

Loss of sodium and gain of water

A

hyponatremia

159
Q

Loss of water and gain of sodium

A

Hypernatremia

160
Q

Loss of potassium

A

Hypokalemia

161
Q

Decreased potassium excretion

A

Hyperkalemia

162
Q

Block sodium retention in distal tubule

A

Thiazide

163
Q

Block sodium reabsorption in the ascending LOH

A

Loop

164
Q

Blocks retention at the last distal tubule

A

K-sparing

165
Q

Sensory Alterations

A
166
Q

Comes from many sources in and outside the body particularly through the senses

A

Stimulation

167
Q

A sense that enables a person to be aware of the position and movement of body parts without seeing them

A

Kinesthetic

168
Q

Sense that allows a person to recognize the size, shape, and texture of an object

A

Stereognosis

169
Q

Deficit in the normal function of sensory reception and perception

A

Sensory deficit

170
Q

Gradual decline in the ability of the
lens to accommodate or focus on close
objects

A

Presbyopia

171
Q

Cloudy or opaque areas in part of the
lens or the entitre lens that interfere
with passage of light through lens

A

Cataract

172
Q

Problems that result from prolonged
computer, tablet, e-reader, and cell
phone use

A

Computer vision syndrome
or digital eyestrain

173
Q

Tear glands produce too few tears,
resulting in itching, burning, or even
reduced vision

A

Dry eyes

174
Q

A slowly progressive increase in
intraocular pressure (Normal IOP 10-
21 mm Hg)

A

Glaucoma

175
Q

Macula (part of the retina) losses its
ability to function efficiently

A

Macular Degeneration

176
Q

Common progressive hearing
disorder in older adults

A

Presbycusis

177
Q

Buildup of earwax in the external
auditory canal

A

Cerumen accumulation

178
Q

Common condition in older
adulthood, usually resulting from
vestibular dysfunction

A

Dizziness & Disequilibrium

179
Q

Common condition in older
adulthood, usually resulting from
vestibular dysfunction

A

Dizziness & Disequilibrium

180
Q

Decrease in salivary production that
leads to thicker mucus and a dry
mouth

A

Xerostomia

181
Q

Common progressive hearing
disorder in older adults

A

Presbycusis

182
Q

Buildup of earwax in the external
auditory canal

A

Cerumen accumulation

183
Q

Reduced sensory input (sensory
deficit from visual or hearing loss),
the elimination of patterns or meaning
from input (exposure to strange
environment), and restrictive
environments (bed rest) that produce
monotony and boredom

A

Sensory deprivation

184
Q

Excessive sensory stimulation
prevents the brain from responding
appropriately to or ignoring certain
stimuli.

A

Sensory Overload

185
Q

Varied degees of inability to speak,
interpret, or understand language

A

Aphasia

186
Q

Inability to name common objects or
express simple ideas in words or in
writing

A

Expressive aphasia

187
Q

Inability to understand written or spoken
language

A

Receptive aphasia

188
Q

Inability to understand language or
communicate orally

A

Global aphasia

189
Q

Self Concept

A
190
Q

Individual’s view of self

A

Self-concept

191
Q

True or False:
Self concept is always changing

A

True

192
Q

Develops trust following consistency in caregiving and nurturing interactions
Distinguishes self from others

A

Trust vs Mistrust (Birth to 1 year)

193
Q

Begins to communicate likes and dislikes
Increasingly independent in thought and actions
Appreciates body appearance and function (dressing, feeding, talking and walking)

A

Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt (1-3 years)

194
Q

Identifies with gender
Enhances self-awareness
Increases language skill, including identification of feelings

A

Initiative vs guilt (3-6 years)

195
Q

Incorporates feedback from peers and teachers
Increases self-esteem with new skill mastery
Aware of strengths and limitations

A

Industry vs Inferiority (6-12 years)

196
Q

Accepts body changes/maturation
Examines attitudes values, and beliefs; establishes goals for the future
Feels positive about expanded sense of self

A

Identity vs Role Confusion (12-20 years)

197
Q

Has stable, positive feelings about self
Experiences successful role transitions and increased responsibilities

A

Intimacy vs Isolation Mid 20’s Mid 40’s

198
Q

Able to accept changes in appearance and physical endrance
Reassesses life goals
Shows contentment with aging

A

Generativity vs Self-Absorption

199
Q

Feels positive about life and its meaning
Interested in providing legacy for the next generation

A

Ego integrity vs Despair Late 60s to Death

200
Q

Components of self concept

A

Identity
Body Image
Self-esteem
Role performance

201
Q

Sexuality

A
202
Q

First 3 years of life are crucial

A

Infancy and Early Childhood

203
Q

Parents, educators and peer groups serve as role model

A

School-age years

204
Q

Emotional changes are dramatic as the physical ones

A

Puberty/ Adolescence

205
Q

Intimacy and sexuality are issues

A

Young adulthood

206
Q

Physical changes r/t aging affect sexual functioning

A

Middle adulthood

207
Q

Sexuality is an important aspect of health

A

Older Adult

208
Q

Identify the factors influencing sexuality:
Impact of pregnancy/menstruation

A

Sociocultural dimension

209
Q

Identify the factors influencing sexuality:
Contraception, abortion and prevention of STI

A

Decisional issues

210
Q

Identify the factors influencing sexuality:
Infertility, sexual abuse

A

Alterations in sexual health

211
Q

PLISSIT

A

Permission to discuss sexuality issues
Limited Information r/t sexual health problems being experienced
Specific Suggestions
Intensive Therapy

212
Q

Spiritual Health

A
213
Q

Spiritus meaning in latin

A

Breath or wind

214
Q

They do not believe in the existence of God

A

Atheist

215
Q

They believe that there is no known ultimate reality

A

Agnostic

216
Q

FICA

A

Faith or belief
Importance and influence
Community
Address (interventions)

217
Q

Stress and Coping

A
218
Q

Process beginning with an event that evokes a degree

A

Stress

219
Q

Tension-producing stimuli operating within or on any system

A

Stressors

220
Q

How a person interprets the impact of the stressor

A

Appraisal

221
Q

How the body responds physiologically to stressors

A

General adaptation syndrome (GAS)

222
Q

CNS is aroused and body defenses are mobilized

A

Alarm stage

223
Q

Body stabilizes and responds in an attempt to compensate for the changes induced by the alarm stage

A

Resistance stage

224
Q

Continuous stress causes progressive breakdown of compensatory mechanism

A

Exhaustion stage

225
Q

Person’s cognitive and behavioral efforts to manage a stressor

A

Coping

226
Q

Regulate emotional distress and thus give a person protection from anxiety and stress

A

Ego- defense mechanism

227
Q

begins when a person
experiences, witnesses, or is
confronted with a traumatic event
and responds with intense fear or
helplessness

A

PTSD

228
Q

recurrent and intrusive
recollections of the event

A

Flashbacks

229
Q

Trauma
a person experiences from witnessing
other people‘s suffering

A

Secondary traumatic stress

230
Q

it helps understand patient‘s individual
responses to stressors and families
and communities responses.

A

Betty Neuman’s Systems Model

231
Q

Focuses on promoting health and
managing stress.

A

Pender’s Health Promotion Model

232
Q

Loss and Grief

A
233
Q

is an inevitable part of life.
Accompanying each loss are
feelings of grief and sadness
* The experience of loss starts early
in life and continues until death

A

Loss

234
Q

As people age they learn that
change always involves a

A

Necessary Loss

235
Q

is a form of
necessary loss and includes all
normally expected life changes
across the life span

A

“Maturational loss“

236
Q

Occurs when a
person can no longer feel, hear,
see, or know a person or object

A

Actual loss

237
Q

is uniquely
defined by the person experiencing
the loss and is less obvious to other
people

A

Perceived loss

238
Q

Is a normal but bewildering
cluster of ordinary human emotions
arising in response to a significant
loss, intensified and complicated by
the relationship to the person or the
object lost. (Mitchell and Anderson,
1983)

A

Grief

239
Q

grief- uncomplicated grief;
common & universal reaction (anger,
disbelief, depression)

A

Normal grief

240
Q

A person experiences
grief before the actual loss or death
occurs

A

Anticipatory grief

241
Q

relationship to
the deceased person is not socially
sanctioned; cannot be shared openly

A

Disenfranchised grief

242
Q

prolongedor
significantly difficult time moving
forward after a loss

A

Complicated grief

243
Q

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

A

Stages of Dying
Kubler-Ross

244
Q

Numbing
Yearning & searching
Disorganization & Despair
Reorganization

A

Attachment theory bowlby

245
Q

Accepts the reality of the loss
Experiences the pain of grief
Adjusts to a world in which the deceased is missing

Emotionally relocates the deceased and
moves on with life

A

Grief tasks model wooden

246
Q

Recognizing the loss
Reacting to the pain of separation
Reminiscing
Relinquishing old attachments
Recognizing the loss
Reacting to the pain of separation
Reminiscing
Relinquishing old attachments
Readjusting to life after loss
Reminiscence of the relationship by mentally or
verbally anecdotally reliving and remembering
the person and past experiences

A

Rando’s R Process Model

247
Q

Loss-Oriented activities (grief work,
dwelling on the loss, breaking
connections with the deceased person,
and resisting activities to move past the

grief)

Restoration-Oriented activities (attending
to life changes, finding new roles or
relationships, coping with finances, and
participating in distractions)

A

Dual Process Model Stroebe and Schut

248
Q

Common Grief
Chronic Grief
Chronic Depression
Depression Followed by Improvement
Resilience

A

Trajectories of Bereavement Bonanno et al