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2nd Sem > Funda midterm (lectures) > Flashcards

Funda midterm (lectures) Flashcards

1
Q

Patient Quality and Safety

A
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2
Q

A fundamental concern of nurses, which extends from the bedside to the home to the community, is preventing injuries and assisting the injured

A

Safety

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3
Q

Factors Affecting Safety are

A

-Age and Development
- Lifestyle
- Mobility and Health Status
- Sensory and Perpetual alterations
- Emotional State
- Cognitive awareness
- ability to communicate
- safety awareness
- environmental factors

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4
Q

What are the Joint Commission’s 2019 National Patient Safety Goals for Hospitals and Nursing Care Centers

A
  • Improve the accuracy of patient identification
  • Improve the effectiveness of communication among caregivers
  • Reduce the harm associated with clinical alarm systems
  • reduce the risk of healthcare-associated infections
  • Reduce the risk of patient and resident harm resulting from falls
  • prevent healthcare-associated pressure ulcers
  • the hospital identifies safety risks inherent in its patient population
  • universal protocol for preventing wrong site, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery
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5
Q

Give an Adult Safety Measures in the given situation:

In reinforcing motor vehicle safety , if alcohol is consumed use the method

A

Designated drivers

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6
Q

Give an Adult Safety Measures in the given situation:
Avoiding excessive sun radiation by limiting _____, using ______, wearing _______.

A

exposure, sun-blocking agents, protective clothing

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7
Q

Is a single temporary event that consists of uncontrolled electrical neuronal discharge of the brain that interrupts normal brain function

A

Seizure

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8
Q

Are devices used to reduce or prevent physical activity of a client or a part of the body when the client is unable to remove the device

A

Restraints

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9
Q

Identify the Restraint type:
Use of an intervention or device that hinders the client from moving or restricts the individual from contact with his or her body

A

Physical

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10
Q

Identify the Restraint type:
Using a medication to control behavior or to restrict the client’s freedom of movement and is not a standard treatment for the client’s medical or psychologic condition

A

Chemical

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11
Q

Identify the Restraint type:
Involuntary confinement of a client alone in a room or area from which the client is physically prevented from leaving

A

Seclusion

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12
Q

Infection Prevention and Control

A
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13
Q

Collective vegetation in a given area

A

Resident Flora

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14
Q

Microbial species that can be cultured from body surfaces under certain circumstances

A

Transient Flora

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15
Q

What are the four major mo’s causing infections in humans

A

Bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites

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16
Q

Growth of MO’s in body tissue where they are not usually found

A

Infection

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17
Q

Detectable alteration in normal tissue function

A

Disease

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18
Q

No clinical evidence of disease

A

Asymptomatic/Subclinical

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19
Q

Ability to produce disease

A

Pathogenicity

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20
Q

Can be transmitted to an individual

A

Communicable Disease

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21
Q

Cause disease only in susceptible individuals

A

Opportunistic pathogen

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22
Q

Freedom from disease-causing microorganisms

A

Asepsis

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23
Q

Identify the type of Asepsis:
Practices intended to confine a specific MO to a specific area

A

Medical

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24
Q

Identify the type of Asepsis:
practices that keep an area or object free from all MOs

A

Surgical

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25
Q

Identify the type of infection:
Process by which strains of microorganisms become resident flora

A

Colonization

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26
Q

Identify the type of infection:
Limited to specific part of the body where to MO’s remain

A

Local infection

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27
Q

Identify the type of infection:
MO’s spread and damage different parts of the body

A

Systemic infection

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28
Q

Identify the type of infection:
Culture of the individuals blood reveals MO’s

A

Bacteremia

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29
Q

Infections that originate in any healthcare setting

A

Healthcare-associated infections

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30
Q

Infection origination from the client themselves

A

Endogenous

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31
Q

Infection from the hospital environment and hospital

A

Exogenous

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32
Q

Serious infection that occurs when MOs enter the bloodstream through a large catheter placed in a large vein

A

Central line-associated blood stream infection (CLABSI)

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33
Q

Any infection involving any part of the urinary system

A

Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)

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34
Q

An infection that occurs after surgery in the part of the body where the surgery took place

A

Surgical site infection
(SSI)

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35
Q

A lung infection that develops in a person on a machine used to help the client breathe

A

Ventilator Associated pneumonia (VAP)

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36
Q

Chain of infection steps

A
  • Etiologic agent
  • Reservoir
  • Portal of Exit
  • Mode of Transmission
  • Portal of Entry
  • Susceptible Host
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37
Q

Identify the step of chain infection based on the factors:
*Number of organisms present
*Virulence and potency
*Ability to enter the host’s body
*Susceptibility of the host
*Ability to live in the host’s body

A

Etiologic agent

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38
Q

Identify the step of chain infection based on the factors:
*Sources of MO’s such as:
*Humans/ Carriers
*Plants
*Animals
*Medical equipment
*General environment

A

Reservoir

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39
Q

What are the direct modes of transmission

A

Direct contact and Droplet spread

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40
Q

What are the indirect modes of transmission

A

Airborne, vehicle-borne, vector borne

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41
Q

Occurs through skin-to-skin contact, kissing, and sexual intercourse

A

Direct contact

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42
Q

Spray with relatively large, short-range, aerosols produced by sneezing, coughing, or even talking

A

Droplet Spread

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43
Q

Occurs when infectious agents are carried by dust or droplet nuclei suspended in air

A

Airborne

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44
Q

Indirectly transmit an infectious agent include food, water, biologic products, and fomites

A

Vehicle

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45
Q

Such as mosquitoes, fleas, and ticks may carry an infectious agent through purely mechanical means or may support growth or changes in the agent

A

Vector

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46
Q

A break in the skin can readily serve as a ______

A

Portal of entry

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47
Q

Is any individual who is at risk for infection

A

Susceptible host

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48
Q

Is someone at increased risk, an individual who for one or more reasons is more likely than others to acquire an infection

A

Compromised host

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49
Q

What are the factors affecting susceptibility?

A
  • impairment of immune system
  • age
  • clients receiving immune suppression treatment
  • immune deficiency conditions
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50
Q

Body defense against infection that protect the individual against all MOs

A

Non-specific

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51
Q

Body defense against infection directed against identifiable infectious agent

A

Specific

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52
Q

First line of non specific defense

A

Intact skin and mucous membranes

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53
Q

Local and nonspecific defensive response of the tissues to an injurious/ infectious agent

A

Inflammatory response

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54
Q

Injurious agents are classified as?

A
  1. Physical agents
  2. Chemical Agents
  3. Microorganisms
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55
Q

What are the 3 stages of Inflammatory Response?

A
  1. Vascular and Cellular responses
  2. Exudate production
  3. Reparative Phase
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56
Q

Substance that induces a state of sensitivity or immune responsiveness

A

Antigen

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57
Q

Originate from own body

A

Autoantigen

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58
Q

Also called humoral immunity as it resides in the B lymphocytes and mediated by antibodies produced by B cells

A

Antibody mediated

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59
Q

Also called immunoglobulins are part of the body’s plasma proteins

A

Antibodies

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60
Q

Antibodies are produced by the body in response to an antigen

A

Active

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61
Q

Type of Active antibody that are formed in the presence of active infection in the body

A

Active Natural

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62
Q

Type of Active antigen that are administered to stimulate antibody production

A

Active Artificial

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63
Q

Antibodies are produced by another source, animal, or human

A

Passive

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64
Q

Type of Passive antibody that are transferred naturally from an immune mother to her baby through the placenta or in colostrum

A

Passive Natural

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65
Q

Type of passive immune serum from an animal or another human is injected

A

Passive Artificial

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66
Q

This testing involves measurement of several hepatitis B virus HIBV-specific antigens and antibodies.

A

Hepatitis B serologic testing

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67
Q

Occurs through T cell system

A

Cell-mediated

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68
Q

3 types of Cell-mediated

A
  1. Helper
  2. Cytotoxic T cells
  3. Suppressor T cells
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69
Q

Is considered one of the most effective infection prevention measures

A

Hand hygiene

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70
Q

Is a chemical preparation used on skin or tissue

A

Antiseptic

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71
Q

Is a chemical preparation, such as phenol or iodine compounds, used on inanimate objects

A

Disinfectant

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72
Q

Preparation destroys bacteria

A

Bactericidal

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73
Q

Preparation prevents the growth and reproduction of some bacteria

A

Bacteriostatic

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74
Q

Process that destroys all microorganisms including spores and viruses

A

Sterilization

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75
Q

Steam under pressure to attain temp higher than boiling point

A

Moist Heat

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76
Q

Ethylene oxide destroys MOs by interfering with metabolic process

A

Gas

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77
Q

Most practical and inexpensive, some spores and viruses are not killed. Min 15 mins for disinfection at home

A

Boiling Water

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78
Q

Ionizing and non-ionizing, rays do not penetrate deeply

A

Radiation

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79
Q

Used for clients known to have or suspected of having serious illnesses transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei smaller than 5 microns. Ex. Measles, varicella, and tuberculosis

A

Airborne precaution

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80
Q

Used for clients known to have or suspected of having serious illnesses transmitted by particle droplets larger than 5 microns. Ex. Diphteria, mycoplasma pneumonia, pertussis, mumps, rubella

A

Droplet precaution

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81
Q

Used for clients known to have or suspected of having serious illnesses easily transmitted by direct client contact or by contact with items in the client’s environment

A

Contact precaution

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82
Q

A specific type of aseptic technique with a unique theoretical and clinical practice framework based upon the original concept of key-part and key-site protection.

A

Aseptic non-touch technique

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83
Q

The critical part of equipment that comes into contact with a key site

A

Key part

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84
Q

A part of the body that is at risk of contamination if ANTT is not used

A

Key site

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85
Q

ANTT

A

A – Always ensure hands are decontaminated effectively prior to
the procedure
N – Never contaminate key parts of sterile materials/equipment or
the patient’s susceptible key sites
T – Touch non-key parts with confidence
T –Take appropriate infection prevention and control precautions
e.g. use of PPE, safe waste management

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86
Q

Vital Signs

A
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87
Q

Vital signs include what?

A
  • body temp
  • pulse
  • respiration
  • blood pressure
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88
Q

What is commonly assessed alongside vital signs

A
  • pain
  • oxygen saturation
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89
Q

Reflect the balance between heat produced and heat lost from the body

A

Body temperature

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90
Q

Temperature of the deep tissues of the body

A

Core body temperature

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91
Q

Temperature of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and fat

A

Surface temperature

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92
Q

What are the factors affecting body temperature

A
  1. Age
    2, Diurnal Variations
  2. Exercise
  3. Hormones
  4. Stress
  5. Environment
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93
Q

What is the normal temperature

A

36-37.5 C

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94
Q

Temperature above the usual range

A

Pyrexia

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95
Q

Very high fever

A

Hyperpyrexia

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96
Q

Normal temperature

A

Afebrile

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97
Q

Alternates at regular interval normal and fever

A

Intermittent fever

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98
Q

Fluctuating above normal temperature

A

Remittent fever

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99
Q

Short febrile periods with 1 or 2 days of normal temperature

A

Relapsing

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100
Q

Result of excessive heat and dehydration

A

Heat exhaustion

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101
Q

Core body temperature below lower limit of normal

A

Hypothermia

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102
Q

What are the different sites of body temperature measurements

A
  • oral
    -rectal
    -axillary
    -tympanic membrane
    -temporal artery
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103
Q

Wave of blood created by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart

A

Pulse

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104
Q

Is the ability of the arteries to contract and expand

A

Compliance

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105
Q

Volume of blood pumped into the arteries by heart and equals the result of the SV x HR/min

A

Cardiac output

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106
Q

Excessively fast heart rate >100

A

Tachycardia

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107
Q

Less than 60bpm

A

Bradycardia

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108
Q

Pattern of beats and intervals between beats

A

Pulse rhythm

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109
Q

Irregular rhythm

A

Arrhythmia/ Dysrhytmia

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110
Q

Refers to breathing out or the movement of gases from the lungs to the atmosphere

A

Ventilation

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111
Q

Involves the external intercostal muscles and other accessory muscles and observed through the movement of the chest

A

Costal breathing

112
Q

Involves the contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm and observed by the movement of the abdomen

A

Diaphragmatic breathing

113
Q

Normal rate and depth of breathing

A

Eupnea

114
Q

Abnormally slow respiration

A

Bradypnea

115
Q

Abnormally fast respiration

A

Tachypnea

116
Q

Absence of breathing

A

Apnea

117
Q

Measure of the pressure exerted by the blood as it flows through the arteries

A

Arterial blood pressure

118
Q

Pressure of the blood as a result of contraction of the ventricles

A

Systolic pressure

119
Q

Pressure when the ventricles are at rest

A

Diastolic pressure

120
Q

Difference between the diastolic and systolic pressures

A

Pulse pressure

121
Q

Represents the pressure actually delivered to the body’s organs

A

Mean arterial pressure

122
Q

Persistently above normal blood pressure

A

Hypertension

123
Q

Blood pressure below normal

A

Hypotension

124
Q

Blood pressure that decreases when the client changes from a supine to sitting/standing position

A

Orthostatic hypotension

125
Q

Phases of the Korotkoff sounds

A
  1. PHASE I Clear tapping or thumping sounds are heard.
    First tapping sound is the systolic blood pressure
  2. PHASE II period when the sounds are muffled
  3. PHASE III period when the blood flows freely through
    thumping but softer than phase I
  4. PHASE IV muffled and have a soft blowing quality
  5. PHASE V when the last sound is heard. The last sound
    indicates the diastolic pressure
126
Q

Med ad

A
127
Q

Describes the drug’s chemical structure

A

Chemical Name

128
Q

Official, nonproprietary name, not owned by any company and universally accepted

A

Generic name

129
Q

Proprietary name, chosen by the drug company and registered as trademark

A

Trade/brand name

130
Q

10 rights to medication

A

Important five
1. Right patient
2. Right route
3. Right time
4. Right drug
5. Right dose
Other five
1. Right documentation
2. Right education
3. Right to refuse
4. Right assessment
5. Right evaluation

131
Q

This is the preferred and expected effect for which medication is administered to a specific client.

A

Therapeutic effect

132
Q

These are usually expected and inevitable when a medication is given at a therapeutic dose

A

Side effects

133
Q

These are undesired, inadvertent, and unexpected dangerous effects of the medication

A

Adverse effects

134
Q

Medications can have specific risks and manifestation of toxicity

A

Toxic effects

135
Q

Therapeutic actions of drugs:
Relieves the symptoms of a disease but does not affect the disease itself

A

Palliative

136
Q

Therapeutic actions of drugs:
Cures a disease or condition

A

Curative

137
Q

Therapeutic actions of drugs:
supports body function until other treatments or the body’s response can takeoover

A

Supportive

138
Q

Therapeutic actions of drugs:
Replaces body fluids or substances

A

Substitutive

139
Q

Therapeutic actions of drugs:
destroys malignant cells

A

Chemotherapeutic

140
Q

Therapeutic actions of drugs:
Returns the body to health

A

Restorative

141
Q

Immunologic reaction to drug

A

Drug allergy

142
Q

Severe allergic reaction that occurs immediately after administration of the drug

A

Anaphylactic reaction

143
Q

Drug effect:
Exists in a client who exhibit an unusually low physiologic response to a drug and requires increases in the dosage to maintain a given therapeutic effect

A

Drug tolerance

144
Q

Drug effect:
When the administration of one drug before, at the same time or after another drug alters the effects of one or both drugs. Can be synergistic or antagonistic

A

Drug interaction

145
Q

Drug effect:
Disease caused unintentionally by medical therapy

A

Iatrogenic Disease

146
Q

Drug use:
Improper use of common medications that lead to acute or chronic toxicity

A

Misuse

147
Q

Drug use:
Inappropriate intake of substances, either continually or periodically

A

Abuse

148
Q

Drug use:
Reliance on or need to take a drug or substance. Can either be Physiologic or Pschologic dependence

A

Dependence

149
Q

Drug use:
Mild form of psychologic dependence, developing a habit of taking substance and feeling better after

A

Habituation

150
Q

Drug use:
Also called street drugs, sold illegally

A

Illicit drug

151
Q

Medications can interact with each other resulting in desired or undesired effects

A

Medication interactions

152
Q

Medications may be contraindicated for a client who has a specific disease or condition

A

Precautions/Contraindications

153
Q

Drugs found to be safe and appropriate for use without supervision of the HCP

A

Over the counter drugs

154
Q

SAFER

A

S – speak up
A - ask questions
F – find the facts
E – evaluate your
choices
R – read labels

155
Q

PRN

A

Pro re nata

156
Q

Pro re nata - latin phrase meaning?

A

As needed

157
Q

AC

A

Antecibum - before meals

158
Q

Bid

A

bis in die - twice a day

159
Q

q3h

A

quaque 3 hora - every three hours

160
Q

qd

A

Quaque die - every day

161
Q

Also known as compliance is defined as the extent to which a patient’s behavior coincides with medical advice

A

Patient Adherence

162
Q

Study of the movement of the drug throughout the body

A

Pharmacokinetics

163
Q

Pharmacokinetics derived from two greek words pharmakon and kinesis meaning

A

Drug or poison, motion

164
Q

4 processes of Pharmacokinetics

A
  1. Absorption
  2. Distribution
  3. Metabolism
  4. Excretion
165
Q

Transmission of medications from the location of administration to the bloodstream

A

Absorption

166
Q

Identify the angle of injection technique:
Intramuscular

A

90

167
Q

Identify the angle of injection technique:
Subcutaneous

A

45

168
Q

Identify the angle of injection technique:
Intravenous

A

25

169
Q

Identify the angle of injection technique:
Intradermal

A

10-15

170
Q

Enteral route of administration pass from the intestinal lumen to the liver via the portal vein

A

First pass effect

171
Q

Refers to the percentage of administered drug available for activity

A

Bioavailability

172
Q

Transporatation of medications to sites of action by bodily fluids

A

Distribution

173
Q

Changes medications into less active/inactive form by the action of enzymes

A

Metabolism/ biotransformation

174
Q

Compound that is metabolized into an active pharmacologic substance

A

Prodrug

175
Q

Time it takes for the amount of drug in the body to be reduced by half

A

Half life

176
Q

Plateau drug level, amount of drug administered is equal to the amount being eliminated

A

Steady state

177
Q

Giving a large initial dose so therapeutic effect is achieved while a steady state is reached

A

Loading

178
Q

Dose needed to maintain drug concentration at a steady state, consistent dosing and interval

A

Maintenance

179
Q

Elimination of drugs from the body

A

Excretion

180
Q

Study of the effects of the drugs on the body

A

Pharmacodynamics

181
Q

Body’s physiologic response changes in drug concentration at the site of action

A

Dose-response relationship

182
Q

Refers to the amount of drug to elicit a specific response to a drug

A

Potency

183
Q

Increasing a drug dosage no longer increases the response

A

Maximal efficiency

184
Q

Describes the relationship between the therapeutic dose of the drug and the toxic dose of a drug

A

Therapeutic index

185
Q

No need for routine serum drug level monitoring

A

High TI has a wide safety margin

186
Q

Serum drug levels should be monitored

A

Low TI has a narrow safety margin

187
Q

Time it takes for a drug to reach MEC

A

Onset

188
Q

amount of drug required for drug effect

A

MEC - Minimum effective concentration,

189
Q

Drug reaches its highest concentration in the blood

A

Peak

190
Q

Length of the time the drug exerts a therapeutic effect

A

Duration

191
Q

Medication that can mimic the receptor activity regulated by endogenous compounds

A

Agonist

192
Q

Medication that can block normal receptor activity regulated by endogenous compounds

A

Antagonist

193
Q

Limited affinity to receptor sites

A

Partial Agonist

194
Q

Drugs that affect multiple receptor sites

A

Nonspecific

195
Q

Drugs that affect multiple receptor

A

Nonselective

196
Q

Mechanism of Action includes?

A
  1. Stimulation
  2. Depression
  3. Irritation
  4. Replacement
  5. Cytotoxic action
  6. Antimicrobial
  7. Modification of immune status
197
Q

Degree of detrimental effects caused by excessive drug dosing

A

Toxicity

198
Q

Sensitization of immune system

A

Allergic reaction

199
Q

Uncommon drug response genetic predisposition

A

Idiosyncratic Effect

200
Q

Opposite of the intended drug response

A

Paradoxical effect

201
Q

Disease caused by drugs

A

Iatrogenic disease

202
Q

State in which the body has adapted to drug exposure, will cause abstinence syndrome if discontinued

A

Physical dependence

203
Q

Cancer-causing

A

Carcinogenic

204
Q

Drug-induced birth defect

A

Teratogenic

205
Q

Organ toxicities

A

Hepatotoxic/
Ototoxicity/
Nephrotoxicity

206
Q

Factors affecting medication action

A
  • Developmental factors
  • Gender
  • Genetic and Cultural
    Factors
  • Diet
  • Environment
  • Illness and Disease
  • Time of Administration
207
Q

Medication prescription:
Medications are given on a regular schedule with or without a termination date

A

Standard prescription

208
Q

Medication prescription:
one time prescription

A

Single Prescription

209
Q

Medication prescription:
Given only once and given immediately

A

Stat Prescription

210
Q

Medication prescription:
stipulates at what dosage, what frequency and condition a medication ma be given

A

PRN

211
Q

Medication prescription:
Written for specific circumstance, may or may not have a termination date and carried out until an order to cancel it is given

A

Standing prescriptions

212
Q

Components of a prescription order

A
  • client’s name
  • date and time of prescription
  • name of medication
  • dosage of medication
  • route of administration
  • time and frequency of medication
  • signature of prescriber
213
Q

Medication prescriptions are written in the chart by the provider or nurse who takes a verbal or telephone prescription

A

Telephone order

214
Q
  1. Republic Act No. 6675 - The
    Generics Act Of 1988
  2. Republic Act No. 9502 –
    Universally acceptable cheaper
    and quality medicines act of 2008
    (amendment of RA 5921)
  3. Republic Act No. 9165 –
    Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs
    Act of 2002
A
215
Q

Parts of the needle

A
  • bevel
  • shaft
  • gauge number
  • hub
216
Q

Used when rapid effect is required. Appropriate when medications are too irritating to tissues to be given through other routes

A

Intravenous medications

217
Q

Method of administering a medication mixed with small amount of IV solution

A

Intermittent IV infusion

218
Q

Second set connect the second container to the tubing of the primary container at the upper port

A

Piggyback

219
Q

Such sets are small fluid containers attach below the primary infusion container so that the medication is administered through the client’s IV line

A

Volume Control Infusions

220
Q

Bolus is the IV administration of an undiluted drug directly into the systemic circulation. Is used when a medication cannot be diluted or in an emergency

A

IV push

221
Q

Applied locally to the skin or to mucous membranes in areas such as the eye, external ear canal, nose, vagina, and rectum

A

Topical medications

222
Q

This system administers sustained-action medication via multi-layered films containing the drug and an adhesive layer

A

Transdermal patch

223
Q

Instillations or irrigations of the external auditory canal are referred to as

A

Otic medication

224
Q

Is a suspension of minute liquid droplets or fine solid particles suspended in a gas. Delivers the pulmonary medication to its immediate site of action

A

Aerosol

225
Q

Metered Dose inhaler (MDI) is disinfected how?

A

Disinfected weekly by soaking for 20 mins in 1 pint of water with 2 ounces of vinegar added

226
Q

Complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies

A
227
Q

Therapies used together with conventional treatment recommended by a person’s HCP

A

Complementary therapies

228
Q

Other term for Complementary therapies

A

Integrative health care programs

229
Q

Therapeutic touch
Hypnotherapy
Chiropractic therapy
Guided imagery
Breathwork

A

Complementary therapies

230
Q

Non-pharmacological therapies used in place of conventional therapies. Exercise, and chiropractic herbal supplements

A

Alternative therapies

231
Q

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

A

Alternative therapies

232
Q

Interventions done by a licensed health care providers. Emphasizes the importance of the relationship between practitioner and patient

A

Integrative therapies

233
Q

A way of being-knowing-doing that advances the health and well-being of a person’s, families, and communities through caring-healing relationships

A

Integrative therapies

234
Q

Identify the type of Complementary therapies:
Dietary supplements
Herbal medicines
Macrobiotic diet-vegan diet
Mycotherapies-fungi-based products
Orthomolecular medicine
Probiotics-live microorganisms
The Zone dietary program

A

Biologically based therapies

235
Q

Identify the type of Complementary therapies:
Acupuncture
Healing touch
Reiki therapy
Therapeutic touch
Magnet therapy

A

Energy Therapy

236
Q

Identify the type of Complementary therapies:
Acupressure
Chiropractic medicine
Massage therapy
Simple touch

A

Manipulative and Body-based methods

237
Q

Identify the type of Complementary therapies:
Art Therapy
Biofeedback
Breathwork
Guided imagery
Meditation

A

Mind-body interventions

238
Q

Identify the type of Complementary therapies:
Dance therapy
Feldenkrais method-establishment of good self-image
Pilates

A

Complementary therapies

239
Q

Identify the type of Complementary therapies:
Traditional Chinese Medicine
Native American traditional healing-asking spirits to ask direction

A

Whole Medical System

240
Q

Identify the type of Complementary therapies:
Thoughts and feelings influence the production of chemicals

A

Relaxation Therapy

241
Q

Mind modifies the biochemical functions of the major organ systems in response to feedback

A

Stress response

242
Q

Ability to identify, differentiate, maintain attention

A

Focusing

243
Q

Ability to stop unecessary goal-directed and analytic activity

A

Passivity

244
Q

Ability to tolerate and accept experiences that are uncertain, unfamiliar

A

Receptivity

245
Q

Meditari meaning

A

To pay attention

246
Q

4 components of Meditation

A
  1. Quiet Space
  2. Comfortable position
  3. Receptive attitude
  4. Focus attention
247
Q

Is a mind-body therapy that used the conscious mind to create mental images to stimulate physical changes in body, improved perceived well-being and or enhance self-awareness

A

Imagery/visualization

248
Q

Mind-body technique that uses instruments to teach self-regulation and voluntary self-control over physiologic responses

A

Biofeedback

249
Q

Identify the type of Training specific therapy:
Regulates of realigns the vital energy and modifies the response of the body to pain and how pain is processed by central neural pathways and cerebral function

A

Acupuncture

250
Q

Identify the type of Training specific therapy:
Placing a practioner’s open palms either on or close to the body of a person

A

Therapeutic touch

251
Q

Identify the type of Training specific therapy:
Views health as life in balance which manifests as lustrous hair, a radiant complexion, engaged interactions, a body that functions wihtout limitations and emotional balance

A

TCM chinese medicine

252
Q

Identify the type of Training specific therapy:
Is a chemical compound or substance produced by a living organism and includes herbal medicines, dietary supplements, vitamins, minerals, essential oils and probiotics

A

Natural products and herbal therapies

253
Q

Oxygenation

A
254
Q

A process in oxygenation where movement of gases into and out of the lungs during inspiration and exhalation

A

Ventilation

255
Q

A process in oxygenation and is the ability of the cardiovascular system to pump oxygenated blood to the tissue and return deoxygenated blood to the lungs

A

Perfusion

256
Q

A process in oxygenation and is the movement of respiratory gases from one area to another by concentration gradient

A

Diffusion

257
Q

State the cardiopulmonary physiology

A

Deliver of deoxygenated blood - right side of the heart- right side of the lungs(oxygenate) -
delivery of oxygenated blood - left side of the lungs - heart - tissues - removal of cellular
metabolism waste products - blood flow to body systems (respiratory, digestive, - right ventricle
- pumps deoxygenated blood through the pulmonary circulation - left ventricle pumps oxygenated
blood through systemic circulation - as blood passes through the circulatory system - exchange
of respiratory gases, nutrients, and waste products.

258
Q

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle each minute

A

Cardiac output

259
Q

The volume of blood ejected from the ventricles during systole

A

Stroke volume

260
Q

Measurement of the electrical activity of the conduction system

A

Electrocardiogram

261
Q

Factors affecting oxygenation

A

Physiological factors
Decreased oxygen- carrying
Anemia
Inhalation of toxic substance

262
Q

What is the normal value of PaCO2

A

35-45 mmhg

263
Q

What is the normal value of PaO2

A

80-100 mmhg

264
Q

Decreased in the amount of arterial oxygen

A

Hypoxemia

265
Q

Alveolar ventilation is inadequate to meet oxygen demand

A

Hypoventilation

266
Q

Lungs remove carbon dioxide faster

A

Hyperventilation

267
Q

Inadequate tissue oxygenation

A

Hypoxia

268
Q

Hygiene

A
269
Q

Serves several functions including protection, excretion, body temperature regulation, and
cutaneous sensation

A

Skin

270
Q

Consists of the lips surrounding the opening of the mouth, cheeks running along the
sidewalls of the cavity, the tongue & its muscles & the hard & soft palate

A

Oral Cavity

271
Q

Dry mouth

A

Xerostomia

272
Q

Inflammation of the gums

A

Gingivitis

273
Q

Tooth decay

A

Dental caries

274
Q

Practices focus on care of the scalp, axilla, and pubic areas

A

Hair

275
Q

Factors influencing hygiene

A

Social practices
Personal preferences
Body image
Socioeconomic status
Health beliefs and motivation
Cultural variable
Developmental stage
Physical condition

276
Q

Inflammation of oral mucous membranes

A

Mucositis

277
Q
A

2nd Sem (13 decks)

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