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A—REVIEW QUESTIONS > MicroPara > Flashcards

MicroPara Flashcards

1
Q

Forms spores, except:

a. B. anthracis
b. B. cereus
c. B. subtilis
d. B. fragilis

A

d. B. fragilis

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2
Q

Which of the following refers to a positive H2S production result?

a. Formation of red color
b. Formation of yellow precipitate
c. Formation of black precipitate
d. Formation of blue color

A

c. Formation of black precipitate

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3
Q

Purpose of mordant in gram staining:

a. Dye fixative
b. Reinforcing stain
c. Secondary stain
d. Decolorizer

A

a. Dye fixative

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4
Q

To read hemolytic reaction on a blood agar plate accurately, the technologist must hold the plate up to the light and observe light using:

a. Natural light
b. Transmitted light
c. Full spectrum light
d. None of these

A

b. Transmitted light

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5
Q

Not included in IMViC:

a. Indole
b. Methyl red
c. Virulence
d. Citrate

A

c. Virulence

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6
Q

A sputum culture from an alcoholic seen in the ER grows gray, mucoid, stringy colonies on sheep blood agar. The isolate grows readily on MacConkey agar and forms mucoid, dark pink colonies. The colonies yield the following test results:

ONPG = Positive
Indole= Negative
Glucose = Positive
Oxidase = Negative
Citrate = Positive
VP = Positive

The organism is most likely:
a. Edwardsiella tarda
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Escherichia coli
d. Proteus vulgaris

A

b. Klebsiella pneumoniae

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7
Q

Typically, petri dishes are ______, to prevent condensation droplets (moisture buildup) from falling onto the surface of the agar.

a. Passed over a flame
b. Inverted
c. Incubated
d. None of the above

A

b. Inverted

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8
Q

In the central dogma of molecular biology, genetic information flows only in one direction, from DNA to RNA, RNA to:

a. Lipids
b. Carbohydrates
c. DNA
d. Protein

A

d. Protein

transcription ➡ translation

(reverse transcription = RETROVIRIDAE)

DNA ➡ DNA = replication

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9
Q

McFarland standards are prepared by mixing:

a. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
b. 2% sulfuric acid and 2% barium chloride
c. 1% sulfuric acid and 2.175% barium chloride
d. None of the above

A

a. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride

Produce: 0.5 McFarland turbidity

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10
Q

The agar depth for disk diffusion testing must be held constant at:

a. 2 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 4 mm
d. 5 mm

A

c. 4 mm

range: 3-5 mm

too thick agar = too small ZOI ➡ False resistant
too thin agr = too large ZOI ➡ False susceptible

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11
Q

Profuse watery diarrhea (“rice water stools”), leading to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension that frequently leads to death, is the hallmark of which toxin activity?

a. Cholera toxin
b. Enteric endotoxin
c. Shiga toxin
d. Toxin A

A

a. Cholera toxin

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12
Q

The best specimen for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is which of the following?

a. Throat swabs
b. Sputum
c. Nasopharyngeal aspirates
d. Anterior nose swab

A

c. Nasopharyngeal aspirates

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13
Q

A nonfermenting gram-negative bacillus is isolated from a wound. The nitrate and oxidase are strongly positive. The growth on sheep blood agar has a grape-like odor. The organism is:

a. Burkholderia cepacia
b. Moraxella lacunata
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Haemophilus influenzae

A

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Grape-like odor = PAE
Burnt chocolate = Proteus
Mushroom = Pasteurella multocida
Rose = Psychobacter immobilis

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14
Q

This gametocyte with banana-shaped or crescent appearance belongs to:

a. P. vivax
b. P. ovale
c. P. malariae
d. P. falciparum

A

d. P. falciparum

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15
Q

What is the mode of transmission for P. westermani?

a. Ingestion of raw or undercooked crabs
b. Ingestion of freshwater snail
c. Ingestion snail
d. Ingestion of water chestnut

A

a. Ingestion of raw or undercooked crabs

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16
Q

In which of the following sets of nematodes can each organism cause a pneumonia-like syndrome in a person exposed to heavy infection with any of the three parasites?

a. Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura, or Onchocerca volvulus
b. Enterobius vermicularis, Dracunculus medinensis, or Trichuris trichiura
c. Strongyloides stercoralis, Wuchereria bancrofti, or Angiostrongylus costaricensis
d. Necator americanus, Ascaris lumbricoides, or Strongyloides stercoralis

A

d. Necator americanus, Ascaris lumbricoides, or Strongyloides stercoralis

Pneumonia-like syndrome = heart-lung migration

A - Ascaris lumbricoides
S - Strongyloides stercoralis
H - Hookworm

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17
Q

When using preservatives, what is the appropriate ratio of fixative to stool?

a. One part fixative to one part stool
b. Two parts fixative to one part stool
c. Three parts fixative to one part stool
d. Four parts fixative to one part stool

A

c. Three parts fixative to one part stool

Fixative:Stool
3:1

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18
Q

How many stool samples should be collected when following the typical ova and parasite (O & P) collection protocol?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

c. 3

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19
Q

Which parasite has been closely associated with cholangiocarcinoma?

a. P. westermani
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. H. heterophyes
d. C. sinensis

A

d. C. sinensis

or/and Opistorchis viverini

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20
Q

Parasite associated with TB Misdiagnosis:

a. P. westermani
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. H. heterophyes
d. C. sinensis

A

a. P. westermani

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21
Q

The adult female is characterized by having a barber’s pole appearance due to the looping of the whitish uterus around the reddish digestive tract:

a. D. medinensis
b. S. stercoralis
c. A. cantonensis
d. N. americanus

A

c. A. cantonensis

Angiostrongylous cantonensis

➡ rat lungworm
➡ barber’s pole appearance
➡ human eosinophilic meningitis

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22
Q

The only amoeba that ingests WHITE BLOOD CELLS:

a. E. coli
b. E. histolytica
c. E. nana
d. E. gingivalis

A

d. E. gingivalis

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23
Q

Amoeba that ingests BACTERIA:

a. E. coli
b. E. histolytica
c. E. nana
d. E. gingivalis

A

a. E. coli

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24
Q

Amoeba that ingests RBC:

a. E. coli
b. E. histolytica
c. E. nana
d. E. gingivalis

A

b. E. histolytica

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25
Q

Immunoassays can be used in detecting which parasite?

a. Malaria
b. Trichuris
c. Ascaris
d. None of the above

A

a. Malaria

Malaquick = Histidine-rick
protein 2 (HRP-2) = P. falciparum

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26
Q

Plasmodium sp which has an affinity for mature or older red blood cells:

a. P. vivax
b. P. malariae
c. P. ovale
d. P. falciparum

A

b. P. malariae

M = matanda

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27
Q

Asexual life cycle of malaria parasite occur in:

a. Man
b. Anopheles mosquito
c. Flies
d. Ticks

A

a. Man

Asexual intermediate host = Man
Sexual definitive host = Anopheles mosquito

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28
Q

Germ tube formation is seen with which two yeasts?

a. C. albicans, C. neoformans
b. C. glabrata, C. parapsilosis
c. C. albicans, C. parapsilosis
d. C. albicans, C. dubliniensis

A

d. C. albicans, C. dubliniensis

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29
Q

For which clinical specimens is the KOH direct mount technique for examination of fungal elements used?

a. Skin
b. CSF
c. Blood
d. Bone marrow

A

a. Skin

Since, KOH dissolves KERATIN

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30
Q

A MATURE VIRUS PARTICLE containing a nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein coat, with or without an envelope is called:

a. Nucleocapsid
b. Genome
c. Virion
d. Capsomer

A

c. Virion

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31
Q

OWL’S EYE” cytological inclusions are characteristic of infection caused by:

a. HIV
b. CMV
c. HSV
d. VZV

A

b. CMV

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32
Q

Filovirus that has a characteristic “SHEPHERD’S HOOK” morphology when electron microscopy:

a. Ebola Zaire virus
b. Ebola Reston virus
c. Ebola Sudan virus
d. Marburg virus

A

d. Marburg virus

Shepherd’s hook:
M ➡ Marburg virus
C ➡ Chilomastix mesnilii
M ➡ Mansonella streptocerca

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33
Q

Nonstructural protein 1 (NS 1) ELISA:

a. Filarial worm infection
b. Malaria
c. Dengue fever
d. Yellow fever

A

c. Dengue fever

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34
Q

Which of the following is not a BSL-1 organism?

a. Serratia marcescens
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Bacillus subtilis
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

b. Staphylococcus aureus

BSL II

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35
Q

Empty can of Lysol is disposed in a:

a. Red container
b. Orange container
c. Green container
d. Black container

A

a. Red container

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36
Q

Which of the following is the most effective control measure:

a. Elimination
b. Substitution
c. Engineering controls
d. PPE

A

a. Elimination

Elimination > Substitution > Engineering controls > Administrative control > PPE

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37
Q

The best way to break the chain of infection:

a. Hand sanitizing
b. PPE
b. Aerosol prevention
d. Decontamination

A

a. Hand sanitizing

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38
Q

To operate the fire extinguisher which acronym can be used to remember the steps?

a. PASS
b. RACE
c. HAZE
d. AMEN

A

a. PASS

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39
Q

The recommended disinfectant for blood and body fluid contamination is:

a. Sodium hydroxide
b. Antimicrobial soap
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. Sodium hypochlorite

A

d. Sodium hypochlorite

10% Bleach
Dilution ➡ 1:10
Ratio of W:B ➡ 9:1

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40
Q

___________ is a more diffuse polysaccharide layer that surrounds a bacterium; cell and serves either to inhibit phagocytosis or in some cases aid in adherence to synthetic implants

A. Capsule
B. Spore
C. Glycocalyx
D. Cell wall
E. None

A

C. Glycocalyx

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41
Q

Schaeffer & Fulton maybe used in the demonstration of which of the following bacterial cell culture?

A. Capsule
B. Metachromatic granules
C. Flagella
D. Spores
E. None.

A

D. Spores

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42
Q

Spore formation can be noted in which of the following genera?

  1. Corynebacterium 2. Bacillus 3. Listeria 4. Clostridium

A. 1&3
B. 2&4
C. 1, 2, & 3
D. None of these

A

B. 2&4

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43
Q

Mechanism of bacterial gene transfer that may involve use of plasmid. It is the optic and incorporation of naked DNA into a bacterial cell

A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Transduction
D. None of these.

A

A. Transformation

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44
Q

Fimbriae or Pili found on bacterial outer surface are utilized for:

A. Sexual reproduction
B. Bacterial motility
C. Attachment to surface
D. Antimicrobial resistance

A

C. Attachment to surface

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45
Q

Which of the following is considered as the most resistant to actions of heat chemicals and radiation?

A. Lipid virus
B. Prions
C. Mycobacterium
D. Bacterial spores
E. All of these

A

B. Prions

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46
Q

Add this infection method carried out at 75 degC (161 degF) for 15 seconds is:

A. Boiling
B. Autoclaving
C. Pasteurization
D. Tyndallization
E. None

A

C. Pasteurization

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47
Q

Lowenstein Jensen which is an egg based media is best sterilized using which method

A. Inspissation
B. Tyndallization
C. Pasteurization
D. Boiling

A

A. Inspissation

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48
Q

Examples of BSL–1 organisms

  1. Bacillus subtilis 2. HBV 3. Enterobacter aerogenes 4. Salmonella spp.

A. 1 & 3
B. 2 & 4
C. 1, 2, & 3
D. 1, 2, 3, & 4
E. None

A

A. 1 & 3

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49
Q

The use of candle jar would be most useful for which of the following genera?

  1. Actinomyces 2. Fusobacterium 3. Porphyromonas 4. Prevotella

A. 1 & 3
B. 2 & 4
C. 1, 2, & 3
D. 1, 2, 3, & 4
E. None

A

E. None

These are anaerobic organisms
They need: Gaspak Jar

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50
Q

Which of the following pairs between organism and motility is incorrect:

A. Darting - Campylobacter spp
B. Tumbling - Capnocytophaga
C. Twitching - Kingella kingae
D. Shooting star - Vibrio

A

B. Tumbling - Capnocytophaga

Capnocytophaga has a Gliding motility

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51
Q

All of the following has a polysaccharide capsule except:

A. K. pneumoniae
B. B. anthracis
C. N. meningitidis
D. S. pneumoniae

A

B. B. anthracis

  • polypeptide
  • poly-D-glutamic acid
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52
Q

Which of the following inclusion bodies are seen in Chlamydia trachomatis

A. Babes Ernst bodies
B. Much granules
C. Halberstaedter prowazek
D. Bipolar bodies

A

C. Halberstaedter prowazek

Babes Ernst bodies = Corynebacterium
Much granules = M. tuberculosis
Bipolar bodies = Y. pestis

53
Q

The following are true of endotoxin, except:

A. Heat stable
B. Main component is protein
C. Requires cell death for release
D. Produced by gram-negative organisms

A

B. Main component is protein

Endotoxin = Lipopolysaccharide “LPS”

54
Q

Which of the following genera will require 0% oxygen, 5% CO2, 10% H2, and 85% N2?

A. Campylobacter
B. Mycobacterium
C. Micrococci
D. Prevotella

A

D. Prevotella

55
Q

Which of the following specimens that when received in the laboratory must be processed immediately?

A. CSF
B. Urine in preservative
C. Unpreserved sputum
D. Swab in transport media

56
Q

All of the following bacteriological results will warrant immediate reporting or must be communicated immediately to the members of the healthcare team, except:

A. VRSA
B. + blood culture
C. + Brucella
D. None

57
Q

The so-called LIM broth maybe classified as to what type of media?

A. Selective
B. Enriched
C. Enrichment
D. Differential

A

C. Enrichment

LIM broth for: S. agalactiae

58
Q

Which of the following anticoagulant is appropriate for use in microbiology?

A. EDTA
B. SPS
C. Citrate
D. Heparin

59
Q

An organism surrounded by flagella on its entire surface may be described as

a. lophotrichous
b. peritrichous
c. amphitrichous
d. atrichous
e. monotrichous

A

b. peritrichous

60
Q

As part of the Quality control, which of the following equipment in a bacteriological laboratory require daily monitoring?

a. microscope
b. incubator
c. centrifuge
d. all of these

A

b. incubator

61
Q

To check the efficiency of the autoclave, which is used as a biological indicator?

a. B. pumilis
b. B. subtilis var niger
c. B. subtilis var globijii
d. B. stearothermophilus

A

d. B. stearothermophilus

62
Q

Bacillus subtilis var niger can be used to check the efficiency of which of the following equipment in a bacteriological laboratory?

a. HEPA filter
b, dry heat oven
c. Durham tubes
d. radiation

A

b, dry heat oven

63
Q

The most appropriate type of biosafety cabinet that is selected when dealing with toxic chemicals or carcinogens

a. Class I
b. Class IIA
c. Class IIB
d. Class III

A

c. Class IIB

64
Q

The BSC type that is usually operated with an open front

a. Class I
b. Class IIA
c. Class IIB
d. Class III

A

a. Class I

65
Q

Plates inoculated for semi-quantitation are usually streaked out in how many quadrants:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

66
Q

Martin Lewis media is a selective media that when used will support growth of which of the following organisms?

a. Ureaplasma
b. Mycoplasma
c. Neisseria
d. all of these

A

c. Neisseria

67
Q

Classified as a selective differential media

  1. HEA 2. CIN 3. TCBS 4. Thayer Martin

a. 1 & 3
b. 2 & 4
c. 1, 2, & 3
d. none of these

68
Q

In thio medium, strict anaerobic bacteria like Prevotella will produce growth:

a. towards broth surface
b. diffuse even growth throughout the broth
c. at the bottom of the broth
d. none of these

A

c. at the bottom of the broth

69
Q

Bacterial sporulation occurs in what stage of bacterial growth?

a. Lag phase
b. Log phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Phase of decline

A

c. Stationary phase

70
Q

In the bacterial growth cycle, which is also referred to as the “exponential phase”

a. Lag phase
b. Log phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Phase of decline

A

b. Log phase

71
Q

Which of the following antibiotics when used will inhibit protein synthesis?

  1. Vancomycin
  2. Doxycycline
  3. Carbapenems
  4. Chloramphenicol

a. 1 & 3
b. 2 & 4
c. 1, 2, & 3
d. 1, 2, 3, & 4
e. none of these

72
Q

Which method of acid-fast staining is the best for DSSM?

a. Kinyoun’s
b. Fluorochrome
c. Zhiel Neelsen
d. none of these

A

c. Zhiel Neelsen

73
Q

all of the following are likely to cause a false resistant result in disk diffusion method of susceptibility testing except:

A. agar depth of 2 mm
B. too heavy inoculum
C. prolonged incubation time
D. none of these

A

A. agar depth of 2 mm

74
Q

In the Kirby Bauer susceptibility test if the zone size for intermediate is 12-14 mm, a zone diameter of 15 mm is reported as

A. Resistant
B. Intermediate
C. Susceptible
D. none of these

A

C. Susceptible

75
Q

During microscopy, 6-8 AFB were noted per Oil Immersion field after examining 50 fields. This must be reported as

A. 3+
B. 2+
C. 1+
D. 0

76
Q

Which test is necessary to detect inducible resistance to clindamycin?

A. Cephalosporinase test
B. D-test
C. Modified Hodge Test
D. None of these

77
Q

In the disk diffusion method, 0.5 McFarland is used to standardized the inoculum whose optical density is comparable to the density of a bacterial suspension which is

A. 1.5 x 108
B. 1 × 108
C. 1.5 × 10 5
D. 1 × 105

A

A. 1.5 x 108

78
Q

Which is considered as the most effective way to stop the chain of infection?

A. Handwashing
B. Use of 70% alcohol
C. Idophor
D. use of iodine tincture

A

A. Handwashing

79
Q

The following genera are partially acid fast aerobic actinomycetes
1. Nocardia 2. Streptomyces 3. Rhodococcus

A. 1 & 3
B. 2 & 4
C.1, 2, & 3

80
Q

Members of the genus Nocardia are typically

A. Catalase (+)
B. Partially Acid-Fast
C. Strict aerobes
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

81
Q

Which of the following media may be useful in isolating aerobic actinomycetes

A. Human Blood Bilayer Tween
B. Tap water agar
C. Tinsdale
D. Loeffler’s serum

A

B. Tap water agar

82
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is not used in the preliminary grouping of anaerobes & verification of gram staining result?

A. Penicillin
B. Kanamycin
C. Colistin
D. Vancomycin
E. none of these

A

A. Penicillin

83
Q

One of the components of an anaerobic chamber, Gaspak jar use Palladium catalyst for the purpose of

A. Maintaining a microaerophilic environment
C. Maintaining a capnophilic environment
B. Maintaining a halophilic environment
D. Maintaining an anaerobic environment

A

D. Maintaining an anaerobic environment

84
Q

Which of the following can be used selectively to isolate Prevotella & Bacteroides
A. CCFA
B. EYA
C. LKV
D. CTBA

85
Q

A gram-negative pale staining rod often described as resembling safety pin

A. B. fragilis
B. Bifidobacterium
C. C. Perfringens
D. F. nucleatum

A

A. B. fragilis

86
Q

Pallisade arrangement by a gram + anaerobic rod can be noted in which of the following genera?

A. Leptotrichia
B. Propionibacterium
C. Bifidobacterium
D. none of these

A

B. Propionibacterium

87
Q

Which of the following gram-negative anaerobic rods can develop brick red fluorescence on BAP

A. Prevotella spp.
B. F. nucleatum
C. Prophyromonas
D. A & C

88
Q

Which of the following organisms can be a NORMAL finding in PAP’s-stained smears?

A. C. difficile
B. L. acidophilus
C. G. vaginalis
D. B & C

A

B. L. acidophilus

89
Q

The gram (-) rod regarded as the leading cause of community acquired UTI and other health care associated infections is

A. S. dysenteriae
B. Y. enterocolitica
C. E. coli
D. P. mirabilis

A

C. E. coli

90
Q

The ability to metabolize sialic acid that is found in breast milk & infant formula can be seen in association with which of the following gram (-) rods

A. C. jejuni
B. Y. enterocolítica
C. C. sakasakii
D. S. serotype typhi

A

C. C. sakasakii

91
Q

An infection caused by a gram-negative rod that is transmitted thru flea bites (Xenopsylla cheopis)

A. S. dysenteriae
B. E. rhusiopathiae
C. C. diphtheriae
D. Y. pestis

A

D. Y. pestis

92
Q

Pneumonia in elderly hospitalized patients may be due to which of the following Enterobacteriacee?

A. K. pneumoniae
B. P. vulgaris
C. E. coli
D. S. dysenteriae

A

A. K. pneumoniae

93
Q

The so-called DONOVAN body which refers to a group of organisms seen in mononuclear endothelial cells is the pathognomonic entity of

A. K. pneumoniae
B. S. marcescens
C. K. granulomatis
D. K. oxytoca

A

C. K. granulomatis

94
Q

K. oxytoca and K. pneumoniae are biochemically similar gram (-) rods. Which can be done as differential test

A. Indole
B. VP test
C. Citrate utilization
D. Urease

95
Q

An Oxidase (+) gram negative rod that is transmitted to humans following ingestion of contaminated water or by exposure of disrupted skin & mucosal surfaces

A. Y. pseudotuberculosis
B. Y. pestis
C. K. pneumoniae
D. none of these

A

D. none of these

96
Q

Dysentery (i.e. necrosis & ulceration of large bowel) usually seen in young children living in areas of poor sanitation can be attributed to which E. coli

A. EPEC
B. ETEC
C. EHEC
D. EIEC

97
Q

Which E. coli serotype has been implicated with the ingestion of undercooked ground beef to which may result to hemorrhagic colitis & hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A. EPEC
B. EHEC
C. ETEC
D. EIEC

98
Q

A LIA reaction of R/A would mean

A. (+) deaminase and decarboxylase
B. (-) deaminase and decarboxylase
C. (+) deaminase and (-) decarboxylase
D. (-) deaminase and (+) decarboxylase

A

C. (+) deaminase and (-) decarboxylase

99
Q

A TSI reaction of A/A would mean

A. 2-3 sugars were fermented
B. Only glucose was fermented
C. only lactose was fermented
D. no sugar was fermented

A

A. 2-3 sugars were fermented

100
Q

Which of the following is the heat labile capsular polysaccharide of Salmonella subspecies enterica

A. O Ag
B. Vi Ag
C. H Ag
D. none of these

101
Q

Which of the ff: may be used to routinely isolate Enterobacteriaceae
1. SSA 2. HEA 3. XLD 4. TCBS

A. 1 & 3
B. 2 & 4
C. 1,2 & 3
D. 123&4
E. none of these

A

C. 1,2 & 3

102
Q

CIN medium for Y.enterocolitica has _____ as pH indicator

A. Phenol red
B. bromthymol blue
C. neutral red
D. cystal violet

A

C. neutral red

103
Q

Which genera in Family Enterobacteriaceae is generally motile at RT and non-motile at 37 degC

A. Klebsiells
B. Shigella
C. Yersinia
D. all of these

A

C. Yersinia

104
Q

What incubation temperature will allow development of the typical bull’s eye colonies of Y. enterocolitica on CIN

A. RT
B. 37 degC
C. 42 degC
D. 4 degC

105
Q

Clumps of cells adhering to one side of the tube may be observed in broth cultures (+) for which of the following

A. Y. enterocolitica
B. K. pneumoniae
C. Y. pestis
D. E. coli

A

C. Y. pestis

106
Q

E. coli which is a lactose fermenting coliform will develop _____ colonies on both XLD & HEA

A. Pink-purple
B. colorless
C. yellow
D. red

107
Q

Members of Tribe Proteeae will develop _____ on Mac Conkey agar and _____ on HEA

A. Colorless / colorless
B. colorless/pink
C. pink / yellow
D. yellow / red

A

A. Colorless / colorless

108
Q

Salmonella which is generally a non-lactose fermenter will develop what colony color on HEA?

A. Colorless with black center
B. green
C. red with black center
D. none of these

A

C. red with black center

109
Q

Which of the following test results would be most useful in classifying an isolate as a member of the tribe Proteeae?
A. Positive VP
B. Positive PAD test
C. Positive lactose fermentation
D. All of these

A

B. Positive PAD test

110
Q

Swarming mentality on BAP is exhibited by which of the following genera in Family Enterobacteriaceae

A. Providencia
B. Morganella
C. Proteus
D. All of these

A

C. Proteus

111
Q

Which of the following members of Tribe Proteeae can induce formation of struvite kidney stones (calculi)

A. P. mirabilis
B. Y. enterocolitica
C. C. freundii
D. E. cloacae

A

A. P. mirabilis

112
Q

On examination of CSF collected from an infant in NICU, the following results were reported. These findings may indicate presence of which of the following organisms?

Mac Conkey agar = dark pink colonies
PAD, Citrate and H2S (-)
Motile & Indole (+)

A. E. aerogenes
B. K. pneumoniae
C. S. marcescens
D. E. coli

A

D. E. coli

113
Q

To Identify organisms that produces the enzyme tryptophanase, which blochem test must be done

A. LAP test
B. ONPG test
C. Urease test
D. Indole test

A

D. Indole test

114
Q

The ability of an organism to convert urea to ammonia may be detected by doing which of the following biochemical tests?

A. ONPG
B. Urease Test
C. Citrate Utilization test
D. gelatin liquefaction

A

B. Urease Test

115
Q

Which of the following pairs between organisms & lMViC reactions is incorrect?

A. K. pneumoniae (-) (v) (+) (+)
B. C. freundii (-) (+) (-) (-)
C. S. sonnei (-) (+) (-) (-)
D. E. coli (+) (+) (-) (-)

A

B. C. freundii (-) (+) (-) (-)

116
Q

ability to produce H2S can be noted in which of the following?

A. Shigella
B. Klebsiella
C. Proteus
D. E. coll

A

C. Proteus

117
Q

The butt portion of Lysine Iron agar which is a tubed media can be observed for

A. Indole production
B. Deamination
C. Decarboxylation
D. gelatin liquefaction

A

C. Decarboxylation

118
Q

Which of the following genera are reported A/A on TSI?

  1. Enterobacter
  2. Klebsiella
  3. Escherichia
  4. Proteus

A. 1 & 3
B. 2 & 4
C. 1,2 & 3
D. 1,2,3 & 4
E. none of these

A

C. 1,2 & 3

119
Q

Which of the following biochemical test results is not consistent with Klebsiella?

A. VP negative
B. Citrate positive
C. lactose fermenter
D. none of these

A

A. VP negative

120
Q

Alpha naphthol & KOH are needed in which of the following biochemical tests?

A. Mug Test
B. Urease Test
C. Citrate test
D. VP test

A

D. VP test

121
Q

Electric blue fluorescence is noted as positive result in which of the following tests?

A. Citrate utilization
B. MUG test
C. ONPG test
D. Indole test

A

B. MUG test

122
Q

Which of the following TSI reactions is unlikely for any member of Family Enterobacteriaceae

A. K/A
B. K/K
C. A/A
D. None of these

123
Q

Bromcresol purple is used as indicator in which of the following tests

A. Urease Test
B. Citrate utilization
C. MR test
D. Decarboxylase test

A

D. Decarboxylase test

124
Q

A free-living amoeba can infect man through the following roots, except:

a. Skin
b. Eyes
c. Ingestion
d. Olfactory

A

c. Ingestion

125
Q

Which of the following key of information may be extracted from the portion of a parasite lifecycle that occurs outside the body?

a. Parasitic disease symptoms and disease processes
b. Epidemiology and prevention and control measures
c. Appropriate parasite diagnosis methodologies
d. Selection of appropriate anti-parasitic medication

A

b. Epidemiology and prevention and control measures

126
Q

Which of the following is preferred for stool collection?

a. Wax lined
b. Plastic bag
c. Unsterilized
d. Glass

A

a. Wax lined

127
Q

The ideal temperature at which to hold a fecal specimen for more than one hour is

a. Freezer temperature
b. Refrigerator temperature
c. Room temperature
d. Incubator temperature.

A

b. Refrigerator temperature

128
Q

Which of the following groups of symptoms represent those most commonly observed in parasitic infections

a. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and anemia
b. Enlargement of the spleen, fever, and chills
c. Skin lesions, abdominal pain, and diarrhea
d. Abdominal cramping, abdominal pain, and diarrhea

A

d. Abdominal cramping, abdominal pain, and diarrhea

A—REVIEW QUESTIONS (8 decks)

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