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A—REVIEW QUESTIONS > HTMLE > Flashcards

HTMLE Flashcards

1
Q

Neutral formalin may be prepared from 40% formaldehyde by adding:

10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 100 mL water
10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 30 mL water
1 part 40% formaldehyde to 39 parts water
1 part 40% formaldehyde to 9 parts water

A

1 part 40% formaldehyde to 9 parts water

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2
Q

Tissue is soft when block is trimmed:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete fixation

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3
Q

Xylene turns milky as soon as tissue is placed in it:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete dehydration

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4
Q

Tissue is opaque, section cutting is difficult due to the presence of alcohol.

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Insufficient clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Insufficient clearing

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5
Q

Air holes found during trimming:

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Insufficient clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete impregnation

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6
Q

An 87-year-old male develops worsening heart failure. Workup reveals decreased left ventricular filling due to decreased compliance of the left ventricle. Two months later the patient dies, and postmortem sections reveal deposits of eosinophilic, CONGO RED-POSITIVE material in the interstitium of his heart. When viewed under polarized light, this material displays an apple-green birefringence. What is the correct diagnosis?

Amyloidosis
Glycogenosis
Hemochromatosis
Sarcoidosis
Senile atrophy

A

Amyloidosis

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7
Q

The most common and fastest decalcifying agent used as simple solution or combines with other reagents.

Hydrochloric acid
Nitric acid
Formic acid
Sulfurous acid

A

Nitric acid

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8
Q

Composition of von Ebner’s fluid:

Nitric acid, chromic acid, absolute ethyl alcohol
Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid, water
Trichloroacetic acid, formol saline
Chromic acid, osmium tetoxide, acetic acid

A

Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid, water

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9
Q

Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of decalcification:

Physical test
Chemical test
X-ray or radiological test
All of these

A

X-ray or radiological test

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10
Q

Which of the following is a dehydrating agent?

Formalin
Xylene
Benzene
Alcohol

A

Alcohol

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11
Q

Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:

For both fixing and dehydrating tissues
For both dehydrating and clearing tissues
In very small volume ratios
For long periods without changing

A

For both dehydrating and clearing tissues

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12
Q

All of the following are CLEARING AGENTS, EXCEPT:

Chloroform
Dioxane
Ethanol
Xylene

A

Ethanol

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13
Q

It is the most rapid clearing agent, suitable for urgent biopsies and clears within 15 to 30 minutes.

Xylene
Toluene
Benzene
Chloroform

A

Xylene

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14
Q

Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may damage the bone marrow resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA:

Xylene
Toluene
Benzene
Chloroform

A

Benzene

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15
Q

It is especially recommended for cutting extremely hard and rough tissue blocks.

Rocking microtome
Rotary microtome
Sliding microtome
Freezing microtome

A

Sliding microtome

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15
Q

Celloidin embedded tissues are usually cut by means of:

Rocking microtome
Rotary microtome
Sliding microtome
Freezing microtome

A

Sliding microtome

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16
Q

This type of hone usually gives the best result. It is used for manual sharpening when cutting edge has been rendered blunt or nicked.

Fine carborundum
Arkansas
Belgium yellow

A

Belgium yellow

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17
Q

The knife is first fitted with the appropriate knife back, then laid obliquely on the strop and with the cutting edge behind (edge last) is pushed backward and drawn forward in a toe to heel direction.

Honing
Stropping

A

Stropping

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18
Q

During microtomy, it is noted that most of the tissue is very hard and shrunken. One of the first things to check to prevent its happening in the future is the:

Presence of water in the clearing agent
pH of the fixative
Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin
Freshness of the reagents on the processor

A

Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin

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19
Q

When the magnification can be changed without the need to refocus, the microscope objectives are said to be:

Parfocal
Binocular
Achromatic
Apochromatic

A

Parfocal

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20
Q

A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes:

Embeddol
Bioloid
Tissue mat
Ester wax

A

Bioloid

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21
Q

It has a lower melting point of 46 to 48C, but it is harder than paraffin.

Embeddol
Bioloid
Tissue mat
Ester wax

A

Ester wax

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22
Q

It is a product of paraffin, containing rubber, with the same property as paraplast.

Embeddol
Bioloid
Tissue mat
Ester wax

A

Tissue mat

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22
Q

The DRY celloidin embedding method is employed chiefly for the:

Bones and teeth
Large brain blocks
Whole organs
Eyes

A

Eyes

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23
Q

“Dip and dunk” machines where specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed:

Tissue transfer
Fluid transfer
Heat transfer
Linear transport

A

Tissue transfer

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24
Q

Tissues are subjected to a series of different reagents in an ENCLOSED PROCESSOR by:

Tissue transfer
Fluid transfer
Heat transfer
Linear transport

A

Fluid transfer

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24
Q

“Tissue processing” describes the steps required to take animal or human tissue from fixation to the state where it is completely infiltrated with a suitable ______ paraffin wax and can be embedded ready for section cutting on the microtome.

Commercial wax
Analytical wax
Technical wax
Histological wax

A

Histological wax

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25
Q

Harris hematoxylin is used on tissue sections to stain:

Fat
Glycogen
Nuclei
Cytoplasm

A

Nuclei

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26
Q

Using the regressive staining method, one deliberately overstains the nucleus with:

Acidified hematoxylin
Non-acidified hematoxylin
Acidified eosin
Non-acidified eosin

A

Non-acidified hematoxylin

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27
Q

The action of the dye is intensified by adding another agent or mordant:

Direct staining
Indirect staining
Progressive staining
Regressive staining

A

Indirect staining

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28
Q

Mordants are used to:

Change the refractive index of the tissue
Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye
Help differentiate stains
Oxidize staining solutions

A

Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye

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29
Q

It involves a differentiation or decolorization step:

Direct staining
Indirect staining
Progressive staining
Regressive staining

A

Regressive staining

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30
Q

Acetic acid is added to Harris hematoxylin to:

Keep heterochromatin from staining
Make nuclear staining more specific
Ripen the hematoxylin
Form a dye lake

A

Make nuclear staining more specific

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31
Q

Possible correction when hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained tissue section shows UNEVEN NUCLEAR STAINING and “BLUE BLOBS” lacking distinct chromatin patterns:

Restain with H & E stain
Change paraffin and reprocess tissue
Change reagents and reprocess tissue
No correction

A

Change reagents and reprocess tissue

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained tissue section shows uneven nuclear staining and “blue blobs” lacking distinct chromatin patterns

POSSIBLE CAUSE: If tissue was fixed properly, then sample was improperly dehydrated and infiltrated with paraffin

CORRECTION: Change reagents and reprocess tissue on proper processing protocol

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32
Q

Vital dye especially recommended for mitochondria:

Nile blue
Neutral red
Janus green
Toluidine blue

A

Janus green

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33
Q

Oldest stain:

Hematoxylin
Orcein
Carmine
Iodine

A

Iodine

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34
Q

It is the most common method used for the demonstration of basement membrane, particularly the glomerular basement membrane of the kidney, due to their CHO content.

Gomori’s stain
Mallory’s PTAH
Periodic acid Schiff
Congo red

A

Periodic acid Schiff

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35
Q

A commonly used connective tissue procedure that stains collagen blue:

Masson trichrome
van Gieson
Best carmine
Aldehyde fuchsin

A

Masson trichrome

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36
Q

The phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin (PTAH) is useful for demonstrating:

Edema fluid
Muscle striations
Ground substance
Reticulin network

A

Muscle striations

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37
Q

DNA can be demonstrated with:

Eosin
Pyronin
Feulgen reaction
Fast green

A

Feulgen reaction

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38
Q

Toluidine blue is used to demonstrate which of the following cells?

Plasma cells
Mast cells
Fibroblasts
Macrophages

A

Mast cells

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39
Q

Most sensitive lipid stain known:

Sudan Black B
Sudan III
Sudan IV
Oil red O

A

Sudan Black B

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40
Q

A copper phthalocyanine dye that is used for MYELIN STAINING of paraffin processed tissue:

Perl’s Prussian blue
Luxol fast blue
Gmelin technique
Sodium alizarin red S

A

Luxol fast blue

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41
Q

Astrocytes are demonstrated by which of the following procedures?

Luxol fast blue
Cresyl violet
Weil’s
Cajal’s

A

Cajal’s

Cajal’s gold sublimate method for astrocytes
Mod. Holzer’s method for astrocytic process

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42
Q

A stain that may be used to demonstrate calcium is the:

Fontana silver nitrate
Congo red
von Kossa silver nitrate
Schmorl method

A

von Kossa silver nitrate

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43
Q

Rhodanine is used to demonstrate:

Ferric iron
Copper
Calcium
Urate crystals

A

Copper

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44
Q

The recommended stain for all parasitic blood work:

Giemsa
Wright
Jenner
May-Grunwald

A

Giemsa

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45
Q

Malarial parasites appear bright green and yellow under a fluorescent microscope in the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method. This method uses capillary tube coated with:

Auramine-rhodamine
Methyl green- pyronine
Acridine orange
Fluoresceine isothiocyanate

A

Acridine orange

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46
Q

Microscope used for the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method for demonstration of malarial parasite:

Brightfield microscope
Fluorescent microscope
Polarizing microscope
Phase-contrast microscope

A

Fluorescent microscope

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47
Q

When an antibody labeled with a chromogen is reacted with tissue from a patient, the immunohistochemical technique is called:

Direct
Indirect
Avidin-biotin-complex
Soluble enzyme immune complex

A

Direct

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48
Q

This system is designed to:
(1) Provide routine and consistent checks to ensure data integrity, correctness, and completeness;
(2) Identify and address errors and omissions;
(3) Document and archive inventory material and record all these activities.

Quality assurance
Quality control
Continuous quality improvement
Total quality management

A

Quality control

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49
Q

The traditional model for infectious disease. It consists of an external AGENT, a susceptible HOST, and an ENVIRONMENT that brings the host and agent together.

Chain of infection
Chain of custody
Epidemiological triad
Universal health

A

Epidemiological triad

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50
Q

What is the national reference laboratory designed for infectious diseases, except for STIs?

a. RITM
b. NKTI
c. EAMC
d. SLH

A

a. RITM

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51
Q

First Laboratory in the Philippines:

a. Manila Sanitarium Hospital
b. Philippine Union College
c. Manila Public Health Laboratory

A

c. Manila Public Health Laboratory

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52
Q

First Graduate of Medtech:

a. Willa Hedrick
b. Elvin Hedrick
c. Jesse Umali

A

c. Jesse Umali

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53
Q

First School of Medtech:

a. Manila Sanitarium Hospital
b. Philippine Union College
c. Manila Public Health Laboratory
d. Adventist University of the Philippines

A

a. Manila Sanitarium Hospital

Absorbed by:
Philippine Union College
also known as:
Adventist University of the Philippines

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54
Q

RA 5527
Section 2: Work of Medtech

A

Under the supervision of a PATHOLOGIST or LICENSED PHYSICIAN

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55
Q

RA 5527
Section 8: Qualifications of an Examiner

A

Board of Medical Technology

  1. Filipino citizen
  2. Good moral character
  3. Qualified Pathologist, or duly registered MT
  4. In practice for at least 10 YEARS prior to appointment
  5. Not a member of school faculty for at least 2 YEARS prior to appointment
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56
Q

RA 5527
Section 14: Inhibition Against the Practice of Medical Technology

A

You should have a Certificate of Registration (COR)

When? Once you pass the board exam

If without,
1. Duly registered physicians
2. Medtech from other countries for consultation, visit, or exchange professors
3. Medtech in US Armed Forces stationed in PH

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57
Q

RA 5527
Section 16: Qualification for Examination

A
  1. Good health and good moral character
  2. Completed 4-yr course
  3. Graduated from another profession but working MT for 5yrs prior to the exam
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58
Q

RA 5527
Section 19: Rating in the Examination

A
  1. Gen ave: at least 75%
  2. No below 50% on major subjs
    (CC, MicroPara, Hema, ISBB)
  3. Not failed in or at least 60% of the subjs computed according to their relative weights
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59
Q

1 RMT can handle how many MLT?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

a. 2

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60
Q

Who is eligible to receive a COR?

a. convicted by court
b. guilty of immoral conduct
c. unsound mind
d. Medtech with SLE

A

d. Medtech with SLE

RA 5527
Section 23: Refusal to issue COR

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61
Q

What is the first document to be submitted to the DOH if you want to establish a Clinical Laboratory?

A

PTC: Permit to Construct a Clinical Laboratory

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62
Q

What is the best way to clean up blood that has dripped on the arm of a phlebotomy chair?

a. Absorb it with a gauze pad and clean the area with disinfectant
b. Rub it with a damp cloth and wash the area with soap and water
c. Wipe it with an alcohol pad using an outward circular motion
d. Wait for it to dry and then scrape it into a biohazard container

A

a. Absorb it with a gauze pad and clean the area with disinfectant

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63
Q

The results for frozen section should be released within:
a. 3 days
b. 1 week
c. 24 hours
d. 5-15 minutes

A

d. 5-15 minutes

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64
Q

The presence of koilocytes indicates an infection with:
a. HPV
b. HSV
c. HIV
d. CMV

A

a. HPV

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65
Q

Work practice controls, except:

a. Handwashing after each patient contact
b. No eating, drinking, or smoking in the laboratory
c. Splash guards
d. Warning signage

A

c. Splash guards

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66
Q

In the hierarchy of controls, which of the following is most effective in reducing hazards?

a. PPE
b. Administrative controls
c. Engineering controls
d. Elimination

A

d. Elimination

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67
Q

In the hierarchy of controls, arrange the following from the least effective to the most effective

a. PPE, engineering controls, administrative controls, substitution, elimination
b. PPE, administrative controls, engineering controls, substitution, elimination
c. Administrative controls, engineering controls, PPE, elimination, substitution
d. Administrative controls, engineering controls, elimination, substitution, PPE

A

b. PPE, administrative controls, engineering controls, substitution, elimination

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68
Q

Project team members:

a. Black belts
b. Green belts
c. Blue belts
d. White belts

A

b. Green belts

Green belts contribute 20% of their time to improvement projects whole delivering their normal job functions

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69
Q

Black belts dedicate ____ of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 70%
d. 100%

A

d. 100%

Black belts dedicate 100% of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems
Project coaches/leaders

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70
Q

Green belts contribute ____ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions

a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 100%

A

a. 20%

Green belts contribute 20% of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions
Project team members

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71
Q

First clinical laboratory in the Philippines:

San Lazaro Hospital
Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
Manila Public Health Laboratory
National Reference Laboratory

A

Manila Public Health Laboratory

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72
Q

Introduced medical technology practice in the Philippines after World War
II:

Dr. Pio de Roda
Dr. Prudencia Sta. Ana
Dr. Mariano Icasiano
26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army

A

26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army

73
Q

RA 5527 consists of:

30 sections
32 sections
50 sections
52 sections

A

32 sections

74
Q

Which of the following amends RA 5527 on June 11, 1978?

RA 6138
PD 498
PD 1534

75
Q

All are sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534, except:

Section 3
Section 8
Section 13
Section 18

A

Section 18

PD 1534 amended sections: 3, 8, and 13
(June 11, 1978)

76
Q

All are qualifications of the Board of Medical Technology, except:

a. Filipino citizen
b. Good moral character
c. Qualified Pathologist, or a duly registered MT
d. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 5 years prior to his appointment
e. Not a member of the faculty of any MT school for at least 2 years prior to
appointment

A

d. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 5 years prior to his
appointment

Feedback: In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 10 years prior to his appointment.

77
Q

Board of Medical Technology term of office:

a. Hold office for ONE (1) YEAR after appointments or until their successors shall
have been appointed and duly qualified
b. Hold office for THREE (3) YEARS after appointments or until their successors
shall have been appointed and duly qualified
c. Hold office for FIVE (5) YEARS after appointments or until their successors shall
have been appointed and duly qualified
d. Hold office for SEVEN (7) YEARS after appointments or until their successors shall
have been appointed and duly qualified

A

b. Hold office for THREE (3) YEARS after appointments or until their successors
shall have been appointed and duly qualified

78
Q

Minor subject (10%) in the MT Board Exam:

Clinical Chemistry
Hematology
Immunology, Serology & Blood Banking
Clinical Microscopy

A

Clinical Microscopy

79
Q

In order to pass the MT examination, a candidate must obtain a general
average of at least ___ in the written test.

General average of at least 50%
General average of at least 65%
General average of at least 70%
General average of at least 75%

A

General average of at least 75%

80
Q

Refresher course for applicants who have failed the Board Examination
for the ___ time.

First time
Second time
Third time
Fourth time

A

Third time

81
Q

Certificate of Registration as Medical Technologist is issued to any
successful applicant who has attained the age of:

18
19
20
21

82
Q

Revocation:

Unanimous vote (3/3)
Majority vote (2/3)

A

Unanimous vote (3/3)

83
Q

Suspension:

Unanimous vote (3/3)
Majority vote (2/3)

A

Majority vote (2/3)

84
Q

Which of the following can only be done in a tertiary category laboratory?

Crossmatching
Routine chemistry
Routine hematology
Culture and sensitivity

A

Culture and sensitivity

  1. Services under secondary category lab
  2. Special Chemistry
  3. Special Hematology, including coagulation procedures
  4. Immunology
  5. Microbiology - Culture and sensitivity

Feedback: Crossmatching is under secondary category lab including:
Gram staining and routine clinical chemistry

85
Q

Start of renewal of Clinical Laboratory License:

October 1
November 1
December 1
January 1

A

October 1

Feedback:
Non–hospital based clinical laboratories shall file applications for renewal of LTO
beginning on the FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER UNTIL THE LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER of the
current year.

86
Q

The LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) issued to the CLINICAL LABORATORY is
valid for:

One year
Two years
Three years
Five years

87
Q

Acceptable patient identifiers include:

a. Patient’s name, gender, medical record number
b. Patient’s name, gender, date of birth
c. Patient’s name, requesting physician, medical record number
d. Patient’s name, date of birth, medical record number

A

d. Patient’s name, date of birth, medical record number

88
Q

LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) Blood Service Facilities is valid for a period
of ____ years.

1 year
2 years
3 years
5 years

89
Q

According to DOH A.O. 2006-0024, certificate of accreditation of
laboratories for DRINKING WATER ANALYSIS is valid for __ year(s) and
expires on the last day of December. TAKE NOTE OF YEAR 2020 DOH
REVISION.

One year
Two years
Three years
Five years

A

Two years

Administrative Order No. 2006-0024 known as the “Rules and Regulations Governing the
Accreditation of Laboratories for Drinking Water Analysis
Certificate of Accreditation is valid for 2 years and expires on the last day of December

DOH A.O. 2020-0031 (July 17, 2020)
Revised Rules and Regulations Governing the Accreditation of Laboratories for Drinking
Water Analysis Laboratory for Drinking Water Analysis (LDWA)
DOH Certificate of Accreditation is valid for 3 years, effective from January 1 of the first
year, and shall expire on the last day of December on the third year

90
Q

Part of drinking water analysis, except:

Calcium
Fecal coliform test
Sodium
Potassium

91
Q

License and accredit drug testing centers in each province and city:

DOH
PDEA
PNP
PRC

92
Q

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA):

Shabu
Meth
Ice
Ecstasy

93
Q

Random drug test:

Applicants for firearm’s license
Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers
Students of secondary and tertiary schools
Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or
local government

A

Students of secondary and tertiary schools

94
Q

A drug test is valid for:

Six weeks
Six months
One year
Two years

95
Q

All results of HIV/AIDS testing shall be confidential and shall be released
only to the following persons, except:

Person who submitted himself/herself to such test
Boyfriend of the patient
Either parent of a minor child who has been tested
Legal guardian in the case of insane persons or orphans
Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the AIDSWATCH
program

A

Boyfriend of the patient

96
Q

The Professional Regulation Commission, otherwise known as the PRC,
is a ____-man commission attached to DOLE for general direction and
coordination. [Currently, to DOLE]

Two-man
Three-man
Four-man
Five-man

97
Q

The current (September 2022) PRC CHAIRPERSON is:

Marilyn Barza
Teofilo Pilando
Charito Zamora
Jose Cueto

A

Charito Zamora

98
Q

If a medical technologist was not able to complete the number of CPD
units upon renewal of PRC license, he may sign a/an:

Affidavit of undertaking
Certificate of exemption
Certificate of registration
Suspension order

A

Affidavit of undertaking

AFFIDAVIT OF UNDERTAKING
Contains your specific promises to:
1. Undertake to comply with the required number of CPD credit units during the validity of your PRC ID; and to
2. Submit proof of compliance with the required number of CPD units during the next renewal of the PRC ID

99
Q

An act done to avoid harming the patients:

Beneficence
Non-maleficence
Autonomy
Justice

A

Non-maleficence

100
Q

Obligation of MT to the patient:

Compliance to PRC
Compliance to the department of health
Comprehensive health education
Strive for excellence in professional practice

A

Strive for excellence in professional practice

101
Q

All traits are mentioned in the MT CODE OF ETHICS, except:

Honesty
Humility
Integrity
Reliability

A

Humility

Uphold the dignity and respect of my profession and conduct myself a reputation of reliability, honesty and integrity.

102
Q

Fill in the blank (Code of Ethics): Be dedicated to ____.

Fairness to all and in a spirit of brotherhood toward other members of the
profession
Law and shall not participate in illegal work
Responsibilities inherent to being a professional
Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind

A

Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind

103
Q

Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016:

RA 7719
RA 9288
RA 10912
RA 7170

104
Q

Published standards for GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE:

CDC
DOH
PRC
WHO

A

WHO

WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION
PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR:
1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999
2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995
3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001

105
Q

Components of quality assurance:

Pre-analytical variables
Analytical variables
Post-analytical variables
All of these

A

All of these

Quality assurance is the broader concept, encompassing preanalytical, analytical, and postanalytical variables

106
Q

An example of cellular adaptation is:

Edema
Inflammation
Neoplasia
Dysplasia

A

Dysplasia

Cellular adaptations:
1. Atrophy
2. Hypertrophy
3. Hyperplasia
4. Metaplasia
5. Dysplasia

107
Q

Low temperature:

Enhance fixation
Retard fixation
Variable
No effect

A

Retard fixation

108
Q

Stopping all cellular activities so that the cells can be viewed under the
microscope as if they are still in their original living state:

Decalcification
Embedding
Fixation
Staining

109
Q

Fixative for electron microscopy:

Carnoy’s
Formalin
Glutaraldehyde
Zenker

A

Glutaraldehyde

110
Q

For most instances, dehydration starts by placing the fixed specimen in:

70% ethyl alcohol
95% ethyl alcohol
Absolute alcohol
Xylene

A

70% ethyl alcohol

111
Q

Transition step between dehydration and infiltration with the embedding
medium:

Fixation
Clearing
Infiltration
Mounting

112
Q

Enclosed tissue processor:

Mechanical transfer
Dip and dunk
Fluid transfer
Tissue transfer

A

Fluid transfer

113
Q

These knives are used to cut block for ELECTRON MICROSCOPY (EM):

Disposal blades
Steel knives
Diamond or glass knives
Magnetic blades

A

Diamond or glass knives

114
Q

Sections fail to form ribbons:

Hard spot in tissue due to calcium
Sections are too thick
Paraffin is impure
Knife edge is dirty

A

Sections are too thick

  • Surfaces and edges of the block are not parallel
  • Horizontal surface of the block is not parallel to the knife
  • Parajn wax is too hard
  • Knife is tilted too much
  • Sections are too thick
  • Knife is dull
115
Q

Effect of basic pH to ripening process:

Slower oxidizing process
More rapid oxidizing process
Variable
No effect

A

More rapid oxidizing process

pH will have effect on rate of oxidation.
1. Neutral aqueous solution of hematoxylin - will form hematein in a few hours
2. Alkaline solutions - more rapid oxidizing process
3. Acid solutions - slower oxidizing process

116
Q

RETICULIN FIBERS IN GOMORI’S silver impregnation stain:

Black
Blue
Red
Green

117
Q

A stain containing silver nitrate for demonstration of spirochetes:

Fite-Faraco
Warthin-Starry
Masson-Fontana
Mallory’s PTAH

A

Warthin-Starry

118
Q

Frozen sections are stained by hand because:

Staining is more accurate
Prevent overstaining
Faster for one or a few individual sections
Predictable colors

A

Faster for one or a few individual sections

119
Q

_______ are raised against specific cellular _____ and then conjugated with
a _______.

Antigen, antibody, visual marker
Visual marker, antigen, antibody
Antibody, antigen, visual marker
Visual marker, antibody, antigen

A

Antibody, antigen, visual marker

120
Q

Gastrointestinal specimens, except:

Gastric lavage
Gastric brush
Fine needle aspirate (submucosal lesions)
Induced vomiting

A

Induced vomiting

121
Q

Liquid-based cytology samples:

Body fluids
Touch imprint
Brush sampling
Skin scrape

A

Body fluids

122
Q

It is considered to be a most sensitive and specific reagent for lipid
staining:

Sudan III
Sudan IV
Sudan Black
Oil Red O

A

Sudan Black

123
Q

One measure of the efficiency of a surgical pathology service:

Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians
Rapidity of tissue processing
Sufficiency of tissue preservation
Sufficiency of reagents and standards

A

Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians

124
Q

Objective of a quality assurance program in histopathology:

Ensure to process the tissues
Ensure acceptable service
Ensure to follow standards
Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report

A

Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report

125
Q

Primary objective in quality and safety control programs in histopathology
laboratories:

Correctness of interpretation of reports
Ensure correct sampling
Ensure accurate treatment to patient
Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment

A

Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment

126
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains picric acid, formalin, and acetic
acid?

Zenker
Helly
Bouin
Zamboni

127
Q

The volume of fixative should exceed the volume of the tissue by

1 to 2 times
5 to 10 times
10 to 20 times
25 to 50 times

A

10 to 20 times

128
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains formalin, potassium dichromate,
and mercuric chloride?

Zenker
Helly
Carnoy
Orth

129
Q

Precipitate left in tissues that have been fixed in solutions containing
mercuric chloride may be removed by immersion in:

Running water
Sodium thiosulfate
Weak ammonia water
Iodine

130
Q

Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:

4% formaldehyde
10% formaldehyde
37 to 40% formaldehyde
98 to 100% formaldehyde

A

37 to 40% formaldehyde

Important:
Commercial stock solution: 37 to 40% formaldehyde
As fixing fluid: 10% formalin

131
Q

Formalin pigment may be removed from tissue by:

Running water
Alcoholic iodine
Alcoholic picric acid
Potassium permanganate

A

Alcoholic picric acid

132
Q

To prepare a 10% solution of formalin, which of the following amounts of
water should be added to 100 mL of stock formaldehyde:

1,000 mL
900 mL
450 mL
10 mL

A

900 mL

Important: 1:10 dilution
1 part 40% formaldehyde
9 parts water
TV = 10

133
Q

Carnoy fluid is prepared with acetic acid, alcohol, and:

Chloroform
Formalin
Acetone
Osmium tetroxide

A

Chloroform

134
Q

The first and most important procedure in the preparation of a tissue for
microscopic examination is the choice of:

Fixative
Dehydrating agent
Clearing agent
Staining technique

135
Q

Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution:

Decreases the tissue autolysis
Decreases the fixative penetration
Increases the speed of fixation
Increases the volume of fixative needed

A

Increases the speed of fixation

136
Q

Which of the following may cause tissue to become overhardened?

Prolonged fixation
Abbreviated fixation
Inadequate dehydration
Incomplete clearing

A

Prolonged fixation

137
Q

To prevent polymerization of formaldehyde, which of the following is
added to the commercial stock solutions?

Methyl alcohol
Formic acid
Paraformaldehyde
Sodium phosphate

A

Methyl alcohol

138
Q

Which of the following is a dehydrating agent?

Formalin
Xylene
Benzene
Alcohol

139
Q

A clearing agent for use in processing tissues for paraffin embedding
must be miscible with the:

Fixative and paraffin
Dehydrant and paraffin
Fixative and dehydrant
Paraffin and water

A

Dehydrant and paraffin

140
Q

A reagent that CANNOT be used for dehydrating tissue is:

Benzene
Absolute alcohol
Dioxane
Acetone

141
Q

Which of the following chemicals is NOT a clearing agent?

Chloroform
Dioxane
Ethanol
Xylene

142
Q

The process of removing water from tissue is called:

Dehydration
Reduction
Oxidation
Clearing

A

Dehydration

143
Q

The dehydration and clearing steps can be omitted when using:

Celloidin
Epoxy resin
Glycol methacrylate
Water-soluble wax

A

Water-soluble wax

144
Q

The temperature of the oven used to maintain a supply of melted paraffin
for embedding tissue should be about:

43C
43F
60C
60F

145
Q

The microwave oven creates heat in staining solutions by

Convection
Conduction
Nonionizing radiation
Electrolytic action

A

Nonionizing radiation

146
Q

Ripening of hematoxylin is a process of:

Hydrolysis
Oxidation
Mordanting
Reduction

147
Q

The active staining ingredient in ripened hematoxylin solutions is:

Hematin
Hematein
Hematoxylin
Hemosiderin

148
Q

The most important step in regressive hematoxylin staining is:

Postmordanting in picric acid
Use of hematoxylin containing acetic acid
Differentiation in acid-alcohol
Washing in water after the hematoxylin

A

Differentiation in acid-alcohol

149
Q

The combination of a dye and a mordant is called a/an:

Base
Accelerator
Lake
Buffer

150
Q

Mercuric oxide (or sodium iodate) is used in Harris hematoxylin to:

Form hematein
Prevent oxidation
Serve as the mordant
Stabilize the solution

A

Form hematein

151
Q

The mordant in Weigert hematoxylin is:

Iron
Aluminum
Mercury
Tungsten

152
Q

Acetic acid is added to Harris hematoxylin to:

Keep heterochromatin from staining
Make nuclear staining more specific
Ripen the hematoxylin
Form a dye lake

A

Make nuclear staining more specific

153
Q

Which of the following is stained rose by the methyl green-pyronin (MGP)
technique?

Heterochromatin
DNA
RNA
Golgi apparatus

154
Q

Differentiating in the H&E stain is an example of using:

Excess mordant
Weak acid
Oxidizers
Buffers

155
Q

Sections for special stains have been accidentally stained with
hematoxylin. To remove the hematoxylin, place the sections in:

Acid alcohol
Dilute ammonia
Lithium carbonate
Isopropyl alcohol

A

Acid alcohol

156
Q

Glycogen is best demonstrated by the use of:

Crystal violet
Mayer mucicarmine
PAS with and without diastase
Alcian blue with and without hyaluronidase

A

PAS with and without diastase

157
Q

Which of the following methods best demonstrates elastic tissue?

Verhoeff
Silver impreganation
Gomori trichrome
PAS

158
Q

The oil red O stain requires which of the following sections?

Paraffin
Celloidin
Frozen
Plastic

159
Q

The oil red O stain might be used to demonstrate:

Rhabdomyosarcomas
Leiomyosarcomas
Liposarcomas
Adenocarcinomas

A

Liposarcomas

160
Q

The best stain for the demonstration of Mycobacterium leprae is the:

Fite
PAS
Kinyoun
Gram

161
Q

The PAS reaction will demonstrate fungi, because the cell wall contains:

Lipids
Carbohydrates
Reducing substances
Argyrophilic protein

A

Carbohydrates

162
Q

A tissue frequently used as a control for the Fontana-Masson stain is:

Skin
Lymph node
Liver
Spleen

163
Q

Toluidine blue stains:

Helicobacter
Legionella
Spirochetes
Chlamydia

A

Helicobacter

164
Q

Acridine orange demonstrates:

Cell wall
Mitochondria
Nucleic acid
Flagella

A

Nucleic acid

165
Q

Spirochetes in fixed tissue are best demonstrated by

Histochemical techniques
Vital staining
Metallic impregnation
Physical methods

A

Metallic impregnation

166
Q

Muscle that histologically contains cytoplasmic cross-striations and has
multiple nuclei located at the edge of the fibers is classified as:

Smooth
Visceral
Skeletal
Cardiac

A

Skeletal

  • cross-striations
  • multi-nucleated
167
Q

The terms “squamous,” “cuboidal,” and “columnar” describe cells that
have their origin in which tissue?

Connective
Muscle
Epithelium
Bone

A

Epithelium

168
Q

Elastic fibers have an affinity for:

Sudan
Indigo
Brazilin
Orcein

169
Q

Which of the following histological features is unique to cardiac muscle?

Cross-striations
Peripherally located nuclei
Intercalated discs
Non-branching fibers

A

Intercalated discs

170
Q

In addition to its ability to stain argentaffin cell granules, the FontanaMasson technique may also be used to stain:

Lipids
Collagen
Melanin
Spirochetes

171
Q

A delicate three-dimensional connective tissue meshwork that forms the
framework of organs, such as the spleen and lymph nodes, is made of:

Elastic fibers
Reticular fibers
Smooth muscle
Basement membrane

A

Reticular fibers

172
Q

The connective tissue cells actively involved in wound healing are:

Plasma cells
Mast cells
Macrophages
Fibroblasts

A

Fibroblasts

173
Q

An example of an exogenous pigment is:

Argentaffin
Melanin
Chromaffin
Carbon

174
Q

The staining method considered to be most sensitive and specific for
COPPER is the:

Chloranilic acid
Rhodanine
Orcein
Aldehyde fuchsin

175
Q

The nerve process carrying electrical impulses away from the cell body is
called a(n):

Neuron
Dendrite
Synapse
Axon

176
Q

Hemosiderin, hemoglobin, and bile pigment are classified as:

Endogenous pigments
Artifact pigments
Exogenous pigments
Extraneous pigments

A

Endogenous pigments

177
Q

Malignant tumors of connective tissue are known as:

Carcinomas
Lipomas
Sarcomas
Fibromas

178
Q

A rhabdomyosarcoma (malignant tumor, skeletal muscle) is suspected in
a biopsy submitted to the laboratory. To aid in making a definitive
diagnosis, a helpful stain would be the:

Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH)
Gomori aldehyde fuchsin
Verhoeff-van Gieson
Periodic acid Schiff

A

Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH)

179
Q

The use of mounting media makes stained tissue components more
visible by:

Distinguishing only the nuclei
Distinguishing only the cytoplasm
Destaining after hematoxylin
Improving the index of refraction

A

Improving the index of refraction

180
Q

Neuritic plaques of Alzheimer’s disease consist of abnormal cell
processes often in close proximity to deposits of:

Amyloid
Phospholipids
Neuromelanin
Astrocytes

181
Q

A disorder involving excess iron deposition in tissues, with resultant
TISSUE DAMAGE, is known as:

Hemosiderosis
Hemoglobinemia
Hemophilia
Hemochromatosis

A

Hemochromatosis

183
Q

For the torso:

a. Straight-cut incision
b. Y-shaped incision

A

a. Straight-cut incision

A—REVIEW QUESTIONS (8 decks)

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