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A—REVIEW QUESTIONS > ISBB > Flashcards

ISBB Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following can be attributed to Pasteur?

a. Discovery of opsonins
b. Observation of phagocytosis
c. First attenuated vaccines
d. Discovery of antibody diversity

A

c. First attenuated vaccines

Almroth Wright = Discovery of opsonins
Elie Metchnikoff = Observation of phagocytosis
Susumo Tonegawa = Discovery of antibody diversity

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2
Q

Which of the following best describes a hapten?
a. Cannot react with antibody
b. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier
c. Has multiple determinant sites
d. A large chemically complex molecule

A

b. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier

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3
Q

Which of the following antigens are found on the Tcell subset known as helpers/inducers?

a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD11

A

b. CD4

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4
Q

Which antibody provides protection to the growing fetus because it is able to cross the placenta?

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD

A

a. IgG

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5
Q

Which MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4+ T cells?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. No MHC molecule is necessary

A

b. Class II

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6
Q

Which of the following cytokines is also known as the T-cell growth factor?

a. IFN-γ
b. IL-12
c. IL-2
d. IL-10

A

c. IL-2

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7
Q

The classical complement pathway is activated by:

a. Most viruses
b. Antigen-antibody complexes
c. Fungal cell walls
d. Mannose in bacterial cell walls

A

b. Antigen-antibody complexes

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8
Q

Serum sickness, Arthus reaction and SLE are examples of:
a. Type I hypersensitivity reactions
b. Type II hypersensitivity reactions
c. Type III hypersensitivity reactions
d. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

A

d. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

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9
Q

What is considered as the gold standard for contact dermatitis?

a. RAST
b. RIST
c. Skin prick test
d. Patch test

A

d. Patch test

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10
Q

Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disease?

a. SLE
b. RA
c. GPA
d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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11
Q

Each of the following markers is correctly paired with a disease in which it can be used for patient monitoring, except:

a. CEA/choriocarcinoma
b. CA 15-3/breast adenocarcinoma
c. CA 125/ovarian carcinoma
d. CA 19-9/pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

a. CEA/choriocarcinoma

hCG = choriocarcinoma
CEA = colorectal cancer

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12
Q

The term for enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum protein is:

a. opsonization
b. agglutination
c. solubilization
d. chemotaxis

A

a. opsonization

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13
Q

What clinical manifestation would be seen in a patient with myeloperoxidase deficiency?

a. Defective T-cell function
b. Inability to produce IgG
c. Defective NK cell function
d. Defective neutrophil function

A

d. Defective neutrophil function

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14
Q

Suppose a 30 year old man was found to be a suitable donor for a kidney transplant to his younger sister. This transplant would be an example of a(an)?

a. autograft
b. allograft
c. isograft
d. xenograft

A

b. allograft

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15
Q

When soluble antigens diffuse in a gel that contains antibody, in which zone does optimum precipitation occur?

a. Prozone
b. Zone of equivalence
c. Postzone
d. Prezone

A

b. Zone of equivalence

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16
Q

Primary antibody found in Helicobacter pylori infection:

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

c. IgG

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17
Q

Interpretation of Hepatitis B panel:
HBsAg = negative
Anti-HBc = positive
Anti-HBs = positive

a. Acutely infected
b. Immune because of natural infection
c. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination
d. Might be susceptible to a false-positive anti-HBc

A

c. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination

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18
Q

Which of the following techniques uses restriction enzymes, electrophoresis, and then transfer of DNA fragments onto a solid matrix, followed by probing with labeled probes?

a. Dot-blot
b. Southern blot
c. Western blot
d. LCR

A

b. Southern blot

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19
Q

The method of choice for detecting VZV infection in immunocompromised hosts is:

a. Serology to detect virus-specific IgM antibodies
b. Serology to detect virus-specific IgG antibodies
c. Viral culture
d. Real-time PCR

A

d. Real-time PCR

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20
Q

In 1492, blood was taken from three young men and given to the stricken:

a. Pope Benedict XVI
b. Queen Elizabeth
c. Christopher Columbus
d. Pope Innocent VII

A

d. Pope Innocent VII

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21
Q

AHG reagent:

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Red

A

c. Green

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22
Q

Yellow= POSITIVE
Blue= NEGATIVE

a. B
b. B POSITIVE
c. A
d. A POSITIVE

A

a. B

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23
Q

Which genotype(s) will give rise to Bombay phenotype?

a. HH only
b. HH and Hh
c. Hh and hh
d. hh only

A

d. hh only

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24
Q

Which of the following Rh antigen is the second most immunogenic?
a. D
b. C
c. c
d. E

25
Q

The prevalence of this antigen in Northern Europeans is 1% but is higher in the Mennonite population.

a. Sc1
b. Sc2
c. Xg
d. Kell

26
Q

Which of the following antigens has served as a useful tool in anthropologic studies of Mongolian ancestry ?

a. Dia
b. Lea
c. Xg
d. Doa

27
Q

What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected from a 110-lb donor, including samples for processing?

a. 450 mL
b. 500 mL
c. 525 mL
d. 550 mL

28
Q

Vaccination for RUBELLA would result in a temporary deferral for:

a. 4 weeks
b. 2 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 16 weeks

A

a. 4 weeks

29
Q

Vaccination for MMR would result in a temporary deferral for:

a. 4 weeks
b. 2 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 16 weeks

A

a. 4 weeks

30
Q

Vaccination for YELLOW FEVER would result in a temporary deferral for:

a. 4 weeks
b. 2 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 16 weeks

A

b. 2 weeks

31
Q

Which drug can cause PERMANENT DEFERRAL?

a. Soriatane
b. Avodart
c. Propecia
d. Tegison

A

d. Tegison

32
Q

You CANNOT take aspirin for _____ before you donate platelets, because aspirin reduces the potency and performance of your platelets.

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 14 days
d. 21 days

A

b. 48 hours

33
Q

Which of the following vaccinations carries no deferral period?

a. Rubella
b. Varicella zoster
c. Recombinant HPV
d. Smallpox

A

c. Recombinant HPV

34
Q

Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?

a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours

A

a. 4 hours

35
Q

According to CDC, this bacterium is the most common isolate found in RBC units:

a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Bacillus cereus
c. Yersinia enterocolotica
d. Pseudomonas species

A

c. Yersinia enterocolotica

36
Q

How is an individual with genotype Dce/dce classified?

a. Rh positive
b. Rh negative
c. Rhnull
d. Total Rh

A

a. Rh positive

37
Q

Which blood group has the least amount of H antigen?

A. A1B
B. A2
C. B
D. A1

A

A. A1B

(O> A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B)

38
Q

CPDA-1 prolongs shelf life by:

a. 21 days
b. 35 days
c. 42 days
d. 2 days

A

b. 35 days

39
Q

How often can a blood donor donate whole blood?

a. Every 24 hours
b. Once a month
c. Every 8 weeks
d. Twice a year

A

c. Every 8 weeks

40
Q

When RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left”. This means:

a. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG
b. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG
c. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG
d.Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG

A

b. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG

INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL

Left = ↑ hgb oxygen

41
Q

The majority of platelets transfused in the United States today are:

a. Whole blood-derived platelets prepared by the platelet-rich plasma method
b. Whole blood-derived platelets prepared by the buffy coat method
c. Apheresis platelets
d. Prestorage pooled platelets

A

c. Apheresis platelets

42
Q

Which of the following anticoagulant preservatives provides a storage time of 35 days at 1C to 6C for units of whole blood and prepared RBCs if an additive solution is not added?

a. ACD-A
b. CP2D
c. CPD
d. CPDA-1

43
Q

What are the current storage time and storage temperature for platelet concentrates and apheresis platelet components?

a. 5 days at 1C-6C
b. 5 days at 24C-27C
c. 5 days at 20C-24C
d. 7 days at 22C-24C

A

c. 5 days at 20C-24C

44
Q

What is the minimum number of platelets required in a platelet concentrate prepared from whole blood by centrifugation (90% of sampled units)?

a. 5.5x10^11
b. 3x10^10
c. 3x10^11
d. 5.5x10^10

A

d. 5.5x10^10

45
Q

RBCs can be frozen for:

a. 12 months
b. 1 year
c. 5 years
d. 10 years

A

d. 10 years

46
Q

What is the minimum number of platelets required in an apheresis component (90% of the sampled units)?

a. 3x10^11
b. 4x10^11
c. 2x10^11
d. 3.5x10^11

A

a. 3x10^11

47
Q

Whole blood and RBC units are stored at what temperature?

a. 1C to 6C
b. 20C to 24C
c. 37C
d. 24C to 27C

A

a. 1C to 6C

48
Q

Additive solutions are approved for storage of red blood cells for how many days?

a. 21
b. 42
c. 35
d. 7

49
Q

One criterion used by the FDA for approval of new preservation solutions and storage containers is an average 24-hour post-transfusion RBC survival of more than:

a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 65%
d. 75%

50
Q

What is the lowest allowable pH for a platelet component at outdate?

a. 6
b. 5.9
c. 6.8
d. 6.2

51
Q

Frozen and thawed RBCs processed in an open system can be stored for how many days/hours?

a. 3 days
b. 6 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 15 days

A

c. 24 hours

52
Q

What is the hemoglobin source for hemoglobin-based oxygen carriers in advanced clinical testing?

a. Only bovine hemoglobin
b. Only human hemoglobin
c. Both bovine and human hemoglobins
d. None of the above

A

c. Both bovine and human hemoglobins

53
Q

Which of the following occurs during during storage of red blood cells?

a. pH decreases
b. 2,3-DPG increases
c. ATP increases
d. Plasma K+ decreases

A

a. pH decreases

54
Q

Nucleic acid amplification testing is used to test donor blood for which of the following diseases?

a. Hepatitis C virus
b. HIV
c. West Nile virus
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

55
Q

Which of the following is not an FDA-approved test for quality control of platelets?

a. BaCT/ALERT
b. eBDS
c. Gram Stain
d. Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test

A

c. Gram Stain

56
Q

Prestorage pooled platelets can be storage for:

a. 4 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 5 days
d. 7 days

57
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial contamination of platelet products?

a. Entry of skin plugs into the collection bags
b. Environmental contamination during processing
c. Bacteremia in the donor
d. Incorrect storage temperature

A

a. Entry of skin plugs into the collection bags

A—REVIEW QUESTIONS (8 decks)

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