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A—REVIEW QUESTIONS > Hematology > Flashcards

Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following poikilocyte demonstrates mouth-like appearance?

a. Codocytes
b. Elliptocytes
c. Blister cells
d. Stomatocytes

A

d. Stomatocytes

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2
Q

The description of poikilocytosis is:

a. Variation in erythrocyte size
b. Larger than normal
c. Smaller than normal
d. Variation in erythrocyte shape

A

d. Variation in erythrocyte shape

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3
Q

Bite cells:

a. PK deficiency
b. G6PD deficiency
c. PK and G6PD deficiency
d. None of the above

A

b. G6PD deficiency

RBC Inclusion: Heinz Bodies

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4
Q

How long does S phase take to complete its cycle?

a. 10
b. 8
c. 4
d. 1
e. Indefinite

A

b. 8

G1 ➡ 10hrs
S ➡ 8hrs
G2 ➡ 4hrs
Mitosis ➡ 1hr

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5
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria exhibits sensitivity of one population of red blood cells to:

a. Warm antibodies
b. Cold antibodies
c. Complement
d. Either A or

A

c. Complement

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6
Q

Popular test to detect PNH

a. immunoassay
b. ELISA
c. Photometry
d. Flow cytometry

A

d. Flow cytometry

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7
Q

Contains DNA or nuclear fragments:

a. Basophilic stippling
b. Howell-Jolly body
c. Heinz body
d. Pappenheimer bodies

A

b. Howell-Jolly body

Precipitated RNA [Lead Poisoning] ➡ Basophilic stippling
Fuelgen reaction (+) ➡ Howell-Jolly body
Denatured Hgb ➡ Heinz body
Contains iron ➡ Pappenheimer bodies

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8
Q

Human hematopoietic stem cells express:

a. CD3
b. CD10
c. CD34
d. CD56

A

c. CD34

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9
Q

The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte is _____ µm

a. 5.2
b. 6.4
c. 7.2
d. 8.4

A

c. 7.2

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10
Q

In VCS technology for hematology analyzers, what does C stand for?

a. Conductivity
b. Current
c. Connectivity
d. Coulter

A

A. Conductivity

V ➡ Volume
C ➡ Conductivity
S ➡ Scatter technology

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11
Q

Increased amounts of 2,3-BPG ____ the oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin molecule.

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Does not alter
d. None of the above

A

b. Decreases

By: Rapoport-Leubering Pathway

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12
Q

The stages of neutrophilic granulocyte development are

a. promyelocyte, myeloblast, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils
b. myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils
c. myelocyte, myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils
d. myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, myelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils

A

b. myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils

Pro ➡ before
3rd stage ➡ MYELOCYTE
Meta ➡ after

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13
Q

The WHO classification requires what percentage for the blast count in the blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML?

a. At least 30%
b. At least 20%
c. At least 10%
d. Any percentage

A

b. At least 20%

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14
Q

The FAB classification requires what percentage for the blast count in the blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML?

a. At least 30%
b. At least 20%
c. At least 10%
d. Any percentage

A

a. At least 30%

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15
Q

Which of the following demonstrates the
SMALLEST platelet seen?

a. May Hegglin
b. Bernard Soulier
c. Alport syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich

A

d. Wiskott-Aldrich

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16
Q

What influence does the Philadelphia (Ph1) chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with CML?

a. It is not predictive
b The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present
c. The prognosis is worse if Ph1 is present
d. The disease usually transforms into AML when Ph1 is present

A

b The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present

Ph1 = translocation of: 9, 22 = CML

CML
(+) Ph1 = Good prognosis
(-) Ph1 = Poor prognosis

17
Q

Which of the following demonstrates the LARGEST platelets seen and is also referred to as giant platelet syndrome?

a. May Hegglin
b. Bernard Soulier
c. Alport syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich

A

b. Bernard Soulier

B = Bigger

18
Q

Promyelocytes predominate in the bone marrow:

a. M1
b. M2
c. M3
d. M4

A

c. M3

19
Q

Fletcher factor:

a. Prekallikrein
b. HMWK
c. Factor XI
d. Factor XII

A

a. Prekallikrein

20
Q

Fitzgerald factor:

a. Prekallikrein
b. HMWK
c. Factor XI
d. Factor XII

A

b. HMWK

21
Q

Cells have distinctive nuclear lobulation and have been termed “flower cells”

a. Acute myelogenous leukemia
b. Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma
c. Hairy cell leukemia
d. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

b. Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma

Caused by: HTLV-1 virus

22
Q

Using white blood cell as the reference, what is the effect of leukocytosis in the ESR?

a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Variable
d. None of the above

A

b. Decreased

↑ Leukemia
↓ Leukocytosis

23
Q

Anticoagulant to avoid platelet satellitism:

a. EDTA
b. Oxalate
c. Citrate
d. Heparin

A

c. Citrate

Platelet satellitism: “EDTA-induced thrombocytopenia”

24
Q

Increased ESR:

a. Acanthocytosis
b. Anemia
c. Microcytosis
d. Polycythemia

A

b. Anemia

25
Q

Which organ is the site of sequestration of
platelets?

a. Liver
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Bone marrow

A

c. Spleen

1/3 of PLT = Spleen
2/3 of PLT = Circulation

26
Q

What are the INITIAL laboratory tests that are performed for the diagnosis of anemia?

a. CBC, iron studies, and reticulocyte count
b. CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood film examination
c. Reticulocyte count and serum iron, vitamin B12, and folate assays
d. Bone marrow study, iron studies, and peripheral blood film examination

A

b. CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood film examination

27
Q

Single factor deficiency with normal PT, PTT, and TCT:

a. I
b. XI
c. XIII
d. II

A

c. XIII

Because Factor XIII cannot be detected
need to do:
1. DUCKERT’S TEST
2. UREA SOLUBILITY TEST

28
Q

The deficient factor is factor VIII. What would be the result for PT, PTT, and TCT, respectively, using clot-based screening assays?

a. Normal, prolonged, normal
b. Prolonged, prolonged, prolonged
c. Prolonged, normal, normal
d. Prolonged, normal, prolonged

A

a. Normal, prolonged, normal

29
Q

Fibrinogen level in patients with hemophilia A, B and C?

a. Decreased, normal, decreased
b. Normal, normal, normal
c. Decreased, decreased, decreased
d. Normal, decreased, decreased

A

b. Normal, normal, normal

30
Q

If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic examination of Wright stained preparation, possible causes include that:

a. The staining time was too long
b. The stain was too basic
c. The buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short
d. The buffer was too basic and the exposure time was too long

A

c. The buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short

31
Q

The abbreviation LASER stands for:

a. light-associated simulated emission of radiation
b. largely amplified by simulated emission of radiation
c. light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation
d. liquid amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

A

c. light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

32
Q

In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be to the _____ of the normal distribution curve.

a. Right
b. Left
c. In the middle
d. Bimodal

A

a. Right

Left = small RBC (L = Liit)

33
Q

The abnormal protein frequently found in the urine of persons with multiple myeloma is:

a. Albumin
b. Globulin
c. IgG
d. Bence Jones

A

d. Bence Jones

34
Q

In Gaucher disease, as the result of β-glucocerebrosidase deficiency, what accumulates in (macrophages) histiocytes?

a. Glucocerebroside and sphingomyelin
b. Glucocerebroside
c. Sphingomyelin
d. None of the above

A

b. Glucocerebroside

35
Q

Cells that produces antibodies and lymphokines:

a. Erythrocytes
b. Granulocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Thrombocytes

A

c. Lymphocytes

36
Q
A

A—REVIEW QUESTIONS (7 decks)

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