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SEM 1 > Microbiology: Midterm > Flashcards

Microbiology: Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Process that destroys or eliminates all forms of microbial life including endospores

A

Sterilization

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2
Q

The study of microorganisms

A

What is microbiology?

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3
Q

________ is known as the “Father of immuniology”

a) Louis Pasteur
b) John Tyndal
c) Joseph Lister
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis

A

a) Louis pasteur

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4
Q

Discovered the need for prolonged heating to destroy bacteria

a) Louis Pasteur
b) John Tyndal
c) Joseph Lister
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis

A

b) John Tyndal

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5
Q

Discovered Penicillin

a) Louis Pasteur
b) John Tyndal
c) Joseph Lister
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis

A

d) Sir Alexandar Flemming

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6
Q

Discovered the role of airborn microorganisms

a) Louis Pasteur
b) John Tyndal
c) Joseph Lister
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis

A

c) Joseph Lister

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7
Q

Recognized the importance of hand washing

a) Louis Pasteur
b) John Tyndal
c) Joseph Lister
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis

A

e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis

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8
Q

Portal of entry into the body

A
  1. Inhalation
  2. Ingestion
  3. Mucous Membranes
  4. Breaks in the skin
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9
Q

CDC

A

Centre for disease control

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10
Q

_______ collaborates to create the expertise, information, and tools that people and communities need to protect their health

A

CDC

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11
Q

Primitive cells
NO internal membrane
NO NUCLEUS

a) Prokaryotes cells
b) Eukaryote cells

A

a) Prokaryotes cells

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12
Q

Complex cells
With internal membranes.
HAVE A NUCLEUS

a) Prokaryotes cells
b) Eukaryote cells

A

b) Eukaryote cells

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13
Q

T/F: Bacteria is a Eukaryote cell

A

False.
Bacteria is a Prokaryotes cell

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14
Q

hair-like projections with fine short appendages that allow bacteria to adhere

A

Fimbriae

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15
Q

3 shapes of bacteria

A
  1. Cocci - Spherical
  2. Spirilla - Spiral
  3. Bacilli - Rod
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16
Q

Extreamly small; about one-tenth the size of bacteria

A

Obligate intracellular parasites

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17
Q

Viruses may be grouped into families but are not classified. They are defined by 3 things:

A
  1. Their type of nucleic acid: DNA or RNA
  2. The symmetry of the virus
  3. If they have an envelope
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18
Q

What is the sequence of Viral replication

A
  1. Attachment (Adsorbtion)
  2. Penetration
  3. Replication
  4. Assembly
  5. Release from host cell
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19
Q

One of the resistant forms of life
against heat, drying, and chemicals

A

Spores

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20
Q

Bacteria that develop a defense
mechanism against death

A

Spores

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21
Q

_______ grow best at body temperature
(37 degree C)
(with a range from 22-45 degrees C)

a) Psychrophiles
b) Thermophiles
c) Mesophiles

A

c) Mesophiles

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22
Q

______ grow best at warmer temperature (56 degree C)
(With a range of 45 – 70 degrees C)

a) Psychrophiles
b) Thermophiles
c) Mesophiles

A

b) Thermophiles

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23
Q

______ have optimal growth at refrigerator temperature
(7 degrees C)
(With range from 1- 22 degrees C)

a) Psychrophiles
b) Thermophiles
c) Mesophiles

A

a) Psychrophils

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24
Q

__________ have a pH 5.5-8.0

a) Neutrophiles
b) Alkalophiles pH
c) Acidophiles pH

A

a) Neutrophils

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25
Q

_______ have a pH 8.5-11.5

a) Neutrophiles
b) Alkalophiles
c) Acidophiles

A

b) Alkaphiles

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26
Q

_______ have a pH 1.0-5.5

a) Neutrophiles
b) Alkalophiles
c) Acidophiles

A

c) Acidophiles

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27
Q

What type of cell is this

a) Eukaryotic cell
b) Prokaryotic cell

A

a) Eukaryotic cell

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28
Q

What type of cell is this

a) Eukaryotic cell
b) Prokaryotic cell

A

b) Prokaryotic cell

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29
Q

_______ require oxygen at 20%
concentration

  1. Facultative anaerobes
  2. Microaerophiles
  3. Obligate Aerobes
  4. Obligate anaerobes
A
  1. Obligate Aerobes
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30
Q

tolerate low (4%) oxygen concentration

  1. Facultative anaerobes
  2. Microaerophiles
  3. Obligate Aerobes
  4. Obligate anaerobes
A
  1. Microaerophiles
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31
Q

cannot tolerate oxygen

  1. Facultative anaerobes
  2. Microaerophiles
  3. Obligate Aerobes
  4. Obligate anaerobes
A
  1. Obligate anaerobes
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32
Q

can grow with or without oxygen

  1. Facultative anaerobes
  2. Microaerophiles
  3. Obligate Aerobes
  4. Obligate anaerobes
A
  1. Facultative anaerobes
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33
Q

bacteria that produce acids during growth

a) Aciduric
b) Acidogenic

A

b) Acidogenic

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34
Q

bacteria that survive and grow in an acidic environment
(usually below pH 5.5)

a) Aciduric
b) Acidogenic

A

a) Aciduric

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35
Q

kill bacteria (chemical or physical)

a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Antibiotics

A

a) Bactericidal agents

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36
Q

prevent growth without killing them

a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Antibiotics

A

a) Bacteriostatic agents

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37
Q

To treat bacterial diseases

a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Antibiotics

A

c) Antibiotics

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38
Q

______ is a heat process employed to reduce # of bacteria and destroy pathogens

a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Pateurization
d) Lyphoilization

A

c) Pasteurization

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39
Q

a process of preserving microbes from a substance by removing the water, rapidly freezing the sample, then drying it by using a vacuum pump, at very low temperature (freeze drying)

a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Pateurization
d) Lyphoilization

A

d) Lyphoilization

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40
Q

For long term preservation of blood, serum, bacterial cultures, to preserve vaccines.

a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Pateurization
d) Lyphoilization

A

d) Lyphoilization

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41
Q

occurs when a microorganism in the body multiplies and causes damage to the tissue

a) Pathogen
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Opportunistic pathogens
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases

A

b) Infectious disease

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42
Q

the microorganisms that cause infectious diseases

a) Pathogens
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Endogenous diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases

A

Pathogens

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43
Q

the causative agents of infectious diseases caused by microorganisms normally present or on or in the body, that will not cause harm unless favourably conditions exists for them to express their disease-producing potential

a) Pathogens
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Endogenous diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases

A

c) Opportunistic disease

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44
Q

are causes by microorganisms in or on the body

a) Pathogens
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Endogenous diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases

A

d) Endogenous disease

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45
Q

are caused by microorganisms not normally present on or in the body; will contaminate the body from the outside

a) Pathogens
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Endogenous diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases

A

e) Exogenous diseases

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46
Q

_________ microorganisms causing disease without entering & multiplying in the body (food poisoning)

a) Pathogens
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Endogenous diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases

A

f) Exogenous diseases

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47
Q

Viruses that infect bacteria

A

Bacteriophage

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48
Q

infection agent composed entirely of protein, causing a rare degenerative brain disease in humans called Creutzfeldt- Jacob

A

Prion

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49
Q

A method that prevents contamination by unwanted microorganisms - the absense of microbes

A

Asepsis

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50
Q

to consider all clients as being infected with bloodborne pathogens and therefore applying infection control
procedures to the care of all clients.

a) Standard precautions
b) Universal precautions

A

b) Universal precautions

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51
Q

A process that allows the transfer of microorganisms between persons and/or environmental surfaces or to a
sterile object. E.g. touching a clients chart with dirty gloves.

A

Cross-contamination

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52
Q

Are a set of infection control practices used to prevent the transmission of diseases through the contact with all body fluids (excepts sweat) including blood, non-intact skin & mucous membranes

a) Standard precations
b) Universal precation

A

Standard precautions

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53
Q

5 Pathways of cross-contamination

A
  1. Client to Dental Team
  2. Dental Team to Client
  3. Client to Client
  4. Dental Office to Community
  5. From Community to Client
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54
Q

Contact with microorganisms at the source as in the clients mouth. Touching soft tissue or teeth.

  1. Indirect contact
  2. Direct contact
  3. Airborne
  4. Droplet
A
  1. Direct contact
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55
Q

Contact with items contaminated with a clients microorganisms

  1. Indirect contact
  2. Direct contact
  3. Airborne
  4. Droplet
A
  1. Indirect contact
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56
Q

Contact with sprays, splashes, aerosols or splatter containing microorganisms.

  1. Indirect contact
  2. Direct contact
  3. Airborne
  4. Droplet
A
  1. Droplet
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57
Q

smaller particles, can remain airborne for hours, can be inhaled

  1. Indirect contact
  2. Direct contact
  3. Airborne
  4. Droplet
A
  1. Airborne
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58
Q

Tuberculosis, chickenpox, measles are examples of transmission by:

  1. Indirect contact
  2. Direct contact
  3. Airborne
  4. Droplet
A
  1. Airborne
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59
Q

Influenza, mumps, rubella, herpes virus are examples of transmission by:

  1. Indirect contact
  2. Direct contact
  3. Airborne
  4. Droplet
A
  1. Droplet
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60
Q

Hep B and C viruses are examples of transmission by:

  1. Indirect contact
  2. Direct contact
  3. Airborne
  4. Droplet
A
  1. Indirect contact
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61
Q

Herpes infections of the fingers, STD’s, Skin diseases are examples of transmission by:

  1. Indirect contact
  2. Direct contact
  3. Airborne
  4. Droplet
A
  1. Direct contact
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62
Q

A process intended to destroy/kill
all mo’s in a material or on an object

a) Sterilization
b) Disinfection

A

a) Sterilization

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63
Q

A process that destroys mo’s, NOT
spores & viruses OR

a) Sterilization
b) Disinfection

A

b) Disinfection

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64
Q

The three common types of sterilization used in dentistry are:

A
  1. Heat
  2. Gas
  3. Liquid Chemical
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65
Q

A process that is intended to reduce and kill disease producing microorganisms but not bacterial endospores

A

Disinfection

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66
Q

6 types of disinfectants

A
  1. Alcohols
  2. Quaternary ammonium compounds
  3. Glutaraldehyde
  4. Iodophors
  5. Chlorine Compounds
  6. Phenols
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67
Q

sodium chloride loving bacteria

  1. Halophilic Bacteria
  2. Haloduric Bacteria
A
  1. Halophilic
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68
Q

capable of existing(do not prefer) in a
medium containing a high concentration of salt

  1. Halophilic Bacteria
  2. Haloduric Bacteria
A
  1. Haloduric
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69
Q

term used to designate all the categories of drugs used to treat
infections

A

Antibiotics

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70
Q

is meant to destroy or control a microbial infection to numbers that can
be eliminated by the immune system

A

Antibiotics

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71
Q

6 Antimicrobials

A
  1. Chlorhexidine (Peridex)
  2. Phenols (Listerine)
  3. Quaternary Ammonium Compound (Cepacol)
  4. Stannous Fluoride
  5. Sanguinarine (Viadent)
  6. Antibiotics
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72
Q

T/F: Antimicrobials are antibacterial

A

True

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73
Q

Antibiotics used in Dentistry

A
  1. Penicillin and its derivatives
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Erythromycin
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74
Q

A prolonged use of antimicrobials, especially an antibiotic can lead to:

A
  1. Toxicity
  2. Increase in incidence of allergic reactions
  3. Resistance to the antimicrobial
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75
Q

function as the powerhouse

A

Mitochondria

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76
Q

function to package protein; especially important for proteins destined for secretion

A

Golgi Apparatus

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77
Q

membranous sacs that contain digestive enzymes

A

Lysosomes

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78
Q

have cell walls composed of a thick layer

a) Gram positive
b) Gram negative

A

a) Gram positive

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79
Q

have cell walls with a thin layer

a) Gram positive
b) Gram negative

A

B) Gram negative

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80
Q

Bacteria cells divide by a process called

A

Binary Fission

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81
Q

Five major physical conditions influence growth of bacteria:

A

1.Temperature
2. Acidity
3. Nutrients
4. Oxygen metabolism
5. Water

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82
Q

enzymes released into the environment that break down proteins into amino acids that can enter the cell

A

Proteases

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83
Q

Common bacterial diseases

A
  1. TB
  2. Syphilis
  3. Anthrax
  4. Leprosy
  5. Pneumonia
  6. Dental Caries/Periodontal Disease
  7. Strep Throat
  8. Meningitis
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84
Q

Viral replication steps

A
  1. Attachment or adsorption
  2. Penetration
  3. Uncoating
  4. Replication or syntheses of virus
  5. Assembly
  6. Release from Host Cell
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85
Q

Ways of Transmission of Viruses

A
  1. Droplets
  2. Direct Transfer
  3. Contaminated food or water
  4. Insects
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86
Q

The following are examples of

  1. HIV/AIDS
  2. Hepatitis A, B, C
  3. Herpes Simplex I & II
  4. S.A.R.S., COVID-19
  5. Measles
  6. Influenza/Common Cold
  7. West Nile
A

Common viral diseases

87
Q

Common dental fungal infection (Thrush or denture stomatitis) caused by Candida albicans

A

Oral Candidasis

88
Q

cell eating =

A

Phagocytes

89
Q

Primative cells with no internal membrane and no nucleus

A

Prokaryotic Cell

90
Q

Harmful infection of the LIVER

A

Hepatitis

91
Q

Gum disease caused by bacteria

A

Gingivitis

92
Q

Examples of Bloodborne pathogens

A
  1. HIV
  2. HEP B
  3. HEP C
93
Q

Steps of disease development

A
  1. Source of microorganism
  2. Escape of microorganism from the source
  3. Spread of microorganism to a new person
  4. Entry of microorganism into the person
  5. Infection (survival and growth of
    microorganism)
  6. Damage to the body
94
Q

4 Stages of an infectious disease

A
  1. Incubation Stage
  2. Prodromal Stage
  3. Acute Stage
  4. Convalescent Stage
95
Q

from initial entrance of infectious agent to display of first symptoms.

a) Incubation Stage
b) Prodromal Stage
c) Acute Stage
d) Convalescent Stage

A

a) Incubation stage

96
Q

Early symptoms - microorganisms multiply to numbers to cause “malaise”
(don’t feel like yourself)

a) Incubation Stage
b) Prodromal Stage
c) Acute Stage
d) Convalescent Stage

A

b) Prodomal stage

97
Q

Host displays maximal symptoms of the
disease - very ill

a) Incubation Stage
b) Prodromal Stage
c) Acute Stage
d) Convalescent Stage

A

c) Acute stage

98
Q

Recovery phase - number of microorganisms declining or are being
destroyed rapidly as body defenses successfully combat disease

a) Incubation Stage
b) Prodromal Stage
c) Acute Stage
d) Convalescent Stage

A

d) Convalecent Stage

99
Q

Types of physical barriers of INATE host defences

A
  1. Unbroken skin
  2. Mucous membranes
  3. Respiratory
100
Q

Types of chemical barriers of INATE host defences

A
  1. Nose hair
  2. Coughing
  3. Sneezing
  4. Washing of secretions and excretions
101
Q

Types of antimicrobial chemical barriers of INNATE host defences

A
  1. Hydrochloric acid (stomach)
  2. Lysozyme
  3. Interferon (resistant to virus replication cells)
102
Q

Types of antimicrobial cellular barriers of INNATE host defences

A

WBC (neutrophils and macrophages->
phagocytes)

103
Q

Defences we are born with

a) Innate defences
b) Aquired immunity

A

Innate defences

104
Q

Defences we gain over time

a) Innate defences
b) Aquired immunity

A

b) Aquired immunity

105
Q

Phagocytosis =

A

Cell eating

106
Q

Pinocytosis =

A

Cell drinking

107
Q

B Lymphocytes

A

Produce antibodies

108
Q

T Lymphocytes

A

Helper cells & killer cells

109
Q

Cause by MOs that have multiplied and caused damage to tissues

a) Infectious diseases
b) Communicable diseases
c) Contagious diseases

A

a) Infectious diseases

110
Q

Infections that can be spread from one host to another

a) Infectious diseases
b) Communicable diseases
c) Contagious diseases

A

b) Communicable diseases

111
Q

A disease that is highly communicable

a) Infectious diseases
b) Communicable diseases
c) Contagious diseases

A

c) Contagious diseases

112
Q

A disease that is serious but relatively short or limited in duration

a) Acute
b) Chronic

A

a) Acute

113
Q

A disease that is often milder in nature and less of an immediate threat but persists for months or even years

a) Acute
b) Chronic

A

b) Chronic

114
Q

A disease that remains contained at a
specific site

a) Local disease
b) Disseminated Disease

A

a) Local disease

115
Q

A disease that starts at a specific site but eventually spreads to another part of the body

a) Local disease
b) Disseminated Disease

A

b) Disseminated disease

116
Q

The ability of a microorganism to cause disease.

a) Pathogenicity
b) Virulence

A

a) Pathogenicity

117
Q

The degree of the pathogenicity (how much the microorganism will affect the disease)

a) Pathogenicity
b) Virulence

A

b) Virulence

118
Q

The ability of microorganisms to gain entry and spread to a host.

  1. Toxigenicity
  2. Invasiveness
A
  1. Invasiveness
119
Q

The capacity of microbial products known as toxins to cause injury to the host

  1. Toxigenicity
  2. Invasiveness
A
  1. Toxigenicity
120
Q

What is Epidemiology

A

Study of the nature and circumstances of disease
(The how, when and where)

121
Q

___________ can be defined as a
large number of cases of the disease
occurring in a community within a short
time

a) Epidemic Disease
b) Endemic Disease
c) Sporadic Disease

A

a) Epidemic

122
Q

_________ is the presence of a limited number of cases of a disease at all times within a geographical area.

a) Epidemic Disease
b) Endemic Disease
c) Sporadic Disease

A

b) Endemic

123
Q

a particular disease which occurs without regularity in a random community.

a) Epidemic Disease
b) Endemic Disease
c) Sporadic Disease

A

c) Sporatic

124
Q

Six Reservoirs of Infection

A
  1. Humans
  2. Animals
  3. Water
  4. Soil
  5. Insects
  6. Arachnids
125
Q

The initial disease caused by a microbial
invader.

a) Primary Disease
b) Secondary Disease

A

a) Primary Disease

126
Q

Another disease that will occur in a person while having a primary disease.

a) Primary Disease
b) Secondary Disease

A

b) Secondary Disease

127
Q

How to prevent employee exposure:

A
  1. Hand washing
  2. Handling sharps
  3. Restricted activities in the Work Area
  4. Minimize spatter
  5. Specimen containers
  6. PPE
128
Q

New infectious diseases that have not been recognized before

A

Emerging diseases

129
Q

does not colonize or remain on hands for long periods of time

a) Transient flora
b) Resident flora

A

a) Transient flora

130
Q

microorganisms that colonize on skin and become permanent residents

a) Transient flora
b) Resident flora

A

b) Resident flora

131
Q

always on skin and can never be removed totally, even with surgical scrub

a) Transient flora
b) Resident flora

A

b) Resident flora

132
Q

can be removed or greatly reduced by routine hand washing

a) Transient flora
b) Resident flora

A

a) Transient flora

133
Q

Common antimicrobial agents in hand hygiene products:

A
  1. Alcohols
  2. Chlorhexidine digluconate
  3. Iodophor
  4. Para-chlorometaxylenol
  5. Triclosan
  6. Quaternary ammonium compounds
134
Q

Air/water syringe should be flushed for a minimum of _______ between clients.

a) 20 sec
b) 45 sec
c) 1 min
d) 10 sec

A

a) 20 sec

135
Q

Which protective barrier is donned last before treating a client?

a) Mask
b) Gloves
c) Goggles
d) Gown

A

b) Gloves

136
Q

Which protective barrier is donned first before treating a client?

a) Mask
b) Gloves
c) Goggles
d) Gown

A

d) Gown

137
Q

items to be cleaned and sterilized by heat

a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical

A

critical & semi-critical

138
Q

items to be cleaned and sterilized by heat or if heat sensitive must use a high-level disinfectant

a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical

A

semi-critical

139
Q

treated with low-level disinfectant if no blood is visible

a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical

A

non-critical

140
Q

Penetrates Soft tissue, bone, or enters bloodstream

a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical

A

critical

141
Q

Contacts mucous membranes but wont penetrate soft tissue, contact bone, nor enter into/contact the bloodstream.

a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical

A

semi-critical

142
Q

contacts intact skin

a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical

A

non-critical

143
Q

If the chemical is not sporicidal but can kill other microorganisms, it is called a

A

Disinfectant

144
Q

presence of microorganisms on a surface or item, prior to sterilization
(blood, saliva, tissue fluids, dental materials etc.)

A

Bioburden

145
Q

Drain or discard the cleaning solution __________

A

Daily

146
Q

Drain or discard the cleaning solution

A

Daily

147
Q

uses live spores

a) Biological indicators
b) Mechanical indicators
c) Chemical indicatiors

A

Biological indicators

148
Q

Keep going, you got this

A

Your going to do amazing !
Breathe.

149
Q

uses heat sensitive chemicals

a) Biological indicators
b) Mechanical indicators
c) Chemical indicatiors

A

Mechanical indicators

150
Q

How often should you spore test?

A

Daily

151
Q

Indicators that change color after a certain temperature has been reached

a) Internal indicators
b) Extrenal indicators

A

External indicators

152
Q

Integrated indicators that change color or form slowly, respond to a combination of time and temperature

a) Internal indicators
b) Extrenal indicators

A

Internal indicators

153
Q

shows the package has been exposed to the sterilization process

a) Class I External
b) Class II
c) Class III Internal
d) Class IV multivariable internal
e) Class V Internal

A

Class I External

154
Q

Autoclave tape

a) Biological indicators
b) Mechanical indicators
c) Chemical indicatiors

A

Chemical indicator

155
Q

Strips

a) Biological indicators
b) Mechanical indicators
c) Chemical indicatiors

A

Chemical indicator

156
Q

Involves observation of gauges and displays on sterilizer and recording of sterilizing temperature, pressure, and exposure time

a) Biological indicators
b) Mechanical indicators
c) Chemical indicatiors

A

Mecanical indicator

157
Q

Causes of sterilization failure-
Improper:

A

Improper:
1. cleaning of instruments
2. packaging
3. loading of sterilizer
4. timing
5. temperature
6. method of sterilization

158
Q

Store instruments for

A

1-6 months

159
Q

What type of monitoring: class V indicators

A

Chemical monitoring

160
Q

How to handle sharps

A

With Tongs or cotton forceps

161
Q

T/F: Unpackaged instruments can be contaminated immediately by air, dust, moisture, and improper handling

A

True

162
Q

__________ or _________ maintains sterility after sterilization.

A

Wrapping or bagging

163
Q

_______ reduce direct handling of contaminated instruments and keep instruments together during cleaning, sterilizing, and presentation for the next client

A

Cassettes

164
Q

___________ helps maintain sterility of instruments during storage and until they are used on a subsequent client

A

Proper handling of processed instruments

165
Q

Proper handling of processed instruments includes:

A
  1. Drying & cooling
  2. Storage
  3. Distribution
  4. Opening of instrument packages
166
Q

Instruments should be opened:

A

At chairside

167
Q

Exposing wet packs after steam processing to external environment =

A

Wicking & contamination
Tearing

168
Q

________ give an immediate indication of instrument safety

A) chemical
B) biological

A

A) chemical

169
Q

_________ show main guarantee of instrument safety

A) chemical
B) biological

A

B) biological

170
Q

2 types of waste

A
  1. Regulated waste
  2. Non-regulated waste
171
Q

These are examples of what waste

  1. Liquid or semi liquid
  2. Contaminated items that would release blood & OPIM
  3. Items caked with dried blood or OPIM
  4. Contaminated sharps
  5. Pathological or microbial waste containing blood or OPIM
A

Regulated waste

172
Q

materials generated during patient diagnosis, treatment, or
immunization in medical, dental, or other health care facilities

a) Infectious waste
b) Medical waste

A

Medical waste

173
Q

medical waste that has shown a capability of transmitting an infectious disease

a) Infectious waste
b) Medical waste

A

Infectious waste

174
Q

infectious medical waste that requires special handling, neutralization and
disposal

A

Regulated medical waste

175
Q

Waste that has a poisonous effect

A

Toxic waste

176
Q

Teeth and other tissues are what kind of waste?

A

Pathogenic waste

177
Q

Drop syringes _________ into containers

A

Horizontally

178
Q

________ waste should be recycled as much as possible and put in a separate covered plastic labeled container

A

Amalgam

179
Q

Lead is considered a ______ waste

A

hazardous waste

180
Q

Waste containers or bags should be:

A

Color coded, labeled clearly and leak-proof

181
Q

Sharps containers should be:

A

Closable, leak-proof and preferably with a lid.
puncture resistant and labeled with
biohazard symbol.

182
Q

No more than _____colony-forming units/ ml (CFU/ml)

A

500

183
Q

T/F: Water that enters the dental unit is not sterile and does have a low number of waterborne microbes present

A

True

184
Q

_____ exist in soil and natural waters, can even be found in distilled water

a) Pseudomonas
b) Legionella
c) Nontuberculous Mycobacterium

A

a) Pseudomonas

185
Q

naturally occur in water; somewhat resistant to chlorine; gram negative

a) Pseudomonas
b) Legionella
c) Nontuberculous Mycobacterium

A

b) Legionella

186
Q

somewhat resistant to chemical killing

a) Pseudomonas
b) Legionella
c) Nontuberculous Mycobacterium

A

c) Nontuberculous Mycobacterium

187
Q

All waterlines must be purged at the beginning of each workday by flushing them thoroughly with water for a minimum of _____ minutes

A

2 minutes

188
Q

Handpieces, air/water syringe tips and ultrasonic tips must be removed prior to _______

A

Purging waterlines

189
Q

______ is defined as a mass of
microorganisms attached to a
surface exposed to moisture

A

Biofilm

190
Q

___________ level disinfectants - Tuberculocidal; to clean clinical surfaces that were not covered by barriers.

A

Intermediate level disinfectants

191
Q

__________ level disinfectants (housekeeping) clean walls, sinks & floors

A

Low level disinfectants

192
Q

________ is used for semi-critical instruments that are heat sensitive. As per manufacturers instructions.

A

High level disinfectants

193
Q

Hands become dry, reddened, itchy, or even cracked

  1. Irritant contact dermatitis
  2. Allergic contact dermatitis
  3. Latex allergy
A
  1. Irritant contact dermatitis
194
Q

Non-immunological irritation of skin from non latex chemicals in
gloves

  1. Irritant contact dermatitis
  2. Allergic contact dermatitis
  3. Latex allergy
A
  1. Irritant contact dermatitis
195
Q

What initiates this dermatitis

A
  1. Hand washing with irritating cleaners or antiseptics
  2. Failure to rinse or dry completely
  3. Excessive perspiration on the hands
  4. Irritations from cornstarch powder
196
Q

Characterized by: redness, itching & vesicles within 24-48 hours followed by dry skin, fissures & sores

  1. Irritant contact dermatitis
  2. Allergic contact dermatitis
  3. Latex allergy
A
  1. Allergic contact dermatitis
197
Q

Type IV ‘delayed hypersensitivity’, within 24-48 hours

  1. Irritant contact dermatitis
  2. Allergic contact dermatitis
  3. Latex allergy
A
  1. Allergic contact dermatitis
198
Q

Symptoms usually occur within 20 minutes after contact

  1. Irritant contact dermatitis
  2. Allergic contact dermatitis
  3. Latex allergy
A
  1. Latex allergy
199
Q

Characterized by:
* hives, redness, burning & itching
* Respiratory symptoms, asthma -> anaphylactic

A
  1. Latex allergy
200
Q

Plasmids

A

Bacteria with extrachromosomal DNA

201
Q

Inward folding of the cytoplasmic membrane.

A

Mesosomes

202
Q

______ break down macromolecules

A

Mesmosomes

203
Q

Membranous structure of bacterial cells that contain extracellular enzymes used in nutrition

A

Mesmosomes

204
Q

Enzyme present in saliva, tears, nasal secretions, and other body secretions and present in WBC that destroy bacteria

A

Lysozyme

205
Q

Long threadlike appendages

A

Flagella

206
Q

Harlike protein appendages projecting from the cytoplasmic membrane into the external environment

A

Frimbriae

207
Q

Bacteria that produce acids during growth are called

A

Acidogenic

208
Q

Bacteria that survive and grow in an acid environment are called

A

Aciduric

209
Q

Enzymes release into the environment that break down proteins into amino acids

A

Protease

210
Q

The major sources of disease agents in the dental office are:

A

The mouths of patients

211
Q

Types of gloves

A

Examination
Utility
Heat-resistant

212
Q

Planktonic

A

Free floating microorganisms that are present in dental water lines

213
Q

There are five elements included in routine practices

A
  1. Point-of-care risk assessment (PCRA)
  2. Hand hygiene
  3. Environmental controls
  4. Administrative controls
  5. Use of personal protective equipment

SEM 1 (11 decks)

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