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PLE > Microbiology: Generalities, Infection biology, Diagnostic microbiology, Parasitology > Flashcards

Microbiology: Generalities, Infection biology, Diagnostic microbiology, Parasitology Flashcards

1
Q

Gram Staining Procedure

P = V
M = I
D = A
C = S
A 
Primary Stain = crystal Violet
Mordant = Iodine
Decolorizing Agent = Acetone
Counterstain = Safranin
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2
Q

Gram Staining Procedure

A 
Primary Stain = crystal Violet
Mordant = Iodine
Decolorizing Agent = Acetone
Counterstain = Safranin
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3
Q

Bacteria NOT seen in Gram stain? Alternative approach?

These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color

A

These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color

Treponema - Spirochetes: Darkfield microscopy
Rickettsia - Giemsa/Tissue stains
Mycobacteria - Acid-Fast Stain
Mycoplasma - Serology
Legionella - Silver stain
Chlamydia - Giemsa stain (inclusion bodies)

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4
Q

Bacteria NOT seen in Gram stain? Alternative approach?

A

These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color

Treponema - Spirochetes: Darkfield microscopy
Rickettsia - Giemsa/Tissue stains
Mycobacteria - Acid-Fast Stain
Mycoplasma - Serology
Legionella - Silver stain
Chlamydia - Giemsa stain (inclusion bodies)

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5
Q

Obligate Aerobes

Nosy and Nagging Pests Must Breathe Lots of oxygen

A 
Nocardia
Neisseria
Pseudomonas
Mycobacteria
Bordetella/ Brucella/ Bacillus cereus
Legionella
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6
Q

Obligate Aerobes

A 
Nocardia
Neisseria
Pseudomonas
Mycobacteria
Bordetella/ Brucella/ Bacillus cereus
Legionella
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7
Q

Obligate Anaerobes

ABC of Anaerobes

A

Actinomyces
Bacteroides
Clostridium

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8
Q

Obligate Anaerobes

A

Actinomyces
Bacteroides
Clostridium

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9
Q

Prophage Coded Bacteria

(Lysogenized strains) of ABCDE

A

(Lysogenized strains) of ABCDE: Non-essential, for virulence

shigA-like toxin: EHEC
Botulinum
Cholera
Diphtheria
Erythrogenic strain (of S. pyogenes/ GABHS/ scarlet fever)
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10
Q

Prophage Coded Bacteria

A

(Lysogenized strains) of ABCDE: Non-essential, for virulence

shigA-like toxin: EHEC
Botulinum
Cholera
Diphtheria
Erythrogenic strain (of S. pyogenes/ GABHS/ scarlet fever)
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11
Q

Normal Flora

Skin
Nose
Mouth
Dental plaque
Colon 
Vagina
A

Normal Flora

Skin: Staphylococcus epidermidis
Nose: Staphylococcus aureus
Mouth: Viridans streptococci
Dental plaque: Streptococcus mutans
Colon: Bacteroides, Escherichia coli 
Vagina: Lactobacillus vaginalis, Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae
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12
Q

Salma Hayek and her curli hair

A

Salmonella has surface proteins called ‘curli’ which mediate binding to endothelium and to extracellular proteins such as fibronectin

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13
Q

Enzyme in bacterial invasion, a.k.a. “spreading factor”

A

Hyaluronidase

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14
Q

What does IgA protease do?

A

Allows adherence to mucous membranes

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15
Q

Bacteria with IgA protease

SHine My Gong

A

Bacteria with IgA protease: SHiNe My Gong

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neiserria meningitidis
Neirserria gonorrhea

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16
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes anti-phagocytic factor

A

M protein

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17
Q

Staphylococcus aureus protein A function

A

Prevents complement activation

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18
Q

Which bacteria have “ADP-ribosylation” as the MOA of their exotoxins?

A

Diphtheria
Cholera
E.coli (heat-labile)
B. pertus

ADP-ribosylation is the addition of one or more ADP-ribose moieties to a protein. It is a reversible post-translational modification that is involved in many cellular processes, including cell signaling, DNA repair, gene regulation and apoptosis

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19
Q

Which bacteria have “superantigen” as the MOA of their exotoxins?

A

TSST (S. aureus)
Staphylococcal enterotoxin
Erythrogenic toxin (S. pyogenes)

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20
Q

Which bacteria have “protease” as the MOA of their exotoxins?

A

Tetanus (tetanospasmin, C. tetani)
C. botulinum
Lethal factor of B. anthracis toxin
Scalded skin toxin (S. aureus)

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21
Q

Which bacteria have “lecithinase” as the MOA of their exotoxins?

A

Clostridium perfringens alpha toxin

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22
Q

MOA of shiga toxin

A

Kills cells by cleaving 60S ribosomal subunit

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23
Q

Which bacteria have endotoxin?

A

eNdotoxin is an integral part of gram Negative cell walls

LPS toxic component: lipid A (overproduction of cytokines, complement cascade, coagulation cascade)

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24
Q

All bacteria have cell walls composed of peptidoglycan except

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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25
Q

All gram-positive have NO endotoxin except

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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26
Q

All bacterial capsules are composed of polysaccharide except

A

Bacillus anthracis

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27
Q

All exotoxins are heat-labile except

A

Staphylococcal enterotoxin

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28
Q

Bacteria : Agar

Clostridium perfringens

A

Egg yolk (McClung-Toabe)

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29
Q

Bacteria : Agar

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Tellurite (Loeffler’s medium, will produce black colonies)

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30
Q

Bacteria : Agar

Group D Streptococci

A

Bile esculin

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31
Q

Bacteria : Agar

Staphylococci

A

Mannitol salts

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32
Q

Bacteria : Agar

N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhea from sterile sites

A

Chocolate

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33
Q

Bacteria : Agar

N. gonorrhea from non-sterile sites

A

Modified Thayer-Martin

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34
Q

Antibiotic content of Modified Thayer-Martin agar

A

Vancomycin
Colistin
Nystatin
Trimethoprim

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35
Q

Bacteria : Agar

Haemophilus influenzae

A

Chocolate + Factors V and X

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36
Q

Agar : Bacteria

Lowenstein-Jensen

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (yellowish brown, “buff, rough, tough”, 4 weeks!)

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37
Q

Agar : Bacteria

Thiosulfate citrate bile salts (TCBS)

A

Vibrio
cholera - yellow
parahemolyticus - bluish green

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38
Q

Agar : Bacteria

Bordet-Gengou or Regan-Lowe charcoal medium

A

Bordetella pertussis

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39
Q

Agar : Bacteria

Charcoal-yeast extract

A

Legionella pneumophila

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40
Q

Agar : Bacteria

Skirrows

A

Campylobacter

Helicobacter

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41
Q

Agar : Bacteria

Barbour-Stoenner-Kelly (BSK)

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

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42
Q

Agar : Bacteria

Eaton

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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43
Q

Agar : Bacteria

Cetrimide

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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44
Q

Agar : Bacteria

Xylose-Lysine-Deoxycholate (XLD)

A

Salmonella

Shigella

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45
Q

Agar : Bacteria

Ellinghausen-McCullough-Johnson-Harris (EMJH)/ Fletcher’s

A

Leptospira interrogans

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46
Q

Difficult to culture, hence other tests are used for diagnosis

A

Chlamydia (intracellular)
Gonorrhea (NAAT is used)
M. tuberculosis (AFB, PCR)

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47
Q

Antigen detection tests

A

IF (B. pertussis, L. pneumophila, Rabies)
EIA like ELISA
Other agglutination tests

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48
Q

Antibody detection tests

A

Western blot
Lepto MAT
COPT

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49
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of VIRAL diseases

A

PCR

usually, serology first, then nucleic acid amplification

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50
Q

Serologic Tests for Syphilis

Nontreponemal (screening only)

A

VDRL
RPR
Antigen (cardiolipin, cholesterol, purified lecithin)
USR, TRUST

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51
Q

Serologic Tests for Syphilis

Treponemal Antibody Tests (for confirmation)

A

TPEIA (if nontreponemal test is positive)

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52
Q

EIA/ELISA vs. RIA

A

enzyme-labelled antibodies, measured by spectrophotometer vs. radio-labelled antibodies, measured by gamma counter

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53
Q

Latex agglutination tests are used for

A

Streptococcal A pharyngitis
Bacterial meningitis
Cryptococcus (CALAS / Cryptococcal Antigen Latex Agglutination System)

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54
Q

Diagnosis for HIV:
Screening
Confirmatory
Gold standard

A

ELISA
Western Blot
PCR

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55
Q

Drugs: Folate synthesis inhibitors

A

Sulfonamides

Tripmethoprim

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56
Q

Drugs: RNA polymerase inhibitor

A

Rifampicin

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57
Q

Drugs: Cell membrane inhibitors

A

Amphotericin
Ketoconazole
Polymyxin

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58
Q

Drugs: DNA gyrase inhbitors

A

Fluoroquinolones

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59
Q

Drugs: Cell wall synthesis inhibitors

A

Beta-lactam antibiotics (Carbapenems, Cephalosporins, Monobactams, Penicillins)
Others: Bacitracin, Fosfomycin, Vancomycin

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60
Q

Drugs: Protein synthesis inhibitors

A 
Aminoglycosides
Chloramphenicol
Clindamycin
Macrolides
Mupirocin
Streptogramins
Tetracyclines
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61
Q

BBB Penetrability: Excellent with or without inflammation (8 drugs/drug classes)

A 
Sulfonamides
Chloramphenicol
Trimethoprim
Metronidazole
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Fluconazole
Flucytosine
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62
Q

BBB Penetrability: Good only with inflammation

A 
Penicillins
Cephalosporins: Cefuroxime (2nd gen), 3rd gen parenteral (except Cefoperazone), 4th gen
Imipinem + Cilastatin
Meropenem
Aztreonam
Ciprofloxacin
Vancomycin
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63
Q

BBB Penetrability: Minimal or not good even if with inflammation (4 drug classes)

A

Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
Lincosamides
Macrolides

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64
Q

BBB Penetrability: No passage even if with inflammation (3 drug classes)

A

Polymyxins
1st and 2nd gen Cephalosporins
Amphotericin B

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65
Q

Cephalosporins are not active against 3 organisms

A

MRSA
L. monocytogenes
Group B Strep (enterococci)

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66
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Beta lactams

A

Hydrolysis

Mutant PBP

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67
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Tetracycline

A

Active efflux from cell (gram pos and neg)

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68
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Aminoglycosides

A

Inactivation by enzymes

Impermeability (strict anaerobes and streptococci)

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69
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Sulfonamides

A

Overproduction of target (more PABA)

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70
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Fluoroquinolones

A

Mutant DNA gyrase

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71
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Chloramphenicol

A

Reduced uptake into cell

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72
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Vancomycin

A

Reprogramming of D-ala D-ala (becomes Lac-Lac)

S. aureus (GISA: glycopeptide intermediate S. aureus)

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73
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Quinupristin/Dalfopristin

A

Ribosomal methylation

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74
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Macrolides/Erythromycin

A

RNA methylation

Drug efflux

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75
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Fluconazole

A

Active efflux (Candida spp.)

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76
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Impenetrability (multiple antibiotic classes)

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77
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Modification of antimicrobial agent

A

PBP alteration in MRSA
Penicillin resistance of S. pneumo and N. meningitidis
Altered peptidoglycan in enterococci
RNA polymerase mutation (Rif resistance in MTB)
DNA gyrase mutation in enterobactericeae (Cipro resistance)
Ribosomal gene mutations (resistance to protein synthesis inhibitors)
Dihydrofolate reductase mutations (resistance to trimethoprim)

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78
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Absence of antimicrobial target

A

Echinocandin (-fungin) resistance in Cryptococcus spp.

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79
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Overexpression of antimicrobial target

A

Overproduction of dihydrofolate reductase in trimethoprim resistance

80
Q

Resistance mechanisms: Enzymatic degradation of antimicrobial agent

A

Beta lactamase production(S. aureus penicillinase and ESBL and AmpC in Enterobacteriaceae)
Chloramphenicol acetyltransferase in Staphylococci

81
Q

Difference between flukes (Trematoda) and tapeworms (Cestoda)

A

Some flukes have evolved to have sexes (Schistosoma), while tapeworms are still hermaphrodites, are segmented and have detachable proglottids

82
Q

Eukaryotic organism that lacks membrane-bound organelles

A

Entamoeba hystolytica

83
Q

Flask-shaped colon ulcers and anchovy sauce-like aspirate

A

Amebic colitis and amebic liver abscess of E. hystolytica

84
Q

Life cycle: Simple vs Complicated

A

Simple = parasite has only ONE host, otherwise, complicated

85
Q

3 protozoan infections treated with metronidazole

A

E. hystolytica, G. lamblia, T. vaginalis

86
Q

Tissue Amebicides

A

Chloroquine
Emetines
Metronidazole
Tinidazole

87
Q

Luminal Amebicides

A

Diloxanide furoate
Iodoquinol
Paromomycin

88
Q

Asymptomatic, intestinal infection DOC and alternatives

A

Diloxanide furoate

Alternatives: Iodoquinol, Paromomycin

89
Q

DOC regimen for mild to moderate, severe, hepatic abscess and other extraintestinal disease

A

Metronidazole plus luminal agent

90
Q

Old man/grandfather face

A

Giardia lamblia trophozoites

91
Q

Outdoors or backpacker’s disease

A

Infection with Giardia lamblia

92
Q

SSx of acute giardiasis

A

abdominal pain
diarrhea
excessive flatus that smells of rotten eggs

93
Q

SSc of chronic giardiasis

A

State of malnutrition:
constipation
weight loss
steatorrhea

94
Q

Opportunistic intestinal protozoa which causes autoinfection immunocompromised patients (CD4 count < 200)

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

95
Q

Treatment for cryptosporidiasis in immuno-competent and compromised

A

Competent: Nitazoxanide
Compromised: HAART(highly active antiretroviral therapy)

96
Q

Ping-pong tranmission, kite-like or pear-shaped and exists only as a trophozoite

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

97
Q

STI that causes strawberry or ectocervix

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

98
Q

STIs that cause endocervical disease

A

Gonorrhea

Chlamydia

99
Q

Most important parasitic disease in man

A

Malaria

100
Q

Liver schizonticide

A

Primaquine (use when there is relapse after 6 months, hypnozoites released from the liver)

101
Q

Plasmodium species that produce hypnozoites

A

Ovale and vivax

102
Q

Who are immune to malaria?

A

People with RBC defects such as those with G6PD and sickle cell anemia

103
Q

What is ‘premonition’?

A

Partial immunity seen in individuals who completely recover from falciparum malaria

104
Q

How is malaria transmitted?

A

Bite of female Anopheles flavirostris minimus

105
Q

Most drug resistant Plasmodium species which also has the highest parasitemia

A

P. falciparum

106
Q

Recurrence of symptoms after 2-4 weeks abatement in P. malariae and falciparum

A

Recrudescence

107
Q

Punctate granulations present in RBCs invaded by P. ovale and vivax

A

Schuffner dots

SOVrang daming dots!

108
Q

Coarse granulations present in RBCs invaded by P. falciparum

A

Maurer dots

Maurer dots = coMMa-shaped = P. falciparuM

109
Q

Fine dots in RBCs invaded by P. malariae

A

Ziemann dots

110
Q

Malarial or Durck granulomas

A

cerebral malaria, P. falciparum

111
Q

Blackwater fever

A

ARF in malaria

112
Q

Paroxysmal fever

A

Merozoite release in malaria

113
Q

Algid malaria

A

Septic shock in malaria

114
Q

Anti-malarial drug that can cause pseudotumor cerebrii (SSx of increased ICP)

A

Doxycycline

115
Q

DOC in areas with chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum

A

Mefloquine

116
Q

DOC in areas with multi-drug resistant P. falciparum

A

Doxycycline

117
Q

DOC for terminal prophylaxis of P. vivax and P. ovale infections, alternative for primary prevention

A

Primaquine

118
Q

Heterophil antibody diagnosis results for mononucleosis
Toxoplasma gondii (immunocompetent patient)
CMV
EBV

A

Toxoplasma gondii: Negative
CMV: Negative
EBV: Positive

119
Q

Encephalitis and ring enhancing lesions in Toxoplasmosis seen in which subset of patients?

A

Immunocompromised

120
Q

DOC for toxoplasmosis

A

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine

121
Q

Transmission of trypanosoma cruzi

A

Reduviid bug bite (Triatoma)

122
Q

DOC for American trypanosomiasis

A

Nifurtimox

123
Q

The most frequent and severely infected tissue in American trypanosomiasis

A

Cardiac muscle (cardiomegaly)

124
Q

Transmission of trypanosoma brucei

A

Tsetse fly bite (Glossina)

125
Q

Main reservoirs for African trypanosome species

A

Humans are the main reservoir for Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West), but this species can also be found in animals, Rhodesian also the more rapid and fatal type

Wild game animals are the main reservoir of T. b. rhodesiense (East)

WaGER! (West = Gambian, East = Rhodesian)

126
Q

DOC for early stages
West African trypanosimiasis
East African trypanosimiasis

A

West African trypanosimiasis: Pentamidine
East African trypanosimiasis: Suramin

It SURe is nice to got to SLEEP. MELAtonin helps with SLEEP. (Suramin and Melarsoprol are used for African sleeping sickness.)

127
Q

DOC for CNS stages
West African trypanosimiasis
East African trypanosimiasis

A

West African trypanosimiasis: Eflornithine
East African trypanosimiasis: Melarsoprol

It SURe is nice to got to SLEEP. MELAtonin helps with SLEEP. (Suramin and Melarsoprol are used for African sleeping sickness.)

128
Q

Two miscellaneous protozoa in unkempt swimming pools

A

Acanthamoeba castellanii (granulomatous amebic encephalitis and amebic keratitis)

Naegleria fowleri (primary amebic meningoencephalitis)

129
Q

Ciliated protozoan, associated with pigs, round-based and wide-necked intestinal ulcers

A

Balantidium coli

130
Q

Trophozoites in RBC form a Maltese cross, tick belt of East Coast, deer tick also carries Lyme disease

A

Babesia microti (Babesiosis)

131
Q

Vector of Leishmaniasis

A

Sandfly (Phlebotomus)

132
Q

Disease spectrum of Leishmaniasis per species:
Cutaneous
Visceral/Kala-azar
Mucocutaneous

A

Cutaneous: L. tropica
Visceral/Kala-azar: L. donovani
Mucocutaneous: L. braziliensis

133
Q

Cause diarrhea in immunocompromised patients

A 
Cryptococcus
Cyclospora cayetanensis (coccidial sporozoa)
Isospora belli (coccidial sporozoa)
134
Q

Nematodes found in tissue and their DOC

A

Wuchereria bancrofti - filariasis - DEC
Brugia malayi - filariasis - DEC
Trichinella - trichinosis - thiabendazole

135
Q

Nematodes treated with albendazole as DOC

A

Ascaris
Ancylostoma
Necator
Capillaria

136
Q

Drug used in the treatment of intestinal nematodes that is both larvicidal and ovicidal

A

Albendazole

137
Q

Where does ascaris embryonation occur?

A

Soil, it is a soil-transmitted helminth

138
Q

Nematodes with a transpulmonary phase/lung migration

A

A. lumbricoides
N. americanus
A. duodenale
S. stercoralis

139
Q

What is Loeffler syndrome?

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis in ascariasis

140
Q

Why is Mebendazole prescribed over Albendazole for ascariasis?

A

Has a better safety profile, less side effects

However, albendazole has better systemic absorption and tissue penetrance (choose if already with pulmonary involvement)

141
Q

How do you differentiate the two hookworms?

A

Necator = NeCUTor = cutting plates
Ancylostoma = teeth
Both are blood-sucking nematodes, cause microcytic anemia (0.25 ml of blood/worm/day)

142
Q

Cutaneous manifestation of acute ascariasis

A

ground itch at site of entry

creeping eruptions/serpiginous tracks/cutaneous larva migrans

143
Q

On Kato-Katz smear, barrel-shaped eggs with round bipolar plug
Can cause rectal prolapse

A

Trichuris trichuria (whipworm)

144
Q

DOC for trichuriasis

A

Mebendazole

145
Q

Unholy trinity of helminth infections

A

Ascariasis
Hookworm
Trichuris

146
Q

Most common STH in developed countries

A

Enterobius vermicularis/ pinworm/ seatworm

147
Q

D-shaped eggs (perianal skin –> pruritus –> autoinfection?) are obtained on Graham scotch tape technique

A

Enterobius vermicularis/ pinworm/ seatworm

148
Q

DOC for enterobius infection

A

Pyrantel pamoate

149
Q

Thread worm diagnostic technique

A

Strongyloides stercoralis, Harada-Mori culture

150
Q

DOC for thread worm

A

Ivermectin

151
Q

SSx: larva currens, duodenitis, paradoxical asthma, hyperinfection syndrome (immunocompromised), autoinfection by direct migration to lungs from GIT

A

Thread worm or strongyloides

152
Q

Only two helminthic infections that have been proven to exhibit autoinfection in humans

A

Strongyloides

Capillaria

153
Q

“Pudoc worm”, only nematode whose life cycle involves a migratory bird, peanut-shaped eggs with flattened bipolar plugs, from undercooked fish

A

Capillaria philippinensis

154
Q

Severe intestinal malabsorption leading to auto and hyperinfection

A

Capillaria philippinensis

155
Q

Nematode infection SSx: Borborygmus, protein-losing enteropathy, hypogammaglobulinemia

A

Capillaria philippinensis

156
Q

Diseases transmitted by Culex mosquito

A

Japanese encephalitis, Wuchereria filariasis

157
Q

Diseases transmitted by Aedes mosquito

A

Dengue, Chikungunya, Wuchereria filariasis

158
Q

Diseases transmitted by Mansonia mosquito

A

Brugia filariasis

159
Q

Most debilitating nematode infection

A

Filariasis (Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi)

160
Q

Where do the farmers in abaca plantations live? Why is this important?

A

Common patients with filariasis
Eastern Luzon and Visayas

Bancroftian: Sorsogon, Samar, Leyte, Palawan, Camarines, Albay, Mindoro, Marinduque, Romblon, all of Mindanao

Malayan: Eastern Samar, Agusan del Sur, Palawan, Sulu

(Both: Palawan)

161
Q 
Wuchereria vs Brugia
Appearance
Terminal nuclei
Prevalence
Preference
Clinical picture
Severity of disease
A

Wuchereria vs Brugia
Appearance: smoothly curved vs kinky
Terminal nuclei: absent vs present
Prevalence: widespread vs SEA
Preference: scrotal lymphatics vs limb lymphatics
Clinical picture: hydrocele vs elephantiasis
(Wuchereria = water = hydrocele; Brugia = binti)
Severity of disease: more severe vs less severe

162
Q

How to diagnose filariasis?

A

thick blood smear: microfilariae
nocturnal periodicity: collect between 8PM to 4AM
DEC provocation test

163
Q

Chronic filariasis SSx

A

hydrocele, elephantiasis, chyluria

164
Q

Acute filariasis SSx

A

filarial fever, acute adenolymphangitis, tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (Meyers-Kouvenaar bodies/small epithelioid granulomas), expatriate syndrome

165
Q

Sylvatic cycle

A

The fraction of the pathogen population’s lifespan spent cycling between wild animals and vectors. Humans are usually an incidental or dead-end host, infected by a vector.
Ex. Trichinella spiralis (intermediate host: pigs, also rodents)

166
Q

Where is the encysted larvae of trichinella found?

A

Muscle, enclosed in nurse cell

167
Q

Heavy infestation of diaphragm in trichinella infection

A

respiratory myositis

168
Q

DOC for Trichinella spiralis

A

Thiobendazole

169
Q

Transmitted by female blackfly (Simulium), causes river blindness

A

Onchocerca volvulus

170
Q

Mazzotti reaction (nonspecific SSx of infection, severe, upon treatment) is due to?

A

Inflammatory reaction to lysis of worms (ex. Onchocerca volvulus)

171
Q

Mazzotti reaction in spirochetes

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction (Borrellia burgdorferi, Treponema pallidum, Leptospira spp.)

172
Q

Praziquantel is the DOC for?

A

Trematode infections
S. japonicum
P. westermani
C. sinensis

173
Q

Oriental blood fluke resides where in the human body?

A

Mesenteric and portal veins

174
Q

Intermediate host of Schistosoma

A

Oncomelania hupensis quadrasi

175
Q

Infective stage of Schistosoma

A

Cercariae

176
Q

Which stage of the Schistosoma life cycle produces disease in humans?

A

Eggs! Granuloma formation, will obstruct presinusoidal circulation leading to hepatomegaly and portal hypertension

177
Q

Local epidemiology of Schistosomiasis

A

Sorsogon, Samar, Leyte, Oriental Mindoro, Bohol, all of Mindanao EXCEPT Misamis Oriental

178
Q

SSx of Schistosomiasis: Acute and Chronic

A

Acute: Katayama fever, swimmer’s itch
Chronic: CLD, portal hypertension, colonic, pulmonary and cerebral problems (rule out schisto in patients with seizures in endemic areas)

179
Q

Lung fluke

A

Paragonimus westermani

180
Q

Intermediate hosts of lung fluke

A 
snail: Antemelania asperata
mountain crab (talangka): Sundathelphusa philippina
181
Q

Trematode with ovoid eggs, thinner opercular and thicker abopercular end

A

Paragonimus westermani

182
Q

Paragonimiasis is often mistaken for this disease

A

Pulmonary tuberculosis or MDRTB

Chronic cough with bloody sputum

183
Q

Asian liver fluke (Mekong: Thailand, Cambodia, Vietnam, Myanmar)

A

Clonorchis sinensis

Opistorchis viverrini

184
Q

Intermediate hosts of Asian river fluke

A

Snail (Parafossarulus)

Fish (Cyprinidae)

185
Q

Asian river fluke causes what biliary tract disease?

A

hyperplasia and fibrosis, eventually hilar cholangiocarcinoma (Klatskin tumor)

186
Q

Tapeworm DOC except for E. granulosus

A

Praziquantel

187
Q

Intermediate host of common cestodes

A

Taenia solium = pig
Taenia saginata = beef
Diphyllobothrium latum = fish
Echinococcus granulosus = sheep

188
Q

Diagnostic stage of taenia spp.

A

Gravid proglottids

189
Q

What part of taenia spp. and D. latum attach to intestines?

A

Scolex

190
Q

Neurocysticercosis and worms in vitreous humor of eye are usually from?

A

Taenia solium

191
Q

Operculated eggs, sucking grooves, intermediate hosts are fish and copepods

A

D. latum

192
Q

Diphyllobothrium latum causes what kind of anemia?

A

Megaloblastic anemia, Vitamin B12 deficiency

193
Q

Smallest tapeworm, definitive host is dog (“dog tapeworm”)

A

Echinococcus granulosus

194
Q

Echinococcus granulosus diagnostic stage

A

hydatid cysts

195
Q

Be careful when removing cysts of this organism during surgery, will cause life-threatening anaphylaxis if ruptured!

A

Echinococcus granulosus hydatid cysts in brain

196
Q

Treatment for Echinococcus granulosus infection

A

Surgery, Albendazole, PAIR procedure

197
Q

Man is just an incidental host or this tapeworm

A

Echinococcus granulosus

PLE (14 decks)

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