Microbiology & Common Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What % of people are permanently colonised with S. aureus?

A

60%

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2
Q

Fibrinogen binding ClfA and ClfB are examples of what?

A

Adhesins

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3
Q

Coagulase testing helps broadly differentiate what from what?

A

S. aureus (positive) from S. epidermidis (negative)

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4
Q

Scalded skin syndrome is produced by toxins targetted against what?

A

Desmoglein-1, a protein involved in crossbridging of epidermis

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5
Q

PVL is present in what % of clinical S. aureus isolates?

A

1-2%

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6
Q

PVL is associated with what (3)

A

-Severe skin infection -Sepsis/necrotising fasciitis -Necrotising pneumonia

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7
Q

PVL tends to be more common in hospital/community acquired MRSA?

A

Community

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8
Q

S. pyogenes has what Gram stain?

A

Gram positive cocci

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9
Q

How can S. pyogenes be differentiated from viridians group Strep (e.g. mutans)?

A

Haemolysis (Group A streps classically have beta haemolysis)

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10
Q

Impetigo/cellulitis is a skin diseased caused by which group of Strep?

A

GAS

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11
Q

Streptolysin S is associated with which condition?

A

Cellulitis

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12
Q

What are common alpha-haemolytic Streps?

A

Pneumoniae, viridians

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13
Q

Group A strep is a subclass of what type of strep?

A

Beta-haemolytic (clear)

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14
Q

S. aureus may be further classified with what type of test?

A

Latex agglutination

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15
Q

S. aureus has what air requirements?

A

Aerobic and facultative anaerobe (grows best in air)

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16
Q

First-line antibiotic of choice in S. aureus infection?

A

Flucloxacillin

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17
Q

Treatment options for MRSA

A

-Doxycycline -Co-trimoxazole -Clindamycin or vancomycin Check Tayside formularly too. NOT flucloxacillin

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18
Q

Are coagulase negative staphs generally pathogens?

A

No, usually commensals

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19
Q

What are the most “concerning” group of Streps?

A

Beta haemolytic strep (especially GAS)

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20
Q

What’s the key clinical sign for NF?

A

Mismatch in what clinician sees and patient reports (e.g. mild erythema with extreme pain)

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21
Q

Fournier’s Gangrene is a specifically severe type of what?

A

NF affecting the genitals

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22
Q

Non-haemolytic streptococci include what species, and why are these clinically important?

A

Enterococcus, a cause of UTI

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23
Q

Define the following terms: -Tinea capitis -Tinea barbae -Tinea corporis -Tinea manuum -Tinea unguum -Tinea cruris -Tinea pedis

A

Capitis = head Barbae = beard Corporis = body Manuum = Hand Unguum = Nail Cruris = Genitals Pedis = Feet

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24
Q

What’s the commonest cause of contracting a fungal infection? What’s the second most common?

A

1st is contact with other infected humans. 2nd is contact with infected animals.

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25
Most common dermatophyte?
Trichophyton rubrum
26
Taking skin/scalp/nail clippings is the primary means of diagnosing ringworm, true/false?
False - culture can take up to 2 weeks. Diagnosis on clinical appearance and Woods light appearance.
27
Terbafine for scalp infection requires checking what?
Liver function
28
Candida most commonly affects which areas of skin and is termed what when these areas are infected?
Skin folds, candida intertrigo
29
Scabies parasite is a type of what? What is the technical name?
A type of arachnid mite. Called Sarcopetes scabei.
30
Norwegian Scabies is when the infection has what? What's the clinical importance?
Crusted over. HIGHLY infectious.
31
Treatment of scabies is with what?
Malathion lotion overnight (or benzyl benzoate, but NOT in children) and washed off next day
32
Lice is technically called what?
Pediculosis
33
Lice infestation is treated how?
Malathion lotion
34
Chickenpox & Shingles are both caused by what?
Varicella Zoster Virus
35
The characteristic appearance for a chickenpox/shingles rash is what?
Punched out papulovesicular
36
VZV establishes latency in which type of nerve? Where?
Sensory roots at dorsal root ganglion
37
VZV can reactivate multiple times. True/false?
False (only once)
38
Severe complications of chickenpox can include (5)
-Secondary bacterial infection -Pneumonitis -Haemorrhagic rash -Scarring -Encephalitis
39
What's the important contrast between clinical picture of shingles versus chickenpox?
Shingles is dermatomal
40
Shingles always presents in adults. True/false?
False (uncommon in \<10 but can occur)
41
Pain persisting for 4 weeks post shingles rash is termed what?
Post-herpetic nerualgia
42
Post-herpetic nerualgia is a particular concern in which groups of patients (2)?
-Elderly -Trigeminal nerve infected patients
43
Scarring is common in zoster. True/false?
False
44
Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome is what?
VZV reactivation from 7th nerve ganglion (facial). Presents with auditory canal and facial palsy. Can also cause deafness and permanent vertigo
45
The chickenpox vaccine is routine for children in the UK. True/false?
False
46
The chickenpox vaccine is routine for which group of patients?
70 year olds.
47
Primary gingiovostomatitis is a feature of which viral infection?
HSV
48
"A blistering rash at the vermillion border" could be indicative of which viral infection?
HSV
49
Which type of HSV is the routine cause of oral lesions?
Type 1
50
Which antiviral is useful in VZV and HSV?
Acyclovir
51
How does acyclovir work?
It is an analogue of guanosine which is incorporated and inhibits replication
52
Does acyclovir eliminate all virus particles?
No (latent remains)
53
Fleshy, firm, umbilicated, pearlescent nodules is indicative of which infection?
Molluscum contagiosum
54
Molluscum contagiosum is routinely treated with antivirals. True/false?
False - self-limiting, liquid nitrogen application used if needed
55
HPV causes which skin lesion?
Warts
56
Most common HPV serovars which cause warts/verrucas?
Types 1 to 4.
57
Most common HPV serovars which cause genital warts?
Types 6 to 11
58
Most common HPV serovars which cause cervical cancer?
Types 16 and 18
59
Gardasil protects against which HPV serovars?
6, 11, 16 and 18
60
Hand, Foot and Mouth disease is caused by which family of virus? What's a typical example of this family?
Enteroviruses. Typical example would be Coxsackie.
61
Slapped Cheek / erythema infectosium is caused by which virus?
Parovirus B19
62
Erythema infectosium / slapped cheek is typically diagnosed by antibody testing over skin swabbing. True/false?
True - test is specific parovirus B19 IgM
63
Orf is a virus/bacteria which is present in \_\_\_\_\_.
Virus. Present in sheep
64
Gummatous or CNS/CVD syphilis is indicative of which stage of infection?
Tertiary (can be fatal)
65
Syphilis is caused by which bacteria?
Treponema pallidum
66
Antibiotic of choice in syphilis?
Penicillin (injected)
67
Chancres are indicative of which stage of syphilis?
Primary
68
Snail track ulcers in the mouth are indicative of which stage of syphilis infection?
Secondary
69
Lyme disease is caused by which bacteria
Borrelia burgdoferi
70
Late presentation of Lyme disease symptoms include
Heart block, nerve palsy and arthritis
71
Therapeutic regimen of Lyme disease?
Amoxicillin or doxycycline if allergic
72
Ixodes tick bites can transfer the Borrelia bacteria immediately upon contact. True/false?
False - must be attached for 24 hours.
73
Asymptomatic tick bites always require antibiotic prophylaxis. True/false?
False
74
Erythema migrans is a buzzword for which disease/infection?
Lyme disease
75
Zika is carried by which organism vector?
Mosquito (Aedes aegypti)
76
Complications of Zika include (2)
-Microcephaply -GBS
77
List 3 skin commensals
S. epidermidis, Corynbacterium, propinobacter
78
Group B beta haemolytic strep are associated classically with which infection?
Meningitis in neonates
79
Staphs & Streps will both be covered by which antibiotic?
Flucloxacillin
80
The causative organism of type 2 NF is...
GAS infection
81
List some organisms worth treating if grown from a leg ulcer swab (3)
1) S. pyogenes (GAS), S. aureus 2) Other beta-haemolytic streps 3) Anaerobes
82
Fungus spreads in which layer of skin?
Stratum corneum
83
How are dermatophyte infections of scalp treated?
Terbafinine or itraconazole orally
84
Candida skin infection is diagnosed using which sample
Swabs from site
85
Which infection is this typical of?
Scabies
86
Haemorrhagic rash (as shown) is a potential complication of which infection?
Chickenpox
87
Which form of infection is this?
Ophthalmic zoster
88
Which form of infection is this?
Maxillary zoster
89
Geniculate zoster is AKA
Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome (7th nerve fascial palsy and irritation of the 8th nerve leading to deafness, vertigo and tinnitus)
90
The chickenpox vaccine is live/inactivated?
Live
91
What is this disease? What is the causative infection?
Erythema multiforme. Causative agent includes HSV, Mycoplasma pneumoniae
92
What is this disease? How is it treated?
Molluscum contagiosum - self-limiting but cryotherapy (Fleshy, firm, umbilicated lesions)
93
What is this? What is the causative agent?
Herpangina (blistering at back of mouth) caused by enteroviruses such as Coxsackie viruses
94
Hand, Foot & Mouth Disease is caused by which pathogen?
Coxsackie virus (enteroviruses)
95
Complication of parovirus / slapped cheek includes (3)
1) Abortion 2) Aplastic crisis (sudden drop in haemaglobin) 3) Chronic anaemia (if immunosuppressed)
96
What infection is this?
Orf (signular, fleshy, firm) - a lab diagnosis is not needed
97
Which stage of syphilis is this?
Primary (chancre)
98
What is this rash indicative of?
Lyme Disease (erythema migrans)