Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dermatology > Microbiology & Common Infections > Flashcards

Microbiology & Common Infections Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

What % of people are permanently colonised with S. aureus?

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fibrinogen binding ClfA and ClfB are examples of what?

A

Adhesins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Coagulase testing helps broadly differentiate what from what?

A

S. aureus (positive) from S. epidermidis (negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Scalded skin syndrome is produced by toxins targetted against what?

A

Desmoglein-1, a protein involved in crossbridging of epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PVL is present in what % of clinical S. aureus isolates?

A

1-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PVL is associated with what (3)

A

-Severe skin infection -Sepsis/necrotising fasciitis -Necrotising pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PVL tends to be more common in hospital/community acquired MRSA?

A

Community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

S. pyogenes has what Gram stain?

A

Gram positive cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can S. pyogenes be differentiated from viridians group Strep (e.g. mutans)?

A

Haemolysis (Group A streps classically have beta haemolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Impetigo/cellulitis is a skin diseased caused by which group of Strep?

A

GAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Streptolysin S is associated with which condition?

A

Cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are common alpha-haemolytic Streps?

A

Pneumoniae, viridians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Group A strep is a subclass of what type of strep?

A

Beta-haemolytic (clear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

S. aureus may be further classified with what type of test?

A

Latex agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

S. aureus has what air requirements?

A

Aerobic and facultative anaerobe (grows best in air)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

First-line antibiotic of choice in S. aureus infection?

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Treatment options for MRSA

A

-Doxycycline -Co-trimoxazole -Clindamycin or vancomycin Check Tayside formularly too. NOT flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Are coagulase negative staphs generally pathogens?

A

No, usually commensals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the most “concerning” group of Streps?

A

Beta haemolytic strep (especially GAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What’s the key clinical sign for NF?

A

Mismatch in what clinician sees and patient reports (e.g. mild erythema with extreme pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fournier’s Gangrene is a specifically severe type of what?

A

NF affecting the genitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Non-haemolytic streptococci include what species, and why are these clinically important?

A

Enterococcus, a cause of UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define the following terms: -Tinea capitis -Tinea barbae -Tinea corporis -Tinea manuum -Tinea unguum -Tinea cruris -Tinea pedis

A

Capitis = head Barbae = beard Corporis = body Manuum = Hand Unguum = Nail Cruris = Genitals Pedis = Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s the commonest cause of contracting a fungal infection? What’s the second most common?

A

1st is contact with other infected humans. 2nd is contact with infected animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most common dermatophyte?

A

Trichophyton rubrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Taking skin/scalp/nail clippings is the primary means of diagnosing ringworm, true/false?

A

False - culture can take up to 2 weeks. Diagnosis on clinical appearance and Woods light appearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Terbafine for scalp infection requires checking what?

A

Liver function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Candida most commonly affects which areas of skin and is termed what when these areas are infected?

A

Skin folds, candida intertrigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Scabies parasite is a type of what? What is the technical name?

A

A type of arachnid mite. Called Sarcopetes scabei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Norwegian Scabies is when the infection has what? What’s the clinical importance?

A

Crusted over. HIGHLY infectious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment of scabies is with what?

A

Malathion lotion overnight (or benzyl benzoate, but NOT in children) and washed off next day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Lice is technically called what?

A

Pediculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Lice infestation is treated how?

A

Malathion lotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chickenpox & Shingles are both caused by what?

A

Varicella Zoster Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The characteristic appearance for a chickenpox/shingles rash is what?

A

Punched out papulovesicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

VZV establishes latency in which type of nerve? Where?

A

Sensory roots at dorsal root ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

VZV can reactivate multiple times. True/false?

A

False (only once)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Severe complications of chickenpox can include (5)

A

-Secondary bacterial infection -Pneumonitis -Haemorrhagic rash -Scarring -Encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What’s the important contrast between clinical picture of shingles versus chickenpox?

A

Shingles is dermatomal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Shingles always presents in adults. True/false?

A

False (uncommon in <10 but can occur)

41
Q

Pain persisting for 4 weeks post shingles rash is termed what?

A

Post-herpetic nerualgia

42
Q

Post-herpetic nerualgia is a particular concern in which groups of patients (2)?

A

-Elderly -Trigeminal nerve infected patients

43
Q

Scarring is common in zoster. True/false?

A

False

44
Q

Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome is what?

A

VZV reactivation from 7th nerve ganglion (facial). Presents with auditory canal and facial palsy. Can also cause deafness and permanent vertigo

45
Q

The chickenpox vaccine is routine for children in the UK. True/false?

A

False

46
Q

The chickenpox vaccine is routine for which group of patients?

A

70 year olds.

47
Q

Primary gingiovostomatitis is a feature of which viral infection?

A

HSV

48
Q

“A blistering rash at the vermillion border” could be indicative of which viral infection?

A

HSV

49
Q

Which type of HSV is the routine cause of oral lesions?

A

Type 1

50
Q

Which antiviral is useful in VZV and HSV?

A

Acyclovir

51
Q

How does acyclovir work?

A

It is an analogue of guanosine which is incorporated and inhibits replication

52
Q

Does acyclovir eliminate all virus particles?

A

No (latent remains)

53
Q

Fleshy, firm, umbilicated, pearlescent nodules is indicative of which infection?

A

Molluscum contagiosum

54
Q

Molluscum contagiosum is routinely treated with antivirals. True/false?

A

False - self-limiting, liquid nitrogen application used if needed

55
Q

HPV causes which skin lesion?

A

Warts

56
Q

Most common HPV serovars which cause warts/verrucas?

A

Types 1 to 4.

57
Q

Most common HPV serovars which cause genital warts?

A

Types 6 to 11

58
Q

Most common HPV serovars which cause cervical cancer?

A

Types 16 and 18

59
Q

Gardasil protects against which HPV serovars?

A

6, 11, 16 and 18

60
Q

Hand, Foot and Mouth disease is caused by which family of virus? What’s a typical example of this family?

A

Enteroviruses. Typical example would be Coxsackie.

61
Q

Slapped Cheek / erythema infectosium is caused by which virus?

A

Parovirus B19

62
Q

Erythema infectosium / slapped cheek is typically diagnosed by antibody testing over skin swabbing. True/false?

A

True - test is specific parovirus B19 IgM

63
Q

Orf is a virus/bacteria which is present in _____.

A

Virus. Present in sheep

64
Q

Gummatous or CNS/CVD syphilis is indicative of which stage of infection?

A

Tertiary (can be fatal)

65
Q

Syphilis is caused by which bacteria?

A

Treponema pallidum

66
Q

Antibiotic of choice in syphilis?

A

Penicillin (injected)

67
Q

Chancres are indicative of which stage of syphilis?

A

Primary

68
Q

Snail track ulcers in the mouth are indicative of which stage of syphilis infection?

A

Secondary

69
Q

Lyme disease is caused by which bacteria

A

Borrelia burgdoferi

70
Q

Late presentation of Lyme disease symptoms include

A

Heart block, nerve palsy and arthritis

71
Q

Therapeutic regimen of Lyme disease?

A

Amoxicillin or doxycycline if allergic

72
Q

Ixodes tick bites can transfer the Borrelia bacteria immediately upon contact. True/false?

A

False - must be attached for 24 hours.

73
Q

Asymptomatic tick bites always require antibiotic prophylaxis. True/false?

A

False

74
Q

Erythema migrans is a buzzword for which disease/infection?

A

Lyme disease

75
Q

Zika is carried by which organism vector?

A

Mosquito (Aedes aegypti)

76
Q

Complications of Zika include (2)

A

-Microcephaply -GBS

77
Q

List 3 skin commensals

A

S. epidermidis, Corynbacterium, propinobacter

78
Q

Group B beta haemolytic strep are associated classically with which infection?

A

Meningitis in neonates

79
Q

Staphs & Streps will both be covered by which antibiotic?

A

Flucloxacillin

80
Q

The causative organism of type 2 NF is…

A

GAS infection

81
Q

List some organisms worth treating if grown from a leg ulcer swab (3)

A

1) S. pyogenes (GAS), S. aureus 2) Other beta-haemolytic streps 3) Anaerobes

82
Q

Fungus spreads in which layer of skin?

A

Stratum corneum

83
Q

How are dermatophyte infections of scalp treated?

A

Terbafinine or itraconazole orally

84
Q

Candida skin infection is diagnosed using which sample

A

Swabs from site

85
Q

Which infection is this typical of?

A

Scabies

86
Q

Haemorrhagic rash (as shown) is a potential complication of which infection?

A

Chickenpox

87
Q

Which form of infection is this?

A

Ophthalmic zoster

88
Q

Which form of infection is this?

A

Maxillary zoster

89
Q

Geniculate zoster is AKA

A

Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome (7th nerve fascial palsy and irritation of the 8th nerve leading to deafness, vertigo and tinnitus)

90
Q

The chickenpox vaccine is live/inactivated?

A

Live

91
Q

What is this disease? What is the causative infection?

A

Erythema multiforme.

Causative agent includes HSV, Mycoplasma pneumoniae

92
Q

What is this disease? How is it treated?

A

Molluscum contagiosum - self-limiting but cryotherapy

(Fleshy, firm, umbilicated lesions)

93
Q

What is this? What is the causative agent?

A

Herpangina (blistering at back of mouth) caused by enteroviruses such as Coxsackie viruses

94
Q

Hand, Foot & Mouth Disease is caused by which pathogen?

A

Coxsackie virus (enteroviruses)

95
Q

Complication of parovirus / slapped cheek includes (3)

A

1) Abortion
2) Aplastic crisis (sudden drop in haemaglobin)
3) Chronic anaemia (if immunosuppressed)

96
Q

What infection is this?

A

Orf (signular, fleshy, firm) - a lab diagnosis is not needed

97
Q

Which stage of syphilis is this?

A

Primary (chancre)

98
Q

What is this rash indicative of?

A

Lyme Disease (erythema migrans)

Dermatology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions