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Board Review > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

The most useful microbiological staining techniques which separates bacterial organisms into two groups based on their cell wall structures

A

Gram stain

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2
Q

Stains blue

A

gram +

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3
Q

Stains red

A

Gram -

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4
Q

Gram + cell wall structure

A 
Thick
2 layers
No porin channel
No periplasmic space
Susceptible to breakdown by penicillins and lysozyme
No endotoxin
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5
Q

Gram - cell wall structure

A 
Thin 
3 layers
porin channel
periplasmic space
not susceptible to breakdown by penicillins and lysozyme
Endotoxin (outer membrane)
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6
Q

Acid fast technique is used for

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB)

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7
Q

Syphilis (treponema pallidum) and lyme disease ( Borrelia burgdorferi) are caused by what type of bacteria

A

Spirochetes

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8
Q

These spirochetes are associated with NUP and NUG

A

Treponema denticola

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9
Q

Spirochetes require this to identify them

A

dark field microscopy

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10
Q

Spherical organisms

A

Coccus (cocci)

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11
Q

Rod like structures

A

bacillus (bacilli) sometimes referred to as rods

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12
Q

lacking distinct shape

A

pleiomorphic

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13
Q

spiral shaped bacteria

A

spirochete

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14
Q

The most commonly used source of energy and carbon for humans and bacteria is

A

glucose

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15
Q

What are the 3 enzymes bacteria posses to break down oxygen products

A

catalase
peroxidase
superoxide dismutase

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16
Q

Catalase

A

breaks down hydrogen peroxide

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17
Q

Peroxidase

A

breaks down hydrogen peroxide

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18
Q

Superoxide dismutase

A

breaks down superoxide radical

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19
Q

what are the bacterial categories

A

obligate aerobes
facultative anaerobes
microaerophilic
obligate anaerobes

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20
Q

Uses the krebs cycle and glycolysis

Must have oxygen to survive

A

Obligate aerobes

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21
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

Aerobic
Use oxygen
CAN grow in the abscence of oxygen by using fermentation
MOST DISEASE CAUSING ORGANISMS*

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22
Q

Microaerophilic bacteria

A

Aerotolerant anaerobes
uses fermentation
can tolerate low amounts of oxygen because they superoxide dismutase

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23
Q

Cannot tolerate oxygen

Can live in periodontal pockets and sulcus *

A

obligate anarobes

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24
Q

Lag phase

A

Growth is SLOW as first

Cellular metabolic activity was NOT increased `

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25
Q

Logarithimic (exponential) phase

A

Growth occurs very rapidly

Phase that microorganisms are most prone to breakdown by antimicrobial agents

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26
Q

Stationary phase

A

No net increase or decrease in cell numbers as nutrients are used up and waste products build up

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27
Q

After the stationary phase ends, microbes die off

A

death phase

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28
Q

How are gram + streptococcus arranged

A

chains or pairs

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29
Q

Streptococcus

A

microaerophilic
non-mobile
All organisms are catalase negative

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30
Q

What are the 3 groups of streptococcus

A

Beta hemolytic streptococcus
alpha hemolytic streptococcus
gamma hemolytic streptococcus

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31
Q

Completely lyse a RBCs

A

beta hemolytic streptococcus

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32
Q

partially lyse RBCs

A

alpha hemolytic streptococcus

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33
Q

Gamma hemolytic streptococcus

A

unable to lyse RBCs

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34
Q

How are beta hemolytic streptococcus arranged

A

in groups A-U known as lancefield groups

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35
Q

Group A streptococcus (GAS) or Streptococcus pyogenes

A

facultative, gram + cocci
grows in chains
highly communicable and primarily spread through person-to-person contact

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36
Q

Causes pharyngitis (strep throat), tonsillitis, scarlet fever, and cellulitis

A

Group A streptococcus or streptococcus pyogenes

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37
Q

Organism produces greenish tint when cultured

A

Viridans group of streptococcus

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38
Q

Normal inhabitants of the nasopharynx and gingival crevices

A

Viridans group of streptococcus

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39
Q

Viridans group of streptococcus causes 3 main types of infections

A 
dental infections (caries)
endocarditis 
abscesses
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40
Q

Causative for the majority of endocarditis cases

A

Streptococcus mitis

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41
Q

Streptococcus mutans

A

Viridans
Causative for dental caries
Ability to synthesize glucans from sucrose
Aciduric and acid producing

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42
Q

Group A streptococcus (GAS)

Causative for pharyngitis (strep throat) and scarlet and rheumatic fever

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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43
Q

Streptococcus sobrinus

A

Viridans

Associated with dental caries

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44
Q

Streptococcus mitis

A

Viridans

Implicated in bacterial endocarditis

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45
Q

Streptococcus sanguinis

A

Viridans
early plaque colonizer
implicated in bacterial endocarditis and dental caries

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46
Q

Principal commensal bacterium of the oral cavity
one of the first microbes to colonize an infants mouth
associated with the tongue*

A

Streptococcus salivarius

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47
Q

Causative for pneumonia

Can be encapsulated with a polysaccharide layer makes it very resistant

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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48
Q

Generally harmless component of normal flora

Has powerful arsenal of enzymatic and exotoxin weapons

A

staphylococcus

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49
Q

Important characteristics of staphylococcus

A

Spherical gram + cocci arranged in grapelike clusters
Facultative anaerobe
Typical lesion of a staphlycoccus is abscess formation

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50
Q

Major producer of proteins called leukocidins (destroy phagocytes); destroyed phagocytes make up much of the material of pus

A

Staphlycoccus aureus

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51
Q

What is the most resistant disease causing organism and the treatment

A

MRSA (staphylococcus aureus)

TX; vancomycin and bactrim

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52
Q

Causative agent of actinomycosis

Common clinical form is lumpy jaw

A

Actinomyces

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53
Q

Prevotella

A

Gram - rod

obligate anaerobe

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54
Q

Main pathogenic bacteria in pregnancy related gingivitis
Can also be isolated from pericoronitis
Implicated in NUP/NUG

A

Prevotella intermedia

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55
Q

Porphyromonas gingivalis

A

MAJOR player in periodontal diseases
Possesses surface fimbrae
Produces collagenase

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56
Q

Neisseria

A

Colonizes the mucosal surfaces

Only 2 are are pathogens; Neisseria meningitides (meningitis) and Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonorrhea)

57
Q 
Causative for lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) and syphilis (treponema palladium)
Treponema denticola (NUP/NUG)
A

Spirochetes

58
Q

Gram +, aerobic, acid fast bacteria occuring as slightly curved or straight rods

A

mycobacterium

59
Q

Stimulated by the presence of female sex hormones

Implicated in pregnancy gingivitis

A

Camphylobacter

60
Q

Systemic infection of candida may involve

A

Lungs
Kidneys
Heart
Esophagus*

61
Q

Topical treatment of fungal infections

A

Nystatin and clotrimazole

62
Q

Systemic treatment of fungal infections

A

Ketoconazole and fluconazole (Diflucan)

63
Q

Unique characteristics of viruses

A

Must have host cell
Composed of protein core (capsid)
May have outer lipid bilayer (envelope)
Small

64
Q

What is a complete virus called

A

virion

65
Q

How are viruses shaped

A

Helical or icosahedral (20 faces)

66
Q

Function of mRNA

A

Translation

67
Q

What is transcription

A

DNA to RNA

68
Q

Examples of RNA viruses

A 
Hep A,C,D,E*
Influenza virus
Mumps
Measles
HIV*
69
Q

Examples of DNA viruses

A 
Hep B
HPV
Hepes I and II
Varicella zoster
Epstein barr virus
70
Q

What is an intact Hep B virus called

A

Dane particle

71
Q

Anti-HBsAg=

A

No active disease, immune

72
Q

HBeAg=

A

High infectivity and active infection

73
Q

Example of artifical acquired active immunity

A

hep b vaccine

74
Q

example of passive immunity

A

gamma globulin

75
Q

Linked to oropharyngeal malignancy

A

HPV 16 and possibly HPV 18

76
Q

Gardasil

A

HPV and there is a vaccination available

77
Q

Varicella zoster virus
Epstein barr virus
Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Herpes viruses

78
Q

Varicella zoster virus

A

Causes chickenpox and herpes zoster (shingles) upon reactivation of the dormant virus

79
Q

Causative organism for infectious mononucleosis and may also be implicated in malignancies such as nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitts lymphoma

A

Ebstein Barr virus

80
Q

Implicated in oral hairy leukoplakia

A

EBV

81
Q

Kaposi sarcoma herpesvirus

A

Associated with AIDS

82
Q

Coxsackie virus

A

Causative organism for herpangina (NOT herpes virus)

83
Q

What are the characteristics of antigens

A 
Foreigness (non-self)
High molecular weight
Chemical structural complexity
Antigenic determinants (epitopes)
Dosage, route, and timing of exposure
84
Q

Cells of the immune system

A 
Made up of leukocytes that are produced in the bone marrow
Granulocytes
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Dendritic cells
85
Q

Granulocytes

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

86
Q

lymphocytes

A

t cells, b cells, natural killer cells

87
Q

monocytes

A

precursor to macrophages

88
Q

dendritic cells

A

antigen presenting cells; APCs

89
Q

Characteristics of the innate immune system

A

present from birth
acute inflammation
dominant system of defense in most organisms
no memory

90
Q

Acute inflammation

A

A vascular response characterized by edema, redness and pain

91
Q

Nonspecific defenses include

A

Neutrophils
complement system
phagocytosis
fever

92
Q

Most numerous of the white blood cells

A

Neutrophils (polymorphonucleocyte)

93
Q

Neutrophils

A

First line defenders
phagocytes
Relaease powerful enzymes and cytokines

94
Q

When something is wrong with neutrophil functions

A

periodontal diseases results

95
Q

3 main functions of macrophages

A

phagocytosis
cytokine production
As an antigen presenting cell, macrophages transport, process, and present antigens

96
Q

Group of white blood cells that destroy tumor cells and virally infected cells

A

Natural killer cells

97
Q

Natural killer cells

A

non-specific killers
not phagocytes
kill without antibody
active without prior exposure to antigen

98
Q

Common at sites att he body that are exposed to the external environment and are found in close proximity to blood vessels

A

Mast cells

99
Q

What happens when mast cells release histamine

A

capillaries dilate and vascular permeability is dramatically increased leading to edema

100
Q

Two antibodies are capable of activating the complement system

A

IgG

IgM

101
Q

When a cell becomes infected with a virus the host cell secretes a group of proteins called

A

interferons

102
Q

Interferons

A

stimulate healthy cells to produce proteins that interfere with the synthesis of viral proteins

103
Q

What causes a fever

A

pyrogens

104
Q

Cellular immunity

A 
T-cells
defense against infections (especially mycobacterium tuberculosis and fungal)
delayed hypersensitivity 
graft and tumor rejection
regulation of antibody response
105
Q

Humoral immunity

A 
B cells (plasma cells)
defense against infection (opsonizes bacteria)
allergic response
autoimmunity
106
Q

remember pathogens for faster antibody production

A

B memory cells

107
Q

Types of antibodies

A 
IgG
IgM
IgM
IgE
IgD
IgA
108
Q

Most adundant ig
only AB to cross the placental barrier
enhances phagocytosis (opsonizes)
complement activator

A

IgG

109
Q

Main immunoglobulin in secretions (saliva)

Has j chain and secretory component

A

IgA

110
Q

First AB made
most efficient in agglutination
complement activator

A

IgM

111
Q

Most active Ab in response to allergens (bind to mast cells and basophils)
prime defense against parasites

A

IgE

112
Q

Key antigen presenting cell
critical in initiating immune response
help to regulate adaptive immune responses

A

Dendritic cell

113
Q

Classification used to describe immunoallergic hypersensitivity reactions

A

Gell coombs

114
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reaction

A

anaphylactic reaction

115
Q

type II hypersensitivity reaction

A

cytotoxic reaction

116
Q

type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

cell mediated or delayed reaction

117
Q

type III hypersensitivity reaction

A

immune complex reaction

118
Q

Allergic reaction that appears very quickly after exposure to previously encountered allergen
IgE is the primary antibody involved and causes release of histamine

A

Type I

119
Q

T cells (not antibodies) are involved in this hypersensitivity reactions
T cells release cytokines which activate phagocytosis leading to tissue inflammation and injury
Ex) Mantoux skin test

A

Type IV cell mediated reaction

120
Q

Antigens on a cell surface combine with antibody which leads to complement mediated lysis
EX) Rh and transfusion reactions

A

Type II cytotoxic reaction

121
Q

Most likely antibiotic class to produce anaphylactic reaction

A

penicillins

122
Q

The immune complexes are not cleared and persist in blood vessels, filtering organs, and synovial membranes (mechanism for autoimmune disorders)

A

Type III immune complex reaction

123
Q

Scleroderma

A

autoimmune disorder that is associated with raynauds phenomenon and generalized widening of the PDL

124
Q

Which antibody is the most abundant antibody in the body

A

IgG

125
Q

Which type of heptatitis is a dental hygienist least likely to get

A

hep e

126
Q

in plaque biofilm what makes up the bulk of the deposit

A

exopolysaccharides

127
Q

which is the first antibody to be produced after birth

A

IgM

128
Q

which antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity

A

IgE

129
Q

Which blood type can be given to all individuals

A

type O negative

130
Q

microscopically, staphylococci present as

A

grape like clusters

131
Q

These organisms are implicated in pregnancy gingivits

A

prevotella intermedia

132
Q

which of the following organisms is causative for pharyngitis (strep throat) ad scarlet fever

A

streptococcus pyogenes

133
Q

which type of bacteria is most often implicated in root caries

A

actinomyces

134
Q

which microorganism can be encapsulated with a polysaccharide layer

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

135
Q

the complement system aids in the immune response by

A

increasing lysis and opsonization

136
Q

which microscopic technique muct be employed to identify mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

acid fast staining

137
Q

at what stage of bacterial growth are organisms most susceptible to antimicrobial action

A

log phase

138
Q

which bacteria is an early colonizer that is associated with the tongue

A

streptococcus salivarius

Board Review (5 decks)

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