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Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Mutualism?

A

Both the host and microbe benefit

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2
Q

What is Commensualism?

A
  • microbe benefits

- host is unharmed

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3
Q

What is Parasitism?

A

Invading organism benefits from host at the expense of the host

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4
Q

What is Symbiosis?

A
  • living together
  • with the environment
  • no judgment
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5
Q

What is Pathogenicity?

A

the interaction between an organism and host

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6
Q

How do cells with an anabolic metabolism get and use proteins?

A
  • DNA can make needed proteins

- ingested proteins are broken down into amino acids and the cell rearrange them into the proteins that are needed

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7
Q

How do cells with an anabolic metabolism get energy?

A
  • biosynthesis

- break down glucose so that the cell can use its byproducts to make new sugars that the cell needs

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8
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

An organism or agent capable of causing disease

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9
Q

What is a disease?

A

And illness that alters body structures and functions

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10
Q

What are symptoms?

A

Subjective changes in body function

May not be observable or measurable

Pain, malaise

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11
Q

What are signs?

A

Objective changes, observable, measurable

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12
Q

What is a syndrome?

A

Specific group of symptoms and signs that always accompany a particular disease

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13
Q

What is a communicable disease?

A

A disease easily spread from one host to another, either directly or indirectly

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14
Q

Example(s)of a communicable disease

A

Chickenpox

Measles

Genital herpes

Tuberculosis

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15
Q

What is a contagious disease?

A

A disease easily spread directly from one host to another

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16
Q

Examples of contagious diseases

A

Chickenpox

Measles

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17
Q

What are non-communicable diseases?

A

Diseases not spread from one host to another

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18
Q

How are non-communicable diseases caused?

A

Microbes that normally inhabit the body and only occasionally produce disease

microbes that reside outside the body and produces disease only when introduced into the body

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19
Q

Example of a non-communicable disease

A

Tetanus

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20
Q

What is a sporadic incidence?

A

Occurs only occasionally

Typhoid fever

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21
Q

What is an endemic incidence?

A

Constantly present in a population

Native to a population

Colds

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22
Q

What is an epidemic incidence?

A

Many hosts in a given area acquire a certain disease in a relatively short period of time

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23
Q

Examples of diseases that cause epidemic incidences

A

Influenza, aids, gonorrhea

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24
Q

What is a pandemic incidence?

A

An epidemic disease that occurs in multiple parts of the world

Disease that affects the majority of the population of a large region

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25
Q

Example of a pandemic disease

A

Dental caries, Periodontal disease

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26
Q

What is virulence?

A

Degree of pathogenicity

How bad is it?

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27
Q

What is a vector?

A

Intermediary hosts that carry the disease from one species to another

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28
Q

What is a fomite?

A

Vehicle

Inanimate objects that transmit disease

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29
Q

What is a biological vector?

A

Bites, saliva

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30
Q

What is a mechanical vector?

A

Spreading it through biological organisms such as arthropods

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31
Q

What is a reservoir?

A

A site where infectious agents survive

Environment, body

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32
Q

How do pathogens enter the body?

A

Pathogen must overcome physical barriers such as skin or mucous membranes

Enter via wounds, ulcers, animal and insect bites

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33
Q

What happens once a pathogen enters the host?

A

Multiply, spread, cause disease

Colonize areas they are suited to

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34
Q

What is an acute disease?

A

One that develops more rapidly but lasts only a short time

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35
Q

What is a chronic disease?

A

Develops more slowly, body reactions may be less severe, but disease is continued or recumbent for long periods

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36
Q

Examples of chronic diseases

A

Infectious mononucleosis

FeLV

Tuberculosis

Hepatitis B

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37
Q

What is zoonosis or a zoonotic disease?

A

Disease that can be transmitted between animals and humans

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38
Q

How were zoonotic diseases recognized?

A

Similarity in physical abnormalities between animal and human diseases

Identification of causative agents due to invention of the microscope

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39
Q

What are the classics zoonoses?

A

Plague

Rabies

Tuberculosis

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40
Q

What are the new zoonoses?

A

Lyme disease

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

West Nile virus

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41
Q

When was Lyme disease discovered?

A

1970s

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42
Q

When was the hantavirus pulmonary syndrome discovered?

A

1993

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43
Q

When was West Nile virus discovered?

A

1999

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44
Q

What are emerging zoonoses?

A

Zoonotic diseases caused by new agents or previously known agents appearing in places or in species where it was previously unknown

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45
Q

Example of an emerging zoonoses

A

Closely related virus strains may mutate

Influenza

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46
Q

When did zoonotic diseases start?

A

When animals were domesticated in 6000 BC

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47
Q

What are the environmental conditions that allow zoonotic diseases to transmit?

A

Overcrowding of animals and humans

Barnyard conditions

Poor sanitation and personal hygiene

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48
Q

How do insects and rodents contribute to disease transmission?

A

Insects and rodents allow transmission of disease from animals do humans under certain conditions

They are carriers of disease

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49
Q

How are zoonotic diseases spread worldwide?

A

Trade routes

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50
Q

How does international travel contribute to zoonotic transmission?

A

Allows people, goods, food, rodents, and insects to move easily between populations

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51
Q

What were the early prevention and control measures for zoonotic diseases?

A

Boiling milk

Religious laws prohibiting the eating of pork

Culling animals showing signs of disease

Quarantining ships at ports

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52
Q

Who are the people most at risk of zoonotic diseases?

A
  • Farmers
  • Slaughterhouse workers
  • Laboratory workers
  • Human health and veterinary care personnel
  • people frequenting wildlife habitats
    – People in contact with pets or exotic animals
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53
Q

What are the important zoonotic diseases of domesticated animals?

A
  1. Parasitic infection
  2. Fungal infection
  3. Bacterial infection
  4. Viral infection
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54
Q

What does ubiquity mean?

A

Everywhere, microbes are everywhere

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55
Q

Where are the general places microbes can be found?

A
  1. Soil
  2. Air
  3. Water
  4. Human controlled industries
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56
Q

What microbes can be found in soil?

A

Saprophytes

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57
Q

What do saprophytes do?

A

Decompose organic matter such as rocks

Convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that can be used by plants

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58
Q

What resource does water provide for microbes?

A

Important source of photosynthesis

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59
Q

Where are microbes on the food chain?

A

The beginning

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60
Q

Water acts as a __________ for many diseases.

A

Vector or reservoir

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61
Q

How do humans use water microbes?

A

Beneficial for sewage treatment to decompose organic matter

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62
Q

Why is air important for microbes?

A

Microbes are dispersed in the air

They travel through it

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63
Q

Why can’t microbes lived in the air?

A

There are no nutrients in the air for the microbes

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64
Q

What do microbes affect?

A

Every organism and every system

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65
Q

What are the three things microbes can be?

A
  1. Beneficial
  2. Opportunistic
  3. Pathogenic
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66
Q

How humans utilized microbes in industries?

A
  1. Food production
  2. Engineered products
  3. Genetic engineering (insulin)
  4. Research tools
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67
Q

What are the different types of microorganisms?

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Protozoa
  4. Algae
  5. Viruses
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68
Q

What are the two kinds of bacteria?

A
  1. Prokaryotes

2. Archaea

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69
Q

Where are prokaryotes found?

A

Normal human/animal flora

On the skin, in the G.I. tract

Usually beneficial or harmless

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70
Q

What are pathogenic prokaryotes?

A

Organisms capable of causing disease

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71
Q

What are rickettsia?

A

Obligate intracellular parasites that must be inside eukaryotic cells to reproduce

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72
Q

How are rickettsia transmitted?

A

Buy arthropod vectors

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73
Q

What is an example of rickettsia?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

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74
Q

What is chlamydiae?

A

Obligate intracellular parasite

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75
Q

How is chlamydiae transmitted?

A

Inhalation

STD

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76
Q

Example of chlamydiae?

A

Chlamydia psittaci

In birds and humans

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77
Q

What are viruses?

A

Subcellular microbial agents

Not cells

Technically not alive

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78
Q

What is spontaneous generation?

A

Life came from nonlife

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79
Q

Example of spontaneous generation

A

Grain + rags = mice

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80
Q

What year did van Leeuwenhoek discover microbes?

A

1674

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81
Q

What was van Leeuwenhoek known for?

A

Creating the first microscope with various lenses

Using simple microscope observed “animalcules”

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82
Q

When was the golden age of microbiology?

A

1875 to 1900

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83
Q

What did the golden age of microbiology involve?

A

Germ theory of disease

Robert Koch’s disease postulates

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84
Q

What is the germ theory of disease?

A

Theory that disease can be caused by microorganisms

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85
Q

What are the Robert Koch’s disease postulates?

A
  • Organism must be present in all cases of the disease
  • must be able to infect a healthy animal with the organism and get the same disease
  • if you culture organisms from both animals they should be the same
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86
Q

What are the shapes of microbes?

A

– Coccus (cocci)
– Bacillus, rod
– Helical, spiral

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87
Q

What shape are coccus or cocci microbes?

A

Round

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88
Q

What shape are bacillus or rod microbes?

A

Oval or elongated

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89
Q

What shape are helical or spiral microbes?

A

Bent or curved

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90
Q

What are the groupings/arrangements of microbes?

A
  1. Chain- strepto
  2. Bunches- staphylo
  3. Pairs- diplo (cocci)
  4. Palisade- rods
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91
Q

What is the structure of the cell membrane of prokaryotes?

A

Phospholipid by layer with embedded proteins

Hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails

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92
Q

What does a cell membrane do?

A

Separates interior of cell from surroundings

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93
Q

How do proteins interact with the cell membrane of prokaryotes?

A

Proteins act as channels and pumps to import and export nutrients, waste, etc.

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94
Q

What is selective permeability of a cell membrane of a prokaryote?

A

Limits the size of particles or charges of a particle that can pass through the cell membrane

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95
Q

What is a cell wall?

A

Tough outer protective layer of a cell

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96
Q

What is the cell wall of a prokaryote made of?

A

Mostly carbohydrates, some protein

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97
Q

What is unique about prokaryotes cell walls?

A

Peptidoglycan

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98
Q

How did the base layers and outer layers of gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls compare?

A

Base layer of both gram-positive and gram-negative are the same

Outer layers differ

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99
Q

What are the cell walls of gram (+) cells made of?

A

Peptidoglycan cell wall with teichoic acid

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100
Q

How do you gram (+) cell walls stain?

A

– Stains easily, hard to decolorize

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101
Q

What is a mordant?

A

Gram’s iodine binds with the cell wall making it difficult to remove

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102
Q

How do gram (+) cell walls react to dry environments?

A

More resistant to drying out

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103
Q

How does the gram (+) cell wall react to penicillin?

A

Penicillin disrupts the synthesis of peptidoglycan and the cell wall leaks which causes the organism to die

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104
Q

What do you gram-positive cell walls produce?

A

Exotoxins

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105
Q

What are gram (-) cell walls made of?

A

Thin peptidoglycan base layer

Outer phospholipid membrane

No teichoic acid

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106
Q

How do you gram-negative cell wall stain?

A

– Harder to stain cell wall, stain has to penetrate lipids

– Easy to decolorize – alcohol is soluble in outer membrane

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107
Q

How do gram-negative cell walls react in dry environments?

A

– More susceptible to drying out

– Prefer moist environments

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108
Q

What are Archaea bacteria?

A

old, weird bacteria

first life forms on a planet

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109
Q

Where are Archaea bacteria found?

A
  • Deep Sea Hydrothermal Vents: boiling temperatures

- Mountain Tops: freezing temperatures

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110
Q

What are the 3 examples of fungi?

A
  1. yeast
  2. dermatophytes
  3. mushrooms
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111
Q

2 examples of Protozoa

A
  • giardia

- babesia

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112
Q

Why are Algae important?

A

important source of photosynthesis

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113
Q

What are viruses?

A
  • smaller than bacteria
  • not alive
  • needs a host to “live”
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114
Q

What is the #1 medication prescribed by human and animal doctors?

A

antibiotics

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115
Q

How do pathogens pass between animals and humans?

A
  • humans to animals

- animals to humans

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116
Q

What is the problem with overprescribing prescribing antibiotics?

A

antibiotics can lead to bacteria resistant to antibiotics

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117
Q

What are Prokaryotes?

A
  1. very simple structure
  2. no nucleus or other internal organelles
  3. small circular single strand of DNA
  4. ancient organisms, believed to be the first life forms and precursors to eukaryotes
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118
Q

What are Eukaryotes?

A
  1. more complex structures: nucleus
  2. All DNA is located inside a nucleus
  3. Includes all plants, animals, fungi, and protozoa
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119
Q

What is nomenclature?

A

traditional classification

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120
Q

What is the order for traditional classification?

A 
Kingdom 
Phylum 
Class 
Order 
Family 
Genus 
Species
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121
Q

What are the 3 kingdoms and the 3 exceptions?

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Archaea
  3. Eukarya
  4. Rickettsia
  5. Chlamydiae
  6. Viruses
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122
Q

What are the 4 different Eukarya?

A
  1. Protists
  2. Fungi
  3. Plants
  4. Animals
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123
Q

How do you gram (-) cell walls react to penicillin?

A

Fairly resistant to penicillin

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124
Q

What can be produced by gram-negative cells?

A

Endotoxins

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125
Q

How do gram-negative cells interact with its host?

A

– Small pieces of the outer layers can be toxic to host

– toxin is actually part of organism

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126
Q

What is the glycocalyx?

A

Gel like surrounding of some organisms

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127
Q

What are thick glycocalyx called?

A

Capsules

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128
Q

What are thin glycocalyx called?

A

Slime layer

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129
Q

What is the glycocalyx used for?

A

Used for attachment to surfaces and for resisting phagocytosis

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130
Q

What does the presence of a glycocalyx make an organism?

A

Can make the organism pathogenic

131
Q

Example of an organism made pathogenic by a glycocalyx

A

Tuberculosis

132
Q

How does a glycocalyx stain?

A

Hard to stain

Have to use a acid-fast stain

133
Q

How does a glycocalyx protect the cell from the environment?

A

Prevents dehydration

134
Q

How does the glycocalyx react with the host?

A

Causes antibody production by the host because it produces antigens

135
Q

How is the cytoplasm of a prokaryote structured?

A

Fluid found in interior of cell

Contains all the cells genetic material and enzymes for metabolism

136
Q

What surrounds the cytoplasm of a prokaryote?

A

Cytoplasmic membrane

137
Q

What structures are bound to the inner surface of the cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes?

A

Enzymes

138
Q

What are the structures found in the prokaryotic cytoplasm?

A

– Ribosomes

– Plasmid

139
Q

What do you ribosomes do?

A

Protein synthesis

140
Q

What is the plasmid of a prokaryote?

A

Small circular DNA strand of that is separate from the main DNA

141
Q

What does the plasmid do?

A

Carries genes that are changed more frequently within the same generation

142
Q

What is the R factor of a plasmid?

A

Carries genes for transferable drug resistance

143
Q

What are flagella on a prokaryote?

A

Hair-like projections on cell surface that are made of protein

Too small to see with a light microscope

Can have more than one

144
Q

How does the flagella of a prokaryote move the cell?

A

Spins rapidly to propel through surroundings

145
Q

How does a prokaryote know where to move?

A

Chemo taxis is used to determine where they want to move

They can move towards or away from light, food, chemicals

146
Q

What can be produced by the flagella prokaryotes?

A

Antigens

147
Q

What are fimbriae of prokaryotes?

A

Similar to flagella, but smaller

Usually have many

Can be antigenic

148
Q

What organism can become pathogenic with fimbriae?

A

E. coli

149
Q

What are fimbriae used for in prokaryotes?

A

Use for attachment

150
Q

What are pili of prokaryotes?

A

– Longer, hollow fimbriae
– Used in DNA exchange
– One or two per cell

151
Q

What are endospores?

A

Very resistant structures, inactive seed

Only one per cell

Released when vegetative cell dies

152
Q

What organisms can form endospores?

A

Gram (+) rods

Bacillus

Clostridium

153
Q

How long can endospores survive in heat?

A

Resistant to boiling for one hour

154
Q

What unfavorable conditions cause endospores to form?

A

– Heat
– Drying
– Lack of nutrients
– Oxygen

155
Q

How long can an endospore stay dormant?

A

Can last for decades before germination/germinating

156
Q

What is the difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell walls?

A

Eukaryote cell walls don’t have peptidoglycan

157
Q

How is an animal cell wall constructed?

A

No cell walls, just membranes

158
Q

How are plant cell walls constructed?

A

Have cellulose cell walls

Are rigid

159
Q

How are fungi cell walls constructed?

A

Chitin cell walls

Same as exoskeletons in insects and crabs

160
Q

How is the eukaryote cytoplasm constructed?

A

Cytoplasm is not completely fluid

Has protein fibers that make up a cytoskeleton

161
Q

What are the inclusions of the eukaryote cell?

A
  • nucleus
  • ribosomes
  • mitochondria
  • chloroplast
162
Q

Where does the eukaryotic DNA sit in the cell?

A

In the nucleus

163
Q

How many ribosomes are there in eukaryotic cells?

A

200 to 1000

More than prokaryotes

164
Q

What does the mitochondria do?

A

Energy production

ATP

165
Q

What organisms have chloroplasts?

A

Plants

Chlorophyll in plants

166
Q

What do you chloroplasts do?

A

Energy capture by photosynthesis

167
Q

How are flagella in eukaryotic cells different from prokaryotic cells?

A
  • much larger than prokaryotes
  • eukaryotes do not have pili or fimbriae
  • can be seen under a light microscope
168
Q

How do eukaryotic flagella help the cell move?

A

Whip like motion to move

169
Q

What are the cilia of eukaryotes?

A

Short flagella used for motility

Usually have many and cover the cell membrane

Use like oars for locomotion

170
Q

What do the cilia in the trachea and long cells do?

A

Move debris up and out

171
Q

What do all living things require?

A

Energy

172
Q

What is photosynthetic energy?

A

Process of turning sunlight into glucose and energy

173
Q

What organisms use photosynthetic energy?

A
  • plants
  • algae
  • Cyanobacteria
174
Q

How do you different plants use photosynthetic energy?

A

Various methods for different plants to produce glucose

Some can produce glucose in the dark but it requires energy

175
Q

How does the cell use glucose?

A

Breaks down glucose to make other molecules the cell needs

176
Q

How do you non-photosynthetic organisms get energy?

A

They get glucose directly or indirectly from photosynthesis

177
Q

What energy is made from light?

A

ATP, NADH

178
Q

What is NADH?

A

A coenzyme that contains energy originally stored in glucose

This energy can be transformed into ATP through aerobic respiration

179
Q

What is chemosynthetic energy?

A

Energy produced by chemical compounds

180
Q

What are chemoautotrophs?

A

Organisms that use inorganic compounds for energy

Sulfur, nitrate
CO2 for carbon source

181
Q

Examples of chemoautotrophs

A

Mostly odd aquatic organisms

No pathogens

182
Q

What are chemoheterotrophs

A

Organisms that require organic compounds for both energy and carbon sources

183
Q

Examples of chemoheterotrophs

A

Most bacteria

All humans and animals

Pathogenic bacteria

184
Q

What are the chemical compounds or nutrients used for energy for chemoheterotrophs?

A
  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Protein
  3. Lipids
  4. Vitamins
  5. Inorganics
185
Q

What do chemoheterotrophs use carbohydrates for?

A

Sugars and starches

Easily converted to energy

Glucose is the energy of choice

186
Q

What do you chemoheterotrophs use proteins for?

A

Proteins are broken down into amino acids

Amino acids are used to make specific proteins that the cell needs

187
Q

What do chemoheterotrophs use lipids for?

A

Stored energy

188
Q

How do you bacteria produce lipids?

A

Bacteria make their own fat from sugar

189
Q

What chemoheterotrophs use vitamins?

A

Some fungi such as yeast

Needed in wine production

190
Q

What inorganics do chemoheterotrophs use?

A 
Sulfur
Iron
Magnesium
Calcium
Sodium
Potassium
191
Q

How do bacteria get nutrients?

A

By getting nutrients to pass through the cell membrane

Must digest into smaller molecules before ingesting

Some secrete enzymes into surroundings

192
Q

How do you eukaryotes ingest food particles?

A

Diffusion through the cell membrane

Phagocytosis

193
Q

Examples of organisms that use phagocytosis to ingest food

A

Amoebas, leukocytes

194
Q

What does a host need to supply in order for bacteria to be successful in the environment?

A

Nutrients

195
Q

What temperatures can bacteria live at?

A

Bacteria can live in a wide range of temperatures based on the range they grow best at

196
Q

What are psychrophiles?

A

Organisms that do best that cold temperatures

Below 20°C

Refrigerator spoilage bacteria and a few pathogens

197
Q

What are Mesophiles?

A

Organisms that live in moderate temperatures

Most bacteria and pathogens

Room temperature to body temperature: 25° to 37°C

198
Q

What are thermophiles?

A

Organisms that live in 40°C or higher

Can survive pasteurization temperatures

Some food spoilage bacteria

199
Q

How can temperature affect bacterial growth?

A

If the host can provide optimum temperatures in the bacteria will be successful

Manipulating temperature may help control bacterial growth

200
Q

How does heat help control bacterial growth?

A

Heat works by denaturing enzymes

201
Q

How does dry heat work against bacteria?

A

Desiccates and kills but takes a long time

Mini endospores are resistant

202
Q

Why is moisture used to kill bacteria?

A

Steam is good for heat transfer

203
Q

Moist heat is used in autoclaves at what temperature and for how long to sterilize?

A

250°F

15 to 30 minutes

204
Q

How long does boiling take to kill bacteria?

A

Many hours to kill the spores

205
Q

Why would canned foods need to be boiled?

A

To kill spores

Some bacteria can live in that environment and become endospores

206
Q

What is pasteurization?

A

Use of high heat for short periods of time

207
Q

What is flash pasteurization?

A

70 to 80°C
10 to 20 seconds

Used for milk and juice

208
Q

What is bulk or vat pasteurization?

A

60 to 70°C
30 minutes

Wine

209
Q

What is ultra pasteurization?

A

138°C

2 sec

210
Q

What is ultra-high temperature pasteurization?

A

I 138 to 150°C

1 to 2 sec

211
Q

What are obligate anaerobes?

A

Organisms that cannot live in oxygen

212
Q

What are some examples of obligate anaerobes?

A

Clostridium botulinum

Clostridium pefringens

Clostridium tetani

213
Q

What are obligate aerobes?

A

Requires oxygen to grow and live

214
Q

What are facultative anaerobes?

A

Can grow/live with or without oxygen

Would prefer oxygen

215
Q

Examples of facultative anaerobes

A

Most pathogens

E. coli

Salmonella species

216
Q

What can be controlled by manipulating the amount of oxygen available?

A

Bacterial growth

217
Q

What pH do most bacteria and pathogens do best at?

A

Neutral to slightly acidic

5-7.5

218
Q

What pH do some non-pathogens require?

A

Strong acidic or alkaline pH

219
Q

What do organisms produce to slow the growth of competitors?

A

Acids

220
Q

By manipulating the pH of the environment we can control the growth of what?

A

Bacteria found in canned food and urine

221
Q

What osmotic pressure do bacteria need?

A

Isotonic concentration of salts

~ 0.85% salt

222
Q

How much salt is in seawater?

A

About 3.5% salt

223
Q

What organisms can live in salt water?

A

Has its own population of organisms

Most terrestrial organisms can’t live in saltwater

224
Q

What increases with solute concentration of a cell?

A

Osmotic pressure

225
Q

What does osmotic pressure do for the cell structure?

A

Keep cytoplasm firmly against cell membrane

Helps cell keep its shape

226
Q

What is manipulated when salt concentration is changed?

A

Osmotic pressure

227
Q

What can be controlled by manipulating osmotic pressure?

A

Bacterial growth

228
Q

What is a hypertonic environment of a cell?

A

– Cell solute is low
– H2O leave cell
– Cell crenates or shrivels
– Cell can die

229
Q

What is a hypotonic environment of a cell?

A
  • cell solute concentration is high
  • H2O enters cell
  • cell bursts and dies
230
Q

What are the phases of the bacterial growth curve?

A
  1. Lag phase
  2. Growth or log phase
  3. Stationary phase
  4. Death phase
  5. Dormant phase
231
Q

What is the lag phase of the bacterial growth curve?

A

No increase in numbers

from inoculation to constant growth phase

Adjustment period

232
Q

What is the growth or log phase of the bacterial growth curve?

A

Low to high numbers very fast

Growth is very fast at a constant rate of multiplication

Easy to kill bacteria at this time

233
Q

What is the stationary phase of the bacterial growth curve?

A

No loss of bacteria or gain of bacteria in terms of population

Definitely production numbers are equal

Bacteria are most resistant to antibiotics

234
Q

What is the death phase of the bacterial growth curve?

A

Number of cells that die are higher than the number of cells being produced

235
Q

What is the dormant phase of the bacterial growth curve?

A

Survivors of the death phase

Have a low metabolic rate and spores can be formed

The body can kill off the rest of these bacteria

236
Q

What are the two types of metabolism?

A

Catabolism

Anabolism

237
Q

What is catabolism metabolism?

A

Energy yielding reactions

Breakdown of nutrients or the capture of light for energy

238
Q

How does an organism with a catabolic metabolism get energy?

A

From glucose

239
Q

What are the two main routes of getting energy for a catabolic metabolism?

A

Fermentation

Respiration

240
Q

What is fermentation?

A

Generates a net of two ATP per glucose

Produces metabolic waste products such as lactic acid and alcohol

241
Q

Examples of organisms that use fermentation

A

Yeast and some bacteria

242
Q

What is respiration?

A

Generates 38 ATP per glucose

Can occur with or without oxygen

243
Q

How do aerobes use respiration?

A

Use oxygen to make water by removing hydrogen from glucose

244
Q

How do anaerobes use respiration?

A

Uses sulfur or NO3 or other inorganic compounds to remove hydrogen from glucose

245
Q

How do organisms with an anabolic metabolism get energy?

A

Biosynthesis

Manufacture of materials required for cell function or structure

Cells require specialized carbs and sugars

Glucose is broken down to make new sugars

246
Q

How do cells with anabolic metabolism get and use proteins?

A

DNA can make proteins required by the cell

Proteins are broken down into amino acids and rearranged into the proteins in the cell needs

247
Q

How does an anabolic cell produce lipids?

A

Manufactured from glucose

248
Q

What is Direct Transmission?

A

acquiring a disease from close contact

249
Q

Examples of Direct Transmission?

A
  1. intimate contact
  2. bodily fluids
  3. touching skin
250
Q

What is Indirect Transmission?

A

contact with a disease in the environment

251
Q

Examples of Indirect Transmission?

A
  1. Arthropod vector
  2. contaminated bedding
  3. airborne
252
Q

What is horizontal transmission?

A
  • Between members of the same species
  • Within the same generation
  • between friends and family
  • not from mom to child
253
Q

What is vertical transmission?

A
  • Passing something from one generation to the next
  • mom to child
  • during pregnancy
254
Q

What is a subacute disease?

A

Between acute and chronic

255
Q

What is a latent disease?

A

Causative agent remains in active for a time but then becomes active to produce symptoms

Will become active when it wants to

256
Q

Example of a latent disease

A

Shingles

257
Q

Where does a latent disease stay dormant in the body?

A

Within the nervous system

- sacral plexus

258
Q

What is an infection?

A

Organism growing and multiplying inside host

259
Q

What is a primary infection?

A
  • Acute infection

- causes initial illness

260
Q

What is a secondary infection?

A

– Opportunistic pathogen
– Occurs after primary infection
– Weekend body defenses

261
Q

What is a subclinical or inapparent infection?

A
  • does not cause any noticeable illness

- hosts are reservoirs and vectors

262
Q

What happens when the host of a subclinical infection passes the disease?

A

host can be a carrier and give the pathogen to others but they will show signs and symptoms

263
Q

What is bacteremia?

A

Bacteria present in the blood

Most white blood cells are not active in the circulatory system

264
Q

What is septicemia?

A

Bacteria present in the blood causing inflammation throughout the body

265
Q

What is toxemia?

A

Presence of toxins in the blood

266
Q

What is viremia?

A

Viruses in the blood

267
Q

What is intoxication?

A

Disease that is caused by a toxin rather than the organism itself

268
Q

What is nosocomial disease?

A

Acquired illness as a result of a hospital stay

269
Q

What is an intermediate host?

A

Harbors a parasite for a short transition period and doesn’t make the host sick

270
Q

What is a definitive host?

A

Harbors parasite while it matures and possibly reproduces

Makes the host sick

271
Q

What are risk factors?

A

Any condition that can increase the chance of infection

272
Q

Examples of where risk factors are found

A

Could be factors of the infectious agent, host or environment

273
Q

What is an incubation period?

A

Interval of time between when the host first contracts the infectious agent and when clinical signs and symptoms of the disease develop

274
Q

What is an asymptomatic carrier?

A

Infected individual showing no clinical signs of disease but potentially infective to others

275
Q

Examples of diseases that an asymptomatic carrier can have

A

Ringworm

HIV

276
Q

What is morbidity?

A

Refers to the incidence of ill health in a population

277
Q

What is mortality?

A

Refers to the incidence of death or number of deaths in a population

278
Q

Exotoxins

A

Proteins produced by an organism secreted into the environment

279
Q

What are some of the most toxic substances known?

A
  1. Tetanus

2. Botulism

280
Q

What are the three types of toxins?

A
  1. Neurotoxins
  2. Enterotoxins
  3. Cytotoxins
281
Q

What do you neurotoxins effect?

A

The nervous system

282
Q

What do enterotoxins affect?

A

G.I. Tract

283
Q

What do cytotoxins affect?

A

Cells

284
Q

What are the controls and defense mechanisms for exotoxins?

A
  1. Heat
  2. Immune response by host body
  3. Easily inactivated to make toxoids
285
Q

How does heat affect exotoxins?

A
  • 60 to 80°C

- Will break down toxin

286
Q

What are the immune responses by the host body?

A

Producing antibodies called antitoxins

287
Q

How are exotoxins are easily inactivated to make toxoids?

A

Inactivated toxins that can be injected to create an immune response without causing the disease

288
Q

What are the seven organisms capable of exotoxin production?

A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Clostridium tetani
  3. E. coli
  4. Salmonella typhi
  5. Vibrio cholerae
  6. Clostridium botulinum
  7. Bacillus anthracis
289
Q

What is Staphylococcus aureus?

A
  • normal skin flora
  • enterotoxins
  • gram (+)
  • food poisoning
  • TSST-1
290
Q

What is clostridium tetani?

A
  • tetanus

- releases tetanus toxin

291
Q

What is E. coli?

A
  • E. coli: O157:H7
  • Enterohemorrhagic toxin
  • traveler’s diarrhea
292
Q

What is salmonella typhi?

A

Typhoid fever

293
Q

What is vibrio cholerae?

A

Coleragen

294
Q

What is clostridium botulinum?

A

Botulism

295
Q

What is bacillus anthracis?

A

Anthrax

296
Q

Where are in the toxins produced?

A

Lipid part of some gram(-) organisms

297
Q

How can you remove endotoxins with heat?

A

Greater than 250°F for 30 minutes to remove from the tissue cultures

298
Q

When our endotoxins toxic?

A

Toxic at high doses

299
Q

What effect do endotoxins produce?

A

– Lower blood pressure, fever, shock
– Blood coagulation
– information, diarrhea
– Hard to remove from body

300
Q

What do Leukocydines toxins do?

A

Kills white blood cells

301
Q

How do Leukocydines kill WBC?

A

Upset leukocytes cell membranes

302
Q

How do Leukocydines affection the host?

A

Decreases host resistance

303
Q

What bacterias produce Leukocydines?

A
  1. Pneumococci
  2. Streptococci
  3. Staphylococci
304
Q

What do hemolysin toxins do?

A

Breaks down cells, especially red blood cells

Streptolysins

305
Q

What are the bacterias that produce hemolysin toxins?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

306
Q

What is streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Normal throat flora

Overgrowth causes a problem

307
Q

What do streptokinase toxins do?

A

Dissolves blood clots

Can cause internal hemorrhage

Use after heart surgery to prevent clotting

308
Q

Example of streptokinase

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

309
Q

What are the direct methods for counting and measuring microorganisms?

A
  1. Plate count

2. Membrane filtration

310
Q

What is a plate count?

A

Add measured amount of sample to growth media then count colonies that form

311
Q

What can be measured on a plate count?

A

– Body fluid
– Tissue
– food
– water

312
Q

How is a sample prepared in order to get countable numbers?

A

Has to be diluted

313
Q

How do you measure the colonies on a plate count?

A

Count colonies and multiply by dilution factor to get original count

314
Q

How long does a plate count take and how efficient is it?

A
  • very slow, takes 1-2 days to incubate

- fairly accurate if done correctly

315
Q

What is membrane filtration?

A

Filter organisms onto a membrane with a grid

316
Q

How do you count the organisms using membrane filtration?

A

Count organisms in a few grids and multiply by number of grids

317
Q

How long does membrane filtration take and how accurate is it?

A

– Fast

– Fairly accurate but counts dead organisms too

318
Q

What are the indirect methods for measuring and counting microorganisms?

A
  1. Turbidity

2. Luceferin

319
Q

How is turbidity used for measuring microorganisms?

A

Measures cloudiness of sample

Only works for high concentrations

Used for clear fluids

320
Q

What does Luceferin do?

A

detects presence of bacteria in foods or on surfaces

321
Q

How does Luceferin work?

A

Measures ATP

322
Q

Where is luceferin used?

A

Food processing centers

Operating rooms

323
Q

Artificial passive immunity injections are used post-exposure to what?

A
  1. diphtheria
  2. tetanus
  3. botulism
  4. rabies

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