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Pharmacology > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the treatment of choice for T. cruzi?

A

Nitrofurantoin and Benznidazole

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2
Q

Montenegro skin test is a test to that identifies the presence of exposure which parasite?

A

Leishmania sp.

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3
Q

Diagnostic stage of Leishmaniasis:

A

Amastigote

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4
Q

Infective stage of leishmaniasis:

A

Promastigote

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5
Q

Drug of choice worldwide for Leishmaniasis:

A

Sodium stibogluconate

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6
Q

Extraintestinal stage of T. gondii that is more susceptible to drugs:

A

Tachyzoites

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7
Q

A patient came at the ER with decreasing sensorium which on MRI revealed multiple enhancing ring like structures. Identify the causative organism:

A

Toxoplasma gondii

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8
Q

Intracerebral calcifications are seen in which parasitic infection:

A

Toxoplasma gondii

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9
Q

In congenital CMV infections, what is seen at the ventricles?

A

Paraventricular calcifications

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10
Q

Sabin fieldman dye is used to look for the presence of circulating IgG to which parasite?

A

T. gondii

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11
Q

In patients with HIV, the prophylactic DOC for T. gondii is:

A

TMP SMX

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12
Q

Romana’s sign which is the presence of unilateral palpebral swelling comes from which parasite?

A

T. cruzi

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13
Q

Infection of which parasite may lead to megaesophagus or megacolon?

A

T. cruzi

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14
Q

Vector for Trypanosoma brucei:

A

Tse tse fly (glossina)

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15
Q

In Trypanosoma brucei, the presence of enlarged posterior cervical lymph nodes is seen which is also called:

A

Winterbottom sign

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16
Q

Kerandel sign which denotes the presence of deep hyperesthesia is seen in which phase of T. brucei infection?

A

Late (meningoencephalitic phase)

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17
Q

Morula cells of Mott is seen in which parasitic infection?

A

T. brucei

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18
Q

Life stages of T. cruzi

A

Amastigote, Promastigote, Epimastigote, Trypomastigote

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19
Q

In east African sleeping sickness, the DOC for early infection is:

A

Suramin

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20
Q

In east African sleeping sickness, the DOC for CNS involvement is:

A

Melarsopol

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21
Q

Babesia microti is transmitted by which insect vector:

A

Ixodes

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22
Q

Pathognomonic feature of Babesia microti

A

Maltese cross formation

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23
Q

What is the most important parasitic design in man:

A

Plasmodium sp.

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24
Q

Intermediate host of Plasmodium:

A

Man

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25
Q

Definitive host of Plasmodium:

A

Anopheles

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26
Q

What is the sexual cycle of Plasmodium sp.?

A

Sporogony

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27
Q

What is the infective stage of Plasmodium sp.?

A

Sporozoite

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28
Q

Quotidian malaria:

A

P. knowlesi

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29
Q

Benign tertian malarias:

A

P. Vivax and P. Ovale

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30
Q

Malarias spp. associated with recrudescence:

A

P. knowlesi, P. falciparum, P. malariae

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31
Q

Ziemman dots are seen in which Malarial species?

A

P. malariae

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32
Q

Histopathologic hallmark of P. falciparum cerebral malaria:

A

Durck granulomas

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33
Q

Acute kidney kidney injury secondary to hemoglobinuria caused by P. falciparum is also known as:

A

Black water fever

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34
Q

Profound shock and circulatory collapse caused by P. falciparum is also called:

A

Algid malaria

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35
Q

Primaquine destroys which malarial stage in the blood:

A

Gametocyte stage

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36
Q

Gametocytes in the blood and schizonts in the liver are inhibited by which form of malaria:

A

Primaquine

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37
Q

Sporonticides:

A

Proguanil and Pyrimethamine

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38
Q

DOC for chloroquine resistant P. falciparum:

A

Oral artesunate or oral artemether lumefantrine

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39
Q

Malaria prophylaxis for areas with chloroquine resistant P. falciparum:

A

Mefloquine

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40
Q

Malaria prophylaxis for areas with chloroquine and mefloquine resistant P. falciparum:

A

Atovaquone proguanil/doxycycline

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41
Q

Nematodes seen in the small intestines:

A

CASH (capillaria, ascaris, strongyloides, hookworms)

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42
Q

Nematodes in large intestines:

A

Trichuris and Enterobius

43
Q

Roundworm smear for qualitative identification of eggs:

A

Kato thick smear

44
Q

Roundworm smear for qualitative and quantitative identification of eggs which is also used for the burden of eggs:

A

Kato-Katz smear

45
Q

Filariform larvae is the infective stage of which roundworms:

A

Hookworm and strongyloides

46
Q

Mansonia mosquito is the vector of which parasite?

A

Brugia malayi

47
Q

What is both the infective and the diagnostic stage of Trichinella?

A

Encysted larvae

48
Q

Scotch tape test is a diagnostic test for which parasite:

A

Enterobius vermicularis

49
Q

Parasite that is able to migrate to the lungs causing Loeffler’s syndrome (eosinophilic pulmonary infiltrates)

A

Ascaris lumbricoides (Roundworm)

50
Q

What is the most common form of nematode co infection?

A

Ascaris and Trichuris

51
Q

Pathognomonic sign of Trichuris infection:

A

Rectal prolapse

52
Q

Hookworm presentation associated with GI disturbances and eosinophilia:

A

Wakana syndrome

53
Q

Method of incubating fecal material on a filter paper strip in test tube containing water for culture and recovering nematodes:

A

Harada Mori Technique

54
Q

DOC for animal hookworms:

A

Ivermectin or albendazole

55
Q

Intermittent watery and bloody diarrhea is caused by what parasite:

A

Strongyloides (Cochin China diarrhea)

56
Q

Natural definitive host of Capillaria philippinensis:

A

Fish eating birds

57
Q

Most debilitating nematode infection:

A

Lymphatic filariasis

58
Q

Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia with the presence of Meyers Kouwenaar bodies indicate the presence of which parasitic infection:

A

Lymphatic filariasis

59
Q

Knott’s concentration technique is employed in which parasitic infection:

A

Lymphatic filariasis

60
Q

Infective stage of tissue nematodes:

A

L3

61
Q

Loa loa vector:

A

Chrysops, deer, mango flies

62
Q

Calabar swelling or the presence of transient subcutaneous edema in extremities is seen in which parasitic infection:

A

Loa loa infection/African eye worm

63
Q

What is the 2nd leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide:

A

Onchocerca volvulus

64
Q

Onchocerca volvulus vector:

A

Sandfly (simulium)

65
Q

Causative agent for river blindness:

A

Onchocerca volvulus

66
Q

DEC is the drug of choice among filarial worms except:

A

Onchocerca volvulus (Ivermectin)

67
Q

All tapeworms except one infects the intestines. Which tapeworm infects the liver?

A

E. granulosus

68
Q

Tapeworm where humans can act both as intermediate and definitive host:

A

Taenia solium

69
Q

Tapeworm eggs are non operculated except:

A

D. latum eggs

70
Q

What is the longest medically important tapeworm?

A

D. latum

71
Q

Taeniasis treatment:

A

Praziquantel

72
Q

Infective stage to man (D. latum)

A

Plerocercoid larvae

73
Q

1st Intermediate host of D. latum:

A

Copepods

74
Q

Tapeworm associated with life threatening anaphylaxis secondary to ruptured cyst:

A

E. granulosus

75
Q

Natural intermediate host of E. granulosus:

A

Sheep

76
Q

Natural definitive host of H. nana and diminuta:

A

Rats

77
Q

Most common tapeworm of cats and dogs with barrel shaped proglottids in stool:

A

D. caninum

78
Q

First intermediate host of S. japonicum

A

Oncomelania

79
Q

S. mansoni first IH:

A

Biomphalaria

80
Q

S. haematobium first IH:

A

Bulinus

81
Q

Mode of transmission of Fasciola sp.

A

Ingestion of metacercaria (by eating freshwater plants)

82
Q

Al trematodes have 2 intermediate hosts except:

A

Schistosoma sp.

83
Q

All trematodes are hermaphrodites except:

A

Schistosoma sp.

84
Q

DOC for all trematodes is Praziquantel except which trematode?

A

Fasciola (Triclabendazole)

85
Q

1st IH of Paragonimus westermani?

A

Antemelania

86
Q

Antifungal that binds to ergosterol forming leaky pores:

A

Polyenes (Amphotericin B)

87
Q

Antifungal that inhibits p450 dependent enzymes:

A

Azoles

88
Q

Antifungal that blocks B glucan synthase decreasing fungal cell wall synthesis:

A

Echinocandins

89
Q

Antifungal that interferes with microtubule function:

A

Griseofulvin

90
Q

Layer of the skin involved in superficial mycoses:

A

Stratum corneum

91
Q

Most prevalent mycosis in the world:

A

Cutaneous mycosis

92
Q

Spaghetti and meatballs, bacon and egg appearance in KOH preparation:

A

Tinea versicolor (Malassezia furfur)

93
Q

Black piedra causative agent:

A

Piedraia hortae

94
Q

White piedra causative agent:

A

Trichosporon

95
Q

Most difficult to treat dermatophytosis:

A

Tinea ungium

96
Q

Causative agent of ectothrix:

A

Microsporum

97
Q

Cigar shaped yeasts or asteroid bodies are pathognomonic signs of what fungal species?

A

Sporothrix schenckii (subcutaneous mycosis)

98
Q

Most common cause of meningoencephalitis in HIV patients:

A

C. neoformans

99
Q

Treatment for C. neoformans:

A

Amphotericin B and Fluconazole

100
Q

Narrow angled branching hyphae:

A

Aspergillus

101
Q

Treatment for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis:

A

Itraconazole

102
Q

Saphrophytic molds that may cause rhino-orbital-cerebral infection with eschar formation especially dka, burns, and leukemia:

A

Rhizopus and Mucor spp.

103
Q
A

Pharmacology (8 decks)

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