microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

how does gentamicin work

A

bactericidal, inhibit protein synthesis acting at 30s ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how is gentamicin given

A

IM or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what bacteria does gentamicin work against

A

S.aureus
e.coli
klebsiella
pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

indiactions gentamicin

A

sepsis
biliary tract infections
acute pyelonephritis and prostatitis
endocarditis
HAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CI/cautions with gentamicin

A

excretion via kindeys - increase dosing interval in renal impairment
avoid in pregnancy and myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does clindamicin work

A

bacteriostatic, inhibit protein synthesis acting at 50s ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ow is clindamicin given

A

oral, IM, IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what bacteria does clindamycin work against

A

S.aureus, haemolytic strep, clostridium perfringens, bacteroides fragillis
no gram neg cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

inidcation clindamycin

A

alternatibe to penicillin in staph infection
peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

SE clindamycin

A

c.diff
abdo discomfort
oesoohagitis
taste disturbance
SJS
TEN
ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how does ertythromycin work

A

bacteriostatic, inhibit protein synthesis acting at 50s ribosome, doesnt cross BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

adminisering erythromicin

A

oral, IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what bacteria does erythromycin work against

A

S.aureus, haem strep, strep pneumoniae, legionella, mycoplasma pneumoniae, chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

indications erythromycin

A

alternative to penicillin
campylobacter enteritis
syphilis
non gonococcal urethritis
atypical pneumonia
chronic prostatiis
group a strep
cellulitis
whooping cough
acne vulgaris
rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cautions/CI erythromycin

A

prolong QT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SE erythromycin

A

QT prolongation
nausea and vom
diarrhoea
phlebitis
myasthenia like syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does vancomycin work

A

bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what bacteria does vancomycin work against

A

staph aureus,
staph epidermidis
haem strep
enterococcus
faecalis and faceium
strep pneumoniae
no gram neg cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

indications vancomycin

A

infections caused by sensitive oganisms - sepsis, endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

SE vancomycin

A

nephrotoxicity
ototoxicity
neutropaenia
phlebitis
red man syndrome
SJS
TEN
ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what bacteria does ceftazidime work on

A

haemophilus infuelzae
e.coli
klebsiella
pseudomonas aeruginosa
moraxella cattahalis
no grampositive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

indications ceftazadime

A

pseudomonal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what bacteria does cefritaxone wotk on

A

staph aureus
haem strep
strep pneumoniae
neisseria meningitidis
neisseria gonorrhoea
h. influenzae
e.coli
klebsiella
moraxella cattarhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how does ciprofloxacin work

A

bactericidal, act on DNA gyrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what bacteria does ciprofloxacin work on

A

staph aureus
h.influenzae
e.coli
psuedomonas aeruginosa
moraexella catarrhalis
mycoplasma pneumoniae
chlamydia
salmonella
shigella
camplylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

indications ciprofloxacin

A

atypical CAP, UTIs, GI (typhoid), osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, gonorrhoea, septicaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cautions ciprofoxacin

A

lower seizure threshold
exacerbate myasthenia gravius
can precipitate attack in G6PD deficiency
tendon rupture
avoid in children and pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

SE ciprofoxacin

A

nausea and vom
diarrhoea
tendonitis
photosensitivity
SJS
TEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what bacteria does trimethoprim work against

A

e.coli
klebsiella
shigella
salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

indications trimethoprim

A

UTI
bronchitis
shigellosis
invasive salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CI trimethoprim

A

teratogenic in 1st trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what does cefuroxime work against

A

staph aureus
haem strep
strep pneumoniae
h.infuelzae
e.coli
klebsiella
moraxella cattarhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does cefadroxil work against

A

staph aureus
haem strep
strep pneumoniae
e.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

indications cefadroxil

A

UTIs in pregnancy
otitis media
sinusiits
skin and soft tissue infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

SE cefadroxil

A

diarrhoea
nause and vom
headache
SJS
TEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

bacteria benpen works agaisnt

A

haem strep
strep pneumoniae
enterococcus faecalis
listeria monocytogenes
clostridium perfrigens
neisseria meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

infications benpen

A

throat infections
otitis media
endocardiits
meningococcal disease
pneumoniae
cellulitis
antrhax
intrapartum GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

SE benpen

A

hypersensitivity rash
CNS toxicity
interstitial nephroitis
haemolytoc anaemia
leucopenia
thrombocytopenia
diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

bacteria metronidazole works against

A

anaerobes
protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

SE metronidazole

A

disulfiram like reaction with alcohol
GI upset
taste disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

cautions metronidazole

A

liver impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

inidcations penicillin

A

oral infection
tonsillitis
otitis media
erysipelas
celluliits
group a strep
rheumatic fever
pneumococcal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

indications benzathine penicilloin

A

syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does piptazobactam/tazocin work against

A

staph aureus
haem strep
enterococcus faecalis
strep pneumoniae
clostridium perfringens
bacteroides fragilis
h.influenzae
e.coli
klebsiella
psuedomonas aeruginosa
moraxella cattarhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

indications piptazobactam/tazocin

A

hospital acquired pneumonia
septicaemia
peritonitis
complicated UTIS
pseudomonal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what do carbapenems work against

A

staph aureus
haem strep
enterococcus faecalis
strep pneumoniae
listeria monocytogenes
clostridium perfringens
bacterioides fragillis
neisseria meningitidis
h.influenzae
e.coli
klebsiella
pseudomonas aeruginosa
moraxella cattarhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

indications carbapenems

A

severe hospital acquired infections
sepsis
intra abdo infection
skin and soft tissue infections
complicated UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

SE carbapenems

A

nausea and vom
diarrhoea
raised LFTs
headache
thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what bacteria does co-amoxiclav/augmentin work on

A

staph aureus
haem strep
enterococcus faecalis
strep pneumoniae
clostridium perfringens
h.influenzaew
e.coli
moraxella cattarhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

indications for co-amoxiclav

A

celluliits
osteomyelitis
septic arthritis
genito-urinary infections
abdo infections
severe dental infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

SE co-amoxiclav

A

cholestatic jaundice
SJS
toxic epidermal necrolysis
exfoliative dermatitis
vasculitis
CNS toxicity

52
Q

what bcateria to ampicillin and amoxicillin work against

A

haem strep
enterococcus faecalis
strep pneumoniae
listeria monocytogenes
clostridium perfringens

53
Q

indications ampicilin/amoxicillin

A

UTI
otitis media
sinusiits
bronchitis
community acquired pnuemonia

54
Q

cautions ampicillin/amoxicillin

A

suspected glandular fever
lymphocytic leukaemia

55
Q

sE ampicillin/amoxicillin

A

nause and vom
diarrhoea
rash

56
Q

what does fluclox work against

A

staoh aureus
haem strep

57
Q

indications fluclox

A

otitis externa
pneumonia
impetigo
cellulitis
osteomyelitis
endocardiitis

58
Q

gram staining

A

POSITIVE – PURPLE
NEGATIVE - RED

59
Q

ziehl neelsen staining

A

USED FOR MYCOBACTERIA
THEY ARE ACID FAST – PINK/RED
What does acid fast mean?
THIS MEANS THAT THEY RESIST ACID DE-COLOURISATION PROCEDURES

60
Q

catalase tests

A

TELLS YOU THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN:
STAPHYLOCOCCI
STREPTOCOCCI/ENTEROCOCCI

staphylococci use catalase to protect against hydrogen peroxide – reaction you see bubbles – catalase positive
if not present there is no reaction – catalase negative

61
Q

coagulase test

A

Used to differentiate between:
Staphylococcus aureus
Other Staphylococci

COAGULASE is an enzyme that causes coagulation – fibrin to clot

BACTERIA + PLASMA = CLOT - STAPH AUREUS – coagulase positive
BACTERIA + PLASMA = NO CLOT – OTHER STAPH SPEICES – coagulase negative

62
Q

oxidase test

A

Identifies bacteria that are oxidase positive – produce cytochrome oxidase
Pseudomonas
Neisseria

POSITIVE TEST RESULT – BLACK/PURPLE COLOUR
NEGATIVE TEST RESULT – NO COLOUR CHANGE

63
Q

optochin test

A

Differentiates:
Streptococcus pneumoniae – what type of cocci…
Diplococci in chains
From other alpha haemolytic streptococci

Clear zone of lysis – strep. pneumoniae

64
Q

blood agar

A

Differentiates
Alpha haemolytic streptococci
Beta haemolytic streptococci

Alpha – green pigment
Beta – clear zones of lysis
Non-haemolytic – no change

65
Q

macconkey agar

A

Bile salts only permit the growth of enteric bacteria

Lactose fermentation causes an acidic environment – red/pink colour change with the indicator

Red/pink colony – E Coli, Klebsiella

Clear colony – Salmonella, Shigella, Pseudomonas

66
Q

gram positive aerobic bacilli

A

cornybacterium: c.diptheria
listeria: listeria monocytogenes
bacilus: b. anthracis, b.cerus

67
Q

gram positive anaerobic bacili

A

clostridium

68
Q

gram positive alpha haemolytic strep

A

s.pneumoniae
s.oralis
s.sanguis

69
Q

gram positive beta haemolutic strep

A

s. pyogenes (A)
s. agalactiae (B)

70
Q

gram positive non haemolytic strep

A

s.mutans
s.milleri
enterococcus faecalis (D)

71
Q

gram positive coag negative staph

A

s.epidermidis
s. saprophiticus

72
Q

gram positive coag posiitve staph

A

s.aureus

73
Q

gram negative bacilli aerobic lactose fermenters (macConkey pink)

A

e.coli
K.pneumoniae

74
Q

gram negative aerobic non lactose fermenters bacili

A

salmonella: s.typhi, s.paratyphi, s.enterica
shigella: s.sonnei, s.dysenteriae
proteus: p.mirabilis

75
Q

gram negative cocci

A

n.meningitidis, n.gonorrhoea
moraxella catarrhalis

76
Q

gram negative aerobic bacili with fastidious growth requirements

A

parvobacteria: h.influenzae, bordatella pertussus, legionella pneumophilia, brucella, campylobacter jejuni
helicobacter pylori

77
Q

obligate intracellular bacteria

A

chlamydia
coxiella
rickettsia

78
Q

ziehl neelson positive bacteria

A

mycobacteria

79
Q

spirochaetes

A

treponema pallidum
borrelia
leptospira

80
Q

exotoxin

A

secreted by bacteria (MAINLY GRAM POSITIVE) – specific actions – like paralysis with botulinum toxin

81
Q

endotoxin

A

– released when bacteria is damaged, less specific action – septic shock

82
Q

TB mx

A

Rifampicin - RED urine, hepatotoxicity
Isoniazid – peripheral neuropathy – N for neuropathy
Pyrizinamide - hepatotoxicity
Ethambutol – ocular/EYE toxicity

83
Q

UTI causes

A

E Coli
Other causative organisms
Proteus
Klebsiella

84
Q

mx UTI

A

First line
Trimethoprim/nitrofurantoin
Or amoxicillin

85
Q

cause pyelonephritis

A

E Coli
Other causative organism
Enterococcus faecalis

86
Q

mx pyelonephritis

A

Use cefuroxime or quinolone (floxacin – ciprofloxacin)
Gentamicin

87
Q

cause prostatitis

A

E Coli
But also
Proteus Mirabilis
Klebsiella

88
Q

mx prostatitis

A

Quinolones (ciprofloxacin)

89
Q

cause imptigo

A

s.aureus

90
Q

mx impetigo

A

fusidic acid

91
Q

cause celullitis

A

s.aureus

92
Q

mx cellulitis

A

fluclox

93
Q

cause resp pneumonia

A

Strep Pneumonia
Other causes
H Influenzae
Atypicals –
Coxiella, Chlamydophilia, Mycoplasma, Leigionella

94
Q

mx CAP

A

Low severity=Amoxicillin
Moderate=Amoxicillin
High severity=Benzylpenicillin + clarithromycin (why clarithromycin?)

95
Q

mx HAP

A

Co-amoxiclav – if early onset (less than 5 days into admission)
Tazoin – if late onset (more than 5 days)

96
Q

cause osteomyelitis

A

S Aureus
Other=Enterocbacter
Streptococcus
if sickle cell anaemia=Salmonella

97
Q

mx osteomyelitis

A

fluclox

98
Q

cause septic arthritis

A

S Aureus
Other
Streptococci
Neisseria – in sexually active young adults

99
Q

mx septic arthritis

A

fluclox

100
Q

cause eye infections

A

S Aureus
Other causes
Streptococci
Haemophilus

101
Q

mx eye infections

A

Chloramphenicol

102
Q

tx c.diff

A

Metronidazole – use in situations where anaerobic bacteria are suspected

103
Q

cause meningitis

A

Neisseria Meningitidis
Streptococcus Pneumoniae

104
Q

mx meningitis

A

3 months -50 years=Cefotaxime
Over 50 years=Cefotaxime and amoxicillin

105
Q

what type of diarrhoea does cholera cause

A

rice water

106
Q

Abx that work by affecting folate (nucleic acid synthesis)

A

Sulfonamides
Trimethoprim

107
Q

Abx that affect DNA gyrase (nucleic acid) synthesis

A

Quinolones

108
Q

Abx that affect RNA polymerase synthesis (nucleic acid synthesis)

A

Rifampicir

109
Q

Abx that affect cell wall synthesis

A

Beta lactams
Vancomycin
Bacitracin
Cell membrane synthesis: polymyxins

110
Q

Beta lactams

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapanems
Monobactams

111
Q

Abx that affect 50 s subunit (protein) synthesis

A

Macrolides
Clindamycin
Linezolid
Chloramphenicol
Streptogramins

112
Q

Abx that affect 30s ribosome (protein) synthesis

A

Tetracycline
Aminoglycosides

113
Q

Where does first pass metabolism happen

A

Liver

114
Q

Drugs that increase risk c diff

A

Abx: c drugs
Ciprofloxacin
Clindamicin
Cephalosporin
Co amox
Carbapenems

115
Q

Antibiotics stewardship

A

Start smart: only start if clinical evidence, comply with local guidelines, document clinical indication and when to rev, cultures before start

Focus: after 48-72h: stop if no infection, IV to oral, narrow the spectrum, continue and document review/start date, outpatient parenteral abx if still need

116
Q

What to write in exam if unsure which abx

A

Give antibiotics as per local guidelines (name of drug in brackets if know)

117
Q

Ciprofloxacin SE

A

REDUCES seizures threshold
Increases QT interval
Predisposes to Aortic dissection
C. Diff
Tendo rupture

118
Q

What to NEVER prescribe with trimethoprim

A

Methotrexate

119
Q

When to avoid nitrofurantoin

A

If eGFR less than 45 as its really excreted so won’t work

120
Q

Abx for hospital acquired pneumonia sheffield

A

If well: doxcycycline
Unwell: tazocin (piperacillin/tazobactam)

121
Q

Severity markers c diff and what do if present

A

WCC high, AKI, abdominal pain, fever over 38.5
Call surgeons, query colitis

122
Q

Mx c. Diff

A

Oral vancomycin
Fidaxomicin second line (due to costs)

123
Q

Which abx SE is red man syndrome

A

Vancomycin infusion

124
Q

Red man syndrome sx

A

pruritus
an erythematous rash that involves the face, neck, and upper torso. Less frequently, hypotension and angioedema can occur.

125
Q

Blood Borne virus screen

A

HIV
hep B
Hep C