Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are common techniques in the detection of microorganisms?

A

Microscopy - electron, ultraviolet, light
PCR - amplification of DNA to look at genome
Gram stain - ability of dye to penetrate the cell wall
Culture - spread on agar plates and grown
Serological methods - looking for antigens or antibodies

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2
Q

What is the process for gram staining?

A

Add crystal violet dye
Add iodine
Add decolouriser/acetone - gram positive will stain purple
Counterstain with safranin - gram negative will stain pink

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3
Q

Why do bacteria stain gram positive or gram negative?

A

Gram positive - has a peptidoglycan layer that can retain the dye = purple

Gram negative - has a lipopolysaccharide layer on membrane that prohibits penetration of dye = pink

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4
Q

What are examples of gram positive bacteria?

A

Cocci - staph, strep, enterococci

Bacilli - clostridium, diphtheria, bacillus, lactobacillus, listeria

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5
Q

What are examples of gram negative bacteria?

A

Cocci - neisseria

Bacilli - legionella, e.coli, klebsiella, salmonella, pseudomonas, enterobacter, shigella

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6
Q

What are the main 3 factors leading to infection?

A

Susceptible host
- Age, sex, genes, innate defence, behaviours, co-morbidities

Source/environment
- air, food, water, animals, travel

Pathogen
- microbial flora, virus, bacteria, parasites, helminths

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7
Q

What are Koch’s postulates in establishing pathogenicity (4)?

A

The same organism must be present in every case of the disease and not in healthy individuals

Organism must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture

Isolated organism must cause disease when inoculated into a healthy, susceptible animal

Organism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased animal

(rules do not apply to normal human flora or uncultivable organisms)

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8
Q

What are basic bacterial classifications?

A

Gram stain - negative or positive
Microscopic morphology - cocci or bacilli
Atmospheric requirements - un/aerobic
Biochemical - expression of enzymes
Colonial characteristics - size, shape, colour
Antibiotic susceptibility

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9
Q

Why are some bacteria more virulent than others?

A

Characteristics of successful pathogens

  • motility - enable pathogen to reach site
  • adhesins - to attach to host cells
  • ability to form biofilms
  • ability to produce toxins that have adverse effects on host cells

Opportunistic pathogens - can only cause disease individuals whose host defences are compromised

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10
Q

What are examples or healthcare associated infections?

A

Infections that occur as a result of contact with the healthcare system - from nursing home care, primary or secondary care.

- MRSA
- Clostridium difficile
- ESBL
- HAP
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11
Q

What are examples of community acquired infection?

A

Infections that are contracted outside of a hospital or diagnosed within 48 hours of admission

- Flu
- CAP
- Norovirus
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12
Q

What are the main causes of antibiotic resistance?

A

Over-prescription of antibiotics
Patients not finishing the entire course
Overuse of abx in livestock and fish farming
Poor infection control
Poor hygiene and sanitation
Absence of new antibiotics being discovered

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13
Q

What are the 4 main drug-resistant superbugs?

A
  1. MRSA
    • Staphylococcus aureus
    • Resistant to methicillin - fluclox, penicillin
    • Found in catheters
  2. Clostridium difficile
    • Anaerobic bacterium lives in the gut
    • Overgrows from broad spectrum antibiotics or PPIs and overgrow causing pseudomembranes and colitis
  3. ESBL - Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamases
    • Gram negative bacteria resistant to all penicillin based antibiotics
    • Complicate urinary catheters and in situ drains
  4. VRE - Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
    • Normally occurs inside the hospital
    • Can cause infections of the urinary tract, bloodstream, wounds associated with catheters and surgical procedures
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14
Q

What are basic infection prevention and control methods?

A

Institutions
- food preparation regulations, aseptic practices, screen blood, ventilation, cleanliness of equipment, laundry management, ANTT

Health care staff
- education, sharps disposal, PPE, screening health workers, vaccinations, post exposure prophylaxis

Clinical Practice
- antibiotic stewardship, aseptic technique, preoperative prophylaxis, screening patients, immunisation

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15
Q

What are responses to infection for control and prevention purposes?

A
Surveillance to detect outbreaks and microbial resistance
Reporting of notifiable diseases
Isolation
Reservoir control
Vector control
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16
Q

What is the role of the infection control team within a hospital setting?

A

Follow up with audit results and check they are implemented
Checking people following infection prevention rules
Surveillance to detect outbreaks and antimicrobial resistance
Reporting of notifiable disease

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17
Q

What are the main preoperative measures of safeguarding patients against infection?

A
ANTT - aseptic techniques
Sterile equipment
Handwashing
PPE
Operating theatre air quality - HEPA Filter 
Antibiotic prophylaxis
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18
Q

What are procedure related risks of post-op infections?

A

Pre-existant sepsis
Poor skin preparation - shaving
Nonviable tissue in wound - haematoma
Foreign material - drains and sutures, dead space

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19
Q

What are patient related risks of post-op infections?

A
Host resistance
Age
Malnutrition, diabetes, steroids, obesity
Immunosuppresion
Hypovalaemia
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20
Q

What are the main principles of infection prevention?

A

Remove sources - containing the infected
Block routes of transfer
Enhance natural resistance - vaccination, nutrition
Offer antimicrobial prophylaxis

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21
Q

What are the 3 routes of transmission of bacteria and viruses in hospitals?

A

Airborne - droplets
Direct Contact
Faecal-Oral

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22
Q

What are main differentiations between viral and bacterial infections?

A

Viral:

  • Non-productive cough
  • Symptoms last 7-10 days
  • Sore throat normally virus except strep
  • Lymphocytes and monocles

Bacterial:

  • Higher fever
  • Productive cough
  • Symptoms persist longer
  • Neutrophils
23
Q

What is the presentation in sepsis?

A
Low BP <100
Increased RR >22
Fast pulse
Altered mental state
Low oxygen sats
Fever turns to hypothermia
24
Q

What is the sepsis 6 management?

A

Within the first hour…

Take 3:
- Bloods, measure urine output, serial lactase

Give 3:
- Antibiotics, IV fluids, Oxygen

25
Q

What viral disease has classic triad presentation of fever, pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy with a rash, splenomegaly and is transmitted through saliva?

A

Mononucleosis - Epstein Barr virus

26
Q

What are malignant complications of Epstein Barr virus?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
Lymphoproliferative disease
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
CNS lymphoma

27
Q

What viral disease presents with fever, sore throat, cough, abdominal pain, diarrhoea for 3-4 days followed by a rash on palms of hands and soles of feet, trunk and sores on oral mucosa in children under 10?

A

Hand, foot and mouth disease

28
Q

What are the 2 types of herpes simplex virus?

A

Herpes Simplex Type 1: Cold sores on lips

Herpes Simplex Type 2: Genital ulcers - more common

29
Q

What are the clinical features of herpex simplex and how is it treated?

A

Skin and mucous membrane lesions - mouth/genitals

- Prodromal - tingling or burning before blisters appear
- Cluster of small, painful fluid-filled blisters that ooze and ulcerate + heal within a few weeks

Dysuria in women
Lymphadenopathy
Can infect nail bed

Antivirals - aciclovir

30
Q

Why is there an increased risk of developing HIV with herpes simplex?

A

Breaches in the mucosal barrier as a result of genital ulcers

31
Q

What viral disease commonly presents with warts and what is the malignant serotype?

A

HPV

  • 1 and 4 - feet common warts
  • 2, 3, 10 - finger common warts
  • 6 and 11 - genital warts
  • 16 and 18 - cervical cancer
32
Q

What are common bacteria/virus causing GI infections?

A
E.coli
Salmonella
Campylobacter
Norovirus
Clostridium difficile
33
Q

What are common bacteria causing infective endocarditis?

A

Staphylococci sanguini

Streptococci

34
Q

What are diagnostic modalities available in primary care for the diagnosis of infection?

A
PCR
Wound swabs, pus
Urine samples
Scraping
Rapid antigen tests 
FBC - wcc, crp, platelets
Serology - antigens/antibodies
35
Q

What are the 6 steps for the mechanism of viral infection?

A
Attachment - specific receptors 
Penetration - fusion of viral envelope 
Uncoating - release genomic material
Replication - production of mRNA
Assembly - make viral protein on ribosome
Release - virus can bud off or cytolysis
36
Q

What is the management of a needle-stick injury?

A

Encourage wound to bleed
Wash wound using running water and soap
Do not scrub
Dry and cover wound
Document and inform appropriate people and OH
Blood tests for both the source and recipient
PeP if necessary

37
Q

What factors determine travel-related risks?

A
Mode of transportation
Destination
Season of travel 
Duration of travel
Standards of accommodation
Food hygiene 
Sanitation
Behaviour of traveller 
Underlying health of traveller
38
Q

What are viral and bacterial causative agents of gastroenteritis?

A

Viral

  • Rotavirus
  • Norovirus
  • Astrovirus

Bacterial

  • Camplyobactor jejuni
  • E.coli
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
39
Q

What are the 2 types of enterically transmitted hepatitis viruses and what are the general presentation?

A

Hepatitis E - waterborne

Hepatitis A - spread in faeces

Tiredness, fever, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, jaundice, loss of appetite, dark urine, pale faeces, itchy skin

40
Q

What are arthropod-associated travel infections?

A
Malaria
Dengue fever
Crimean-congo haemorrhagic fever 
Yellow fever 
Zika virus 
Tick-borne encephalitis 
Japanese encephalitis
41
Q

How can mosquito-borne viral infections be controlled and prevented?

A
Draining stagnant water 
Insecticides 
Mosquito nets 
Wearing long sleeves and trousers 
DEET
42
Q

How does slapped cheek present, what is the causative viral agent, who is it most dangerous to and how is it spread?

A

Parvovirus B19
Dangerous in pregnancy - anaemia, intrauterine death

Slapped cheek appearance, low grade fever, arthralgia, non-specific influenza symptoms, reticular erythematous eruptions predominantly on extremities

Can be spread via direct contact and respiratory droplets + vertically

43
Q

What is shingles?

A

Herpes zoster infection is an acute, unilateral, painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), following initial primary infection of VZV causing chickenpox, virus lies dormant in the dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglia

44
Q

What is the presentation of shingles?

A

Prodromal period - burning period over affected dermatome for 2-3 days, may experience fever, headache, lethargy

Followed by rash - erythematous, macular rash, itchy, vesicular well enclosed in dermatome

45
Q

What viral disease presents with high temp, loss of appetite, swollen eyelids and lymph glands in the neck… followed by a rash of pinkish-red spots over the chest, tummy and back that spreads to limbs and face, not itchy?

A

Roseola, Sixth disease
Human herpes virus 6

Spread through respiratory secretions

46
Q

What viral disease presents with prodromal stage of fever, malaise, conjuctivitis, cough… followed by small red/white spots in mouth(koplik spots), erythematous and maculopapular rash starting at head and spreads to trunk and limbs for 3/4 days, fever stops once rash appears?

A

Measles

Spread by airborne of droplet transmission

47
Q

What is a common respiratory disease in children under 2?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

Cough, wheeze, hypoxia, croup, URTI, bronchiolitis

48
Q

What viral disease presents similarly to EBV but is usually asymptomatic with possible flu-like symptoms the first time?

A

Cytomegalovirus

49
Q

What is tertiary syphillis?

A

Reactivated syphilis

Affects neurological and cardiovascular

50
Q

What are clinical features of syphillis?

A

Enlarged inguinal lymph nodes
Painless genital ulcers
Mouth ulcers

Flu-like illness
Alopecia
Mucosal ulceration and erosions on genitalia

51
Q

What are clinical features of gonorrhoea?

A

Men - pirulent discharge, pain on urination

Women - often asymptomatic - PID, infertility

52
Q

What are clinical features of chlamydia?

A

Women - vaginal discharge, abornmal bleeding, friable cervix

Men - penile discharge, conjunctivitis, Reiter’s syndrome - late

C.trachomatis - serotype D-K

53
Q

How do STIs in children present?

A

conjunctivitis

sticky discharge from eyes